CAS-004 Sample Questions Answers

A denial of service (DoS) attack is a malicious attempt to disrupt the normal functioning of a server by overwhelming it with requests or traffic1. One possible indicator of a DoS attack is a large number of connections from a single source IP address1. In this case, the output of netstat -an shows that there are many connections from 213.37.55.67 with different port numbers and in TIME WAIT state23. This suggests that the attacker is sending many SYN packets to initiate connections but not completing them, thus exhausting the server’s resources and preventing legitimate users from accessing it1.

While serverless computing abstracts the infrastructure layer from developers, organizations must still ensure the security of their data in the serverless environment. This includes protecting the data from unauthorized access and ensuring data privacy and integrity. Serverless architectures can be complex, and understanding the security model and shared responsibility is essential for safeguarding applications and services.

The command depicted is indicative of a reverse shell, which is a type of shell where the target system initiates an outgoing connection to a remote host, and then standard input and output of the command line interface on the target system is redirected through this connection to the remote host. This is typically used by an attacker after exploitation to open a remote command line interface to control the compromised machine.

Identifying the security boundary is an essential first step in a risk assessment process as it defines the scope of the assessment. It delineates the environment where the risk assessment will take place and sets the limits for what assets, systems, and processes will be included in the assessment.

One of the known security concerns with the Distributed Network Protocol version 3 (DNP3), which is used in SCADA systems, is the lack of built-in security features, including authentication. This means that by default, it does not verify the identity of the entities communicating, making it susceptible to unauthorized access and commands.

A digital signature is a cryptographic technique that allows the sender of a file to sign it with their private key and the receiver to verify it with the sender’s public key. This ensures the integrity and authenticity of the file, as well as the non-repudiation of the sender. A message hash or a message digest is a one-way function that produces a fixed-length output from an input, but it does not provide any information about the sender. A message authentication code (MAC) is a symmetric-key technique that allows both the sender and the receiver to generate and verify a code using a shared secret key, but it does not provide non-repudiation. References: [CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2: Enterprise Security Architecture, Objective 2.1: Apply cryptographic techniques

Open-source intelligence (OSINT) refers to the collection and analysis of information that is gathered from public, or open, sources. In the context of confirming the legitimacy of an email, OSINT could involve checking online databases, public records, or using search engines to find information related to the email's domain, the sender, links included in the email, or file hashes of attachments. This method can help determine if the email is part of a known phishing campaign or if it has been flagged by others as suspicious.

A next-generation firewall (NGFW) is a device or software that provides advanced network security features beyond the traditional firewall functions. A NGFW can provide the following capabilities:

• Recognize and block fake websites, using URL filtering and reputation-based analysis
• Decrypt and scan encrypted traffic on standard and non-standard ports, using SSL/TLS inspection and deep packet inspection
• Use multiple engines for detection and prevention, such as antivirus, intrusion prevention system (IPS), application control, and sandboxing
• Have central reporting, using a unified management console and dashboard A cloud access security broker (CASB) is a device or software that acts as an intermediary between cloud service users and cloud service providers. A CASB can provide various security functions such as visibility, compliance, data security, and threat protection, but it does not provide all the capabilities of a NGFW. Web filtering is a technique that blocks or allows web access based on predefined criteria such as categories, keywords, or reputation. Web filtering can help recognize and block fake websites, but it does not provide all the capabilities of a NGFW. Endpoint detection and response (EDR) is a technology that monitors and analyzes the activity and behavior of endpoints such as computers or mobile devices. EDR can help detect and respond to advanced threats, but it does not provide all the capabilities of a NGFW. References: [CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2: Enterprise Security Architecture, Objective 2.2: Select appropriate hardware and software solutions

Having developers use the company's VPN can provide them with secure access to the network while still allowing the company to block normal internet traffic from the other country. A jump box serves as a secure entry point for administrators or in this case, developers, to connect before launching any administrative tasks or accessing further areas of the network. This setup maintains security while still providing necessary access.

Updating firewall rules to match new IP addresses in use will help to limit the attack surface in case of an incident by ensuring only legitimate traffic is allowed. It can also improve access control for external and internal network security by ensuring that only authorized entities can access certain resources, and may improve network performance by reducing unnecessary traffic (less congestion).

Order of volatility is a procedure that a computer forensics examiner must follow during evidence collection. It refers to the order in which digital evidence is collected, starting with the most volatile and moving to the least volatile. Volatile data is data that is not permanent and is easily lost, such as data in memory when you turn off a computer. The security analyst should have followed the order of volatility to preserve the most fragile evidence first, such as the malicious script running as a background process, before turning off the infected machine. Verified References:

• https://www.computer-forensics-recruiter.com/order-of-volatility/
• https://www.sans.org/blog/best-practices-in-digital-evidence-collection/
• https://blogs.getcertifiedgetahead.com/order-of-volatility/

The Statement of Work is a document that outlines the scope of the penetration test and defines the objectives, tools, methodology, and targets of the test. It also outlines the security controls that will be impacted by the test and what the expected outcomes are. Additionally, the Statement of Work should include any legal requirements and other considerations that should be taken into account during the penetration test.

To meet the contractual requirements of the web service provider, a security engineer should recommend the following actions:

• Deploying a content delivery network (CDN): A CDN is a distributed system of servers that delivers web content to users based on their geographic location, the origin of the content, and the performance of the network. A CDN can help improve the uptime, load time, and response time of web services by caching content closer to the users, reducing latency and bandwidth consumption. A CDN can also help mitigate distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks by absorbing or filtering malicious traffic before it reaches the origin servers, reducing the impact on the web service availability12.
• Implementing server clusters: A server cluster is a group of servers that work together to provide high availability, scalability, and load balancing for web services. A server cluster can help improve the uptime, load time, and response time of web services by distributing the workload across multiple servers, reducing the risk of single points of failure and performance bottlenecks. A server cluster can also help recover from failures by automatically switching to another server in case of a malfunction34.
• Lowering storage input/output (I/O): Storage I/O is the amount of data that can be read from or written to a storage device in a given time. Storage I/O can affect the performance of web services by limiting the speed of data transfer between the servers and the storage devices. Lowering storage I/O can help improve the load time and response time of web services by reducing the latency and congestion of data access. Lowering storage I/O can be achieved by using faster storage devices, such as solid-state drives (SSDs), optimizing the storage layout and configuration, such as using RAID or striping, and caching frequently accessed data in memory5 .

Installing a firewall at corporate headquarters is not a recommended action to meet the contractual requirements, as it does not directly affect the uptime, load time, or response time of web services. A firewall is a device or software that filters and blocks unwanted network traffic based on predefined rules. A firewall can help improve the security of web services by preventing unauthorized access and attacks, but it may also introduce additional latency and complexity to the network.

Employing bare-metal loading of applications is not a recommended action to meet the contractual requirements, as it does not directly affect the uptime, load time, or response time of web services. Bare-metal loading is a technique that allows applications to run directly on hardware without an operating system or a hypervisor. Bare-metal loading can help improve the performance and efficiency of applications by eliminating the overhead and interference of other software layers, but it may also increase the difficulty and cost of deployment and maintenance.

Implementing RAID on the backup servers is not a recommended action to meet the contractual requirements, as it does not directly affect the uptime, load time, or response time of web services. RAID (redundant array of independent disks) is a technique that combines multiple disks into a logical unit that provides improved performance, reliability, or both. RAID can help improve the availability and security of backup data by protecting it from disk failures or corruption, but it may also introduce additional complexity and overhead to the backup process.

Utilizing redundant power for all developer workstations is not a recommended action to meet the contractual requirements, as it does not directly affect the uptime, load time, or response time of web services. Redundant power is a technique that provides multiple sources of power for an IT system in case one fails. Redundant power can help improve the availability and reliability of developer workstations by preventing them from losing power due to outages or surges, but it may also increase the cost and energy consumption of the system.

Ensuring technological diversity on critical servers is not a recommended action to meet the contractual requirements, as it does not directly affect the uptime, load time, or response time of web services. Technological diversity is a technique that uses different types of hardware, software, or platforms in an IT environment. Technological diversity can help improve resilience by reducing single points of failure and increasing compatibility, but it may also introduce additional complexity and inconsistency to the environment. References: What Is CDN? How Does CDN Work? | Imperva, What Is Server Clustering? | IBM, What Is Server Clustering? | IBM, Server Clustering: What It Is & How It Works | Liquid Web, Storage I/O Performance - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics, [How to Improve Storage I/O Performance | StarWind Blog], [What Is Firewall Security? | Cisco], [What is Bare Metal? | IBM], [What is RAID? | Dell Technologies US], [What Is Redundant Power Supply? | Dell Technologies US], [Technological Diversity - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics]

File Integrity Monitoring (FIM) is a technology that can detect changes in files, often used to safeguard critical data. Implementing a FIM solution that generates alerts for access by unauthorized IP addresses would ensure that any unauthorized modifications to the file can be detected and acted upon. This helps in mitigating the risk of insider threats, as it would alert to any changes not made through the expected application process.

Chain of custody is critical in legal contexts as it documents the seizure, custody, control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of evidence. If the chain of custody is broken, it means there is a possibility that the evidence could have been tampered with or compromised, which can lead to it being deemed inadmissible in court.

When a legal records hold is issued, the organization is required to preserve all documents and communications that may relate to the litigation. This includes emails, files, and any other form of communication that contains the requested search terms. It is a process of ensuring that this information is not deleted, altered, or otherwise tampered with.

A multicloud provider solution is the best option for proceeding with the digital transformation while ensuring SLA (service level agreement) requirements in the event of a CSP (cloud service provider) incident. A multicloud provider solution is a strategy that involves using multiple CSPs for different cloud services or applications, such as infrastructure, platform, or software as a service. A multicloud provider solution can provide resiliency, redundancy, and availability for cloud services or applications, as it can distribute the workload and risk across different CSPs and avoid single points of failure or vendor lock-in. An on-premises solution as a backup is not a good option for proceeding with the digital transformation, as it could involve high costs, complexity, or maintenance for maintaining both cloud and on-premises resources, as well as affect the scalability or flexibility of cloud services or applications. A load balancer with a round-robin configuration is not a good option for proceeding with the digital transformation, as it could introduce latency or performance issues for cloud services or applications, as well as not provide sufficient resiliency or redundancy in case of a CSP incident. An active-active solution within the same tenant is not a good option for proceeding with the digital transformation, as it could still be affected by a CSP incident that impacts the entire tenant or region, as well as increase the costs or complexity of managing multiple instances of cloud services or applications. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-multicloud https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

The security analyst acknowledges this alert because it is a false positive. A false positive is an event classification that indicates a benign or normal activity is mistakenly flagged as malicious or suspicious by the SIEM system. A false positive can occur due to misconfigured rules, outdated signatures, or faulty algorithms. A false positive can waste the security analyst’s time and resources, so it is important to acknowledge and dismiss it after verifying that it is not a real threat. Verified References:

• https://www.ibm.com/topics/siem
• https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/security/business/security-101/what-is-siem
• https://www.splunk.com/en_us/data-insider/what-is-siem.html

Homomorphic encryption is a type of encryption method that allows computations to be performed on encrypted data without first decrypting it with a secret key. The results of the computations also remain encrypted and can only be decrypted by the owner of the private key. Homomorphic encryption can be used for privacy-preserving outsourced storage and computation. This means that data can be encrypted and sent to a cloud service provider (CSP) for processing, without revealing any information to the CSP or anyone else who might intercept the data. Homomorphic encryption can enable new services and applications that require processing confidential data on a large number of resources, such as machine learning, data analytics, health care, finance, and voting.

A. Processing data on a server after decrypting in order to prevent unauthorized access in transit is not a common use case for homomorphic encryption, because it does not take advantage of the main feature of homomorphic encryption, which is computing over encrypted data. This use case can be achieved by using any standard encryption method that provides confidentiality for data in transit.

B. Maintaining the confidentiality of data both at rest and in transit to and from a CSP for processing is not a common use case for homomorphic encryption, because it does not take advantage of the main feature of homomorphic encryption, which is computing over encrypted data. This use case can be achieved by using any standard encryption method that provides confidentiality for data at rest and in transit.

D. Storing proprietary data across multiple nodes in a private cloud to prevent access by unauthenticated users is not a common use case for homomorphic encryption, because it does not involve any computation over encrypted data. This use case can be achieved by using any standard encryption method that provides confidentiality for data at rest.

https://www.sp lunk.com/en_us/blog/learn/homomorphic-encryption.html

https://research.aimultiple.com/homomorphic-encryption/

This is because a risk assessment requires identifying the assets that are valuable to the organization and could be targeted by attackers. A full inventory of information and data assets can help the analyst prioritize the most critical assets and determine their potential exposure to threats. Without knowing what assets are at stake, the analyst cannot effectively assess the risk level or the impact of an attack. Creating an inventory of assets is also a prerequisite for performing other actions, such as following compliance standards, measuring availability, or conducting penetration tests.

A non-disclosure agreement (NDA) is crucial when external parties are provided access to sensitive company devices or information. The absence of an NDA poses a risk that confidential information could be disclosed by the service provider. Therefore, ensuring an NDA is in place with the company that supports sensitive devices would be a key risk identified in the contract.

An after-action report is a document that summarizes the performance of a team during a cybersecurity incident. It is used to review all aspects of the incident response plan, including what was done correctly, what needs improvement, and how the team responded to the incident. The CISO's review of data from a cyber exercise would typically result in an after-action report, which helps in improving future responses to incidents.

A Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA) is a process used to evaluate and manage privacy risks associated with the collection, use, and storage of personally identifiable information (PII). One of the key functions of a PIA is to document residual risks, which are the privacy risks that remain after controls have been applied. By identifying and documenting these risks, organizations can make informed decisions about whether additional measures are needed or whether certain risks are acceptable.

OS credential dumping is the process of obtaining account login and password information, normally in the form of a hash or a clear text password, from the operating system and software. System information discovery is the process of gathering information about the system, such as hostname, IP address, OS version, running processes, etc. Both of these techniques are commonly used by adversaries to gain access to sensitive data and resources on the target system. The command shown in the image is using Mimikatz, a tool that can dump credentials from memory, and also querying the system information using WMIC. Verified References:

• https://attack.mitre.org/techniques/T1003/
• https://attack.mitre.org/techniques/T1082/
• https://github.com/gentilkiwi/mimikatz
• https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/win32/wmisdk/wmic

A tabletop exercise is a type of testing plan that is used to discuss disaster recovery scenarios with representatives from multiple departments within an incident response team but without taking any invasive actions. A tabletop exercise is a simulation of a potential disaster or incident that involves a verbal or written discussion of how each department would respond to it. The purpose of a tabletop exercise is to identify gaps, weaknesses, or conflicts in the disaster recovery plan, and to improve communication and coordination among the team members.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 455]

A source code escrow is a legal agreement that involves a third party holding the source code of a software application on behalf of the software vendor and the software licensee. The source code escrow ensures that the licensee can access the source code in case the vendor goes out of business, fails to provide maintenance or support, or breaches the contract terms.

A source code escrow would have prevented the risk of having an old application that is not covered for maintenance anymore because the software company is no longer in business, because it would:

• Allow the licensee to obtain the source code and continue to update, fix, or modify the application according to their needs.
• Protect the vendor’s intellectual property rights and prevent unauthorized disclosure or use of the source code.
• Provide a legal framework and a trusted mediator for resolving any disputes or issues between the vendor and the licensee.

The process that involves searching and collecting evidence during an investigation or lawsuit is e-discovery. E-discovery stands for electronic discovery, which is the process of identifying, preserving, collecting, processing, reviewing, analyzing, and producing electronically stored information (ESI) that is relevant to a legal matter. E-discovery can be used for civil litigation, criminal prosecution, regulatory compliance, internal investigations, and other purposes. E-discovery can help parties obtain evidence from various sources, such as emails, documents, databases, social media, cloud services, mobile devices, and others. Verified References:

• https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/electronic-discovery
• https://www.edrm.net/frameworks-and-standards/edrm-model/
• https://www.law.cornell.edu/wex/electronic_discovery_(federal)

Rules of engagement are legal documents that should be signed by all parties involved in an assessment to ensure they understand their roles and responsibilities. Rules of engagement define the scope, objectives, methods, deliverables, limitations, and expectations of an assessment project. They also specify the legal and ethical boundaries, communication channels, escalation procedures, and reporting formats for the assessment. Rules of engagement help to avoid misunderstandings, conflicts, or liabilities during or after an assessment.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 34]

Purchasing one wildcard certificate is the best solution to protect multiple websites hosted by an organization in a cloud-hosted WAF. A wildcard certificate is a type of SSL/TLS certificate that can secure a domain name and any number of its subdomains with a single certificate. For example, a wildcard certificate for *.mycompany.com can secure www.mycompany.com, campus.mycompany.com, and any other subdomain under mycompany.com. A wildcard certificate can save costs and simplify management compared to purchasing individual certificates for each website.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 301]

Input validation is a technique that checks the user input for any errors, malicious data, or unexpected values before processing it by the application. Input validation can prevent many common web application attacks, such as:

• SQL injection, which exploits a vulnerability in the application’s database query to execute malicious SQL commands.
• Cross-site scripting (XSS), which injects malicious JavaScript code into the application’s web page to execute on the client-side browser.
• Directory traversal, which accesses files or directories outside of the intended scope by manipulating the file path.

In this case, the security engineer should recommend input validation as the best mitigation technique, because it would:

• Prevent the exfiltration of a company report by validating the file parameter in the URL and ensuring that it matches a predefined list of allowed files or formats.
• Enhance the security of the web application by filtering out any malicious or invalid input from users or attackers.
• Be more effective and efficient than other techniques, such as firewall, WAF (Web Application Firewall), or DLP (Data Loss Prevention), which may not be able to detect or block all types of web application attacks.

A downgrade attack is a type of man-in-the-middle attack that forces two hosts to use an older or weaker version of the TLS protocol or its parameters. The attacker does this by replacing or deleting the STARTTLS command or exploiting the compatibility features of the protocol. The purpose of the attack is to create a pathway for enabling a cryptographic attack that would not be possible in case of a connection that is encrypted over the latest version of TLS protocol. The IOC shows that most client connections are renegotiated after establishing the connections, which could indicate that an entity is performing downgrade attacks on path by interfering with the initial handshake and making the client and server agree on a lower version of TLS or a weaker cipher suite. Verified References:

• https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Downgrade_attack
• https://crypto.stackexchange.com/questions/10493/why-is-tls-susceptible-to-protocol-downgrade-attacks
• https://venafi.com/blog/preventing-downgrade-attacks/

Law enforcement officials informed an organization that an investigation has begun. Which of the following is the FIRST step the organization should take?

• Initiate a legal hold.
• Refer to the retention policy
• Perform e-discovery.
• Review the subpoena

Answer: A

A legal hold is a process by which an organization instructs its employees or other relevant parties to preserve specific data for potential litigation. A legal hold is triggered when litigation is reasonably anticipated, such as when law enforcement officials inform an organization that an investigation has begun. The first step the organization should take is to initiate a legal hold to ensure that relevant evidence is not deleted, destroyed, or altered. A legal hold also demonstrates the organization’s good faith and compliance with its duty to preserve evidence. Verified References:

• https://percipient.co/litigation-hold-triggers-and-the-duty-to-preserve-evidence/
• https://www.everlaw.com/blog/ediscovery-best-practices/guide-to-legal-holds/

The organization is implementing homomorphic encryption. Homomorphic encryption is a type of encryption that allows computations to be performed on encrypted data without decrypting it first. This means that the organization can analyze the customers’ data and deliver analysis results without being able to see the raw data, preserving the privacy and confidentiality of the customers. Homomorphic encryption can enable various applications, such as cloud computing, machine learning, and data analytics, that require processing sensitive data without compromising security. Verified References:

• https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/homomorphic-encryption
• https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/fundamentals/encryption-at-rest
• https://www.ibm.com/topics/homomorphic-encryption

Load balancer and autoscaling are the solutions that should be implemented to address the requirements of optimizing system capacity and reducing cost for an e-commerce site in the cloud. A load balancer is a device or service that distributes incoming network traffic across multiple servers or instances based on various criteria, such as availability, performance, or location. A load balancer can improve system capacity by balancing the workload and preventing overloading or underutilization of resources. Autoscaling is a feature that allows cloud services to automatically adjust the number of servers or instances based on the demand or predefined rules. Autoscaling can reduce cost by scaling up or down the resources as needed, avoiding unnecessary expenses or wastage.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, pages 406-407 and 410]

Traffic mirroring, also known as port mirroring or SPAN (Switched Port Analyzer), involves creating a copy of the actual network traffic for independent analysis. This would allow the third-party vendor to review communications between infrastructure endpoints, identify unauthorized and malicious data patterns, and perform automated, risk-mitigating configuration changes without impacting the live environment. This is used in network intrusion detection systems (NIDS) and for traffic analysis purposes.

Perfect Forward Secrecy (PFS) is a feature of certain key agreement protocols that ensures a session key derived from a set of long-term keys cannot be compromised if one of the long-term keys is compromised in the future. In the context of a VPN, PFS ensures that each session has a unique encryption key, and even if a key is compromised, it will not compromise past or future VPN sessions.

In the event of a fire at the main data center, the immediate action should be to review and engage the disaster recovery plan. This is to ensure the continuity of business operations. The CIO should coordinate with IT leaders from both companies to ensure a unified response. Assessing the damage and planning for recovery are crucial, and leveraging the expertise from both companies can help streamline the process.

Change management is a systematic approach to dealing with the transition or transformation of an organization's goals, processes, or technologies. In the context of implementing a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) solution and ensuring that authorized modifications are well-planned and executed, change management is critical. It ensures that changes are introduced in a controlled and coordinated manner to minimize the impact on service quality and mitigate risks associated with the changes.

An API gateway is a device or software that acts as an intermediary between clients and servers that provide web services through application programming interfaces (APIs). An API gateway can provide various functions such as:

• Terminating SSL connections at a central location, reducing the overhead on the backend servers and simplifying certificate management
• Managing both authentication and authorization for incoming and outgoing web service calls, enforcing security policies and access control
• Advertising the web service API, providing documentation and discovery features for developers and consumers
• Implementing DLP and anti-malware features, preventing data leakage and malicious code injection A web application firewall (WAF) is a device or software that filters and blocks malicious web traffic from reaching an application. A WAF can provide some protection for web services, but it does not provide all the functions of an API gateway. An XML gateway is a device or software that validates, transforms, and routes XML messages between clients and servers that provide web services. An XML gateway can provide some functions of an API gateway, but it is limited to XML-based web services and does not support other formats such as JSON. An enterprise service bus (ESB) gateway is a device or software that integrates and orchestrates multiple web services into a single service or application. An ESB gateway can provide some functions of an API gateway, but it is more focused on business logic and workflow rather than security and performance. References: [CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2: Enterprise Security Architecture, Objective 2.3: Implement solutions for the secure use of cloud services

Replacing the current antivirus with an EDR (endpoint detection and response) solution is the best solution for addressing several service outages on the endpoints due to new malware. An EDR solution is a technology that provides advanced capabilities for detecting, analyzing, and responding to threats or incidents on endpoints, such as computers, laptops, mobile devices, or servers. An EDR solution can use behavioral analysis, machine learning, threat intelligence, or other methods to identify new or unknown malware that may evade traditional antivirus solutions. An EDR solution can also provide automated or manual remediation actions, such as isolating, blocking, or removing malware from endpoints. Removing the web proxy and installing a UTM (unified threat management) appliance is not a good solution for addressing service outages on endpoints due to new malware, as it could expose endpoints to more threats or attacks by removing a layer of protection that filters web traffic, as well as not provide sufficient detection or response capabilities for endpoint-specific malware. Implementing a deny list feature on endpoints is not a good solution for addressing service outages on endpoints due to new malware, as it could be ineffective or impractical for blocking new or unknown malware that may not be on the deny list, as well as not provide sufficient detection or response capabilities for endpoint-specific malware. Adding a firewall module on the current antivirus solution is not a good solution for addressing service outages on endpoints due to new malware, as it could introduce compatibility or performance issues for endpoints by adding an additional feature that may not be integrated or optimized with the antivirus solution, as well as not provide sufficient detection or response capabilities for endpoint-specific malware. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-edr https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-so urce/resources/casp-content-guide

Rate limiting is a technique that can limit the number or frequency of requests that a client can make to an API (application programming interface) within a given time frame. This can help remedy the performance issues caused by high CPU utilization on the servers that host the APIs, as it can prevent excessive or abusive requests that could overload the servers. Implementing geoblocking on the WAF (web application firewall) may not help remedy the performance issues, as it could block legitimate requests based on geographic location, not on request rate. Implementing OAuth 2.0 on the API may not help remedy the performance issues, as OAuth 2.0 is a protocol for authorizing access to APIs, not for limiting requests. Implementing input validation on the API may not help remedy the performance issues, as input validation is a technique for preventing invalid or malicious input from reaching the API, not for limiting requests. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-rate-limiting https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Steganography is a technique that can hide data within other files or media, such as images, audio, or video. This can provide a low-cost approach to theft detection for the audio recordings produced and sold by the small business, as it can embed identifying information or watermarks in the audio files that can reveal their origin or ownership. Performing deep-packet inspection of all digital audio files may not be feasible or effective for theft detection, as it could consume a lot of bandwidth and resources, and it may not detect hidden data within encrypted packets. Adding identifying filesystem metadata to the digital audio files may not provide enough protection for theft detection, as filesystem metadata can be easily modified or removed by unauthorized parties. Purchasing and installing a DRM (digital rights management) suite may not be a low-cost approach for theft detection, as it could involve licensing fees and hardware requirements. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is- steganography https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Utilizing HMAC (hash-based message authentication code) for the keys is the best option for securing the REST API connection to the database while preventing the use of a hard-coded string in the request string. HMAC is a technique that uses a secret key and a hash function to generate a code that can verify the authenticity and integrity of a message, preventing unauthorized modifications or tampering. Utilizing HMAC for the keys can prevent the use of a hard-coded string in the request string, as it can dynamically generate a unique code for each request based on the secret key and the message content, making it difficult to forge or replay. Implementing a VPN (virtual private network) for all APIs is not a good option for securing the REST API connection to the database, as it could introduce latency or performance issues for API requests, as well as not prevent the use of a hard-coded string in the request string. Signing the key with DSA (Digital Signature Algorithm) is not a good option for securing the REST API connection to the database, as it could be vulnerable to attacks or forgery if the key is compromised or weak, as well as not prevent the use of a hard-coded string in the request string. Deploying MFA (multi-factor authentication) for the service accounts is not a good option for securing the REST API connection to the database, as it could affect the usability or functionality of API requests, as well as not prevent the use of a hard-coded string in the request string. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-hmac https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Preparation is the process that can be used to identify potential prevention recommendations after a security incident, such as a ransomware attack. Preparation involves planning and implementing security measures to prevent or mitigate future incidents, such as by updating policies, procedures, or controls, conducting training or awareness campaigns, or acquiring new tools or resources. Detection is the process of discovering or identifying security incidents, not preventing them. Remediation is the process of containing or resolving security incidents, not preventing them. Recovery is the process of restoring normal operations after security incidents, not preventing them. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-incident-response https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

 This could be the cause of the lack of visibility from the WAF (Web Application Firewall) for the web application, as the WAF may not be able to inspect or block unencrypted HTTP traffic. To solve this issue, the web server should redirect all HTTP requests to HTTPS and use SSL/TLS certificates to encrypt the traffic.

Defenses against BGP hijacks include IP prefix filtering, meaning IP address announcements are sent and accepted only from a small set of well-defined autonomous systems, and monitoring Internet traffic to identify signs of abnormal traffic flows.

Utilizing code signing by a trusted third party and making the DACL (discretionary access control list) read-only are actions that the developer can perform to maintain integrity to each module of a program and ensure the code cannot be altered by malicious users. Code signing is a technique that uses digital signatures to verify the authenticity and integrity of code, preventing unauthorized modifications or tampering. A trusted third party, such as a certificate authority, can issue and validate digital certificates for code signing. A DACL is an attribute of an object that defines the permissions granted or denied to users or groups for accessing or modifying the object. Making the DACL read-only can prevent unauthorized users or groups from changing the permissions or accessing the code. Implementing certificate-based authentication is not an action that the developer can perform to maintain integrity to each module of a program and ensure the code cannot be altered by malicious users, but a method for verifying the identity of users or devices based on digital certificates, preventing unauthorized access or impersonation. Verifying MD5 hashes is not an action that the developer can perform to maintain integrity to each module of a program and ensure the code cannot be altered by malicious users, but a method for checking the integrity of files based on cryptographic hash functions, detecting accidental or intentional changes or corruption. Compressing the program with a password is not an action that the developer can perform to maintain integrity to each module of a program and ensure the code cannot be altered by malicious users, but a method for reducing the size of files and protecting them with a password, preventing unauthorized access or extraction. Encrypting with 3DES is not an action that the developer can perform to maintain integrity to each module of a program and ensure the code cannot be altered by malicious users, but a method for protecting the confidentiality of data based on symmetric-key encryption algorithms, preventing unauthorized disclosure or interception. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-code-signing https://part ners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Isolating the servers is the best immediate action to take after reporting the incident to the management team, as it can limit the damage and contain the ransomware infection. Paying the ransom is not advisable, as it does not guarantee the recovery of the data and may encourage further attacks. Notifying law enforcement is a possible step, but not the next one after reporting. Requesting that the affected servers be restored immediately may not be feasible or effective, as it depends on the availability and integrity of backups, and it does not address the root cause of the attack. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-ransomware-and-how-to-protect-yourself https://www.comptia.org/certifications/comptia-advanced-security-practitioner

A risk associated with SDN is the expanded attack surface that it introduces. SDN is a network architecture that decouples the control plane from the data plane, allowing centralized and programmable management of network devices and traffic. However, this also exposes new attack vectors and vulnerabilities that can compromise the security and performance of the network. For example, an attacker can target the SDN controller, which is the core component that communicates with and controls the network devices. A successful attack on the SDN controller can result in denial of service, unauthorized access, data leakage, or network hijacking. An attacker can also exploit the communication channels between the SDN controller and the network devices, such as the OpenFlow protocol, to intercept, modify, or inject malicious messages or commands. Additionally, an attacker can leverage malicious or compromised applications that run on top of the SDN controller to manipulate or disrupt the network behavior. Verified References:

• https://www.isaca.org/resources/isaca-journal/issues/2016/volume-4/benefits-and-the-security-risk-of-software-defined-networking
• https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s40860-022-00171-8

Establishing one-way trust from Company B to Company A would allow users from Company B to access Company A’s resources using their existing credentials. Implementing attribute-based access control would allow users to have different sets of rights and privileges based on their attributes, such as department and IP address. Verified References:

• https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/access-management/what-is-sso/
• https://frontegg.com/blog/a-complete-guide-to-implementing-single-sign-on
• https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/host-integration-server/esso/enterprise-single-sign-on-basics

Cipher feedback (CFB) is a mode of operation for block ciphers that allows them to encrypt streaming data. CFB uses an initialization vector (IV) and a block cipher to generate a keystream that is XORed with the plaintext to produce the ciphertext. CFB has low latency because it can encrypt each byte or bit of plaintext as soon as it arrives, without waiting for a full block. CFB is suitable for streaming data because it does not require padding or block synchronization.

B. Cipher block chaining message authentication code (CBC-MAC) is a mode of operation for block ciphers that provides both encryption and authentication. CBC-MAC uses an IV and a block cipher to encrypt the plaintext and generate a MAC value that is appended to the ciphertext. CBC-MAC has high latency because it requires the entire message to be processed before generating the MAC value. CBC-MAC is not suitable for streaming data because it requires padding and block synchronization.

C. Cipher block chaining (CBC) is a mode of operation for block ciphers that provides encryption only. CBC uses an IV and a block cipher to encrypt each block of plaintext by XORing it with the previous ciphertext block. CBC has high latency because it requires a full block of plaintext before encryption. CBC is not suitable for streaming data because it requires padding and block synchronization.

D. Electronic codebook (ECB) is a mode of operation for block ciphers that provides encryption only. ECB uses a block cipher to encrypt each block of plaintext independently. ECB has low latency because it can encrypt each block of plaintext as soon as it arrives. However, ECB is not suitable for streaming data because it requires padding and block synchronization. Moreover, ECB is insecure because it does not use an IV and produces identical ciphertext blocks for identical plaintext blocks.

An ISA, or interconnection security agreement, is a document that should be required to set up a dedicated VPN between two entities that provide specialized help desk services. An ISA defines the technical and security requirements for establishing, operating, and maintaining a secure connection between two or more organizations. An ISA also specifies the roles and responsibilities of each party, the security controls and policies to be implemented, the data types and classifications to be exchanged, and the incident response procedures to be followed.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 36]

The methods that can be used to protect user internet privacy, to ensure the connection is encrypted, and to keep user activity hidden are proxy and MAC address randomization. A proxy is a server that acts as an intermediary between a user and the internet, hiding the user’s IP address and location from websites and other online services. A proxy can also encrypt the connection between the user and the proxy server, preventing anyone from snooping on the user’s traffic. MAC address randomization is a feature that changes the MAC address of a mobile device periodically or when connecting to different networks. A MAC address is a unique identifier of a network interface that can be used to track the device’s location and activity. MAC address randomization can help protect the user’s privacy by making it harder for third parties to link the device to a specific user or network. Verified References:

• https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/proxy-server
• https://www.techtarget.com/searchnetworking/definition/MAC-address-randomization
• https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/MAC-address-Media-Access-Control-address

Defining ACLs in a CSP relies on software-defined networking. Software-defined networking (SDN) is a network architecture that decouples the control plane from the data plane, allowing for centralized and programmable network management. SDN can enable dynamic and flexible network configuration and optimization, as well as improved security and performance. In a CSP, SDN can be used to define ACLs that can apply to virtual networks, subnets, or interfaces, regardless of the physical infrastructure. SDN can also allow for granular and consistent ACL enforcement across different cloud services and regions. Verified References:

• https://www.techtarget.com/searchsdn/definition/software-defined-networking-SDN
• https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/guide/networking/network-security
• https://www.techtarget.com/searchcloudcomputing/definition/cloud-networking

The company should implement OCSP stapling and HSTS to improve TLS performance and enforce HTTPS. OCSP stapling is a technique that allows a server to provide a signed proof of the validity of its certificate along with the TLS handshake, instead of relying on the client to contact the certificate authority (CA) for verification. This can reduce the latency and bandwidth of the TLS handshake, as well as improve the privacy and security of the certificate status. HSTS stands for HTTP Strict Transport Security, which is a mechanism that instructs browsers to only use HTTPS when connecting to a website, and to reject any unencrypted or invalid connections. This can prevent downgrade attacks, man-in-the-middle attacks, and mixed content errors, as well as improve the performance of HTTPS connections by avoiding unnecessary redirects. Verified References:

• https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/OCSP-stapling
• https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/HTTP-Strict-Transport-Security
• https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/ssl/what-is-hsts/

The root cause of this issue is that the iOS keychain imported only the client public and private keys, but not the CA certificate. A PKCS#12 file (.p12 or .pfx) is a file format that contains a certificate and its private key, optionally protected by a password. A PKCS#12 file can also contain intermediate certificates or root certificates that are needed to verify the certificate chain. However, when importing a PKCS#12 file into the iOS keychain, only the certificate and its private key are imported, not the CA certificate. This means that the iOS device cannot verify the authenticity of the certificate, and displays the error message “mbedTLS: ca certificate undefined”. To fix this issue, the CA certificate needs to be imported separately into the iOS keychain, either manually or using a configuration profile. Verified References:

• https://developer.apple.com/documentation/devicemanagement/certificatepkcs12
• https://support.apple.com/guide/deployment/distribute-certificates-depcdc9a6a3f/web
• https://openvpn.net/faq/how-do-i-use-a-client-certificate-and-private-key-from-the-ios-keychain/

The most likely cause of the signature failing is that the certificate is set for the wrong key usage. Key usage is an extension of a certificate that defines the purpose and functionality of the public key contained in the certificate. Key usage can include digital signature, key encipherment, data encipherment, certificate signing, and others. If the certificate is set for a different key usage than digital signature, it will not be able to sign the applications properly. The administrator should check the key usage extension of the certificate and make sure it matches the intended purpose. Verified References:

• https://www.wintips.org/how-to-fix-windows-cannot-verify-the-digital-signature-for-this-file-error-in-windows-8-7-vista/
• https://softwaretested.com/mac/how-to-fix-a-digital-signature-error-on-windows-10/
• https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/office/digital-signatures-and-certificates-8186cd15-e7ac-4a16-8597-22bd163e8e96

Netstat is a command-line tool that can be used to find the malicious process that is using a specific port on a Windows workstation. Netstat displays active TCP connections, ports on which the computer is listening, Ethernet statistics, the IP routing table, IPv4 statistics (for the IP, ICMP, TCP, and UDP protocols), and IPv6 statistics (for the IPv6, ICMPv6, TCP over IPv6, and UDP over IPv6 protocols). To find the process that is using a specific port, such as TCP 40322, the security engineer can use the following command:

netstat -ano | findstr :40322

This command will filter the netstat output by the port number and show the process identifier (PID) of the process that is using that port. The security engineer can then use the task manager or another tool to identify and terminate the malicious process by its PID. Verified References:

• https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/windows-commands/netstat
• https://www.howtogeek.com/28609/how-can-i-tell-what-is-listening-on-a-tcpip-port-in-windows/

WAP A: No issue found. The WAP A is configured correctly and meets the requirements.

PC A = Enable host-based firewall to block all traffic

This option will turn off the host-based firewall and allow all traffic to pass through. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the connectivity of PC A to other devices on the network. However, this option will also reduce the security of PC A and make it more vulnerable to attacks. Therefore, it is recommended to use other security measures, such as antivirus, encryption, and password complexity, to protect PC A from potential threats.

Laptop A: Patch management

This option will install the updates that are available for Laptop A and ensure that it has the most recent security patches and bug fixes. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the performance and stability of Laptop A. However, this option may also require a reboot of Laptop A and some downtime during the update process. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and close any open applications before applying the updates.

Switch A: No issue found. The Switch A is configured correctly and meets the requirements.

Switch B: No issue found. The Switch B is configured correctly and meets the requirements.

Laptop B: Disable unneeded services

This option will stop and disable the telnet service that is using port 23 on Laptop B. Telnet is a cleartext service that transmits data in plain text over the network, which exposes it to eavesdropping, interception, and modification by attackers. By disabling the telnet service, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of Laptop B. However, this option may also affect the functionality of Laptop B if it needs to use telnet for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to use a secure alternative to telnet, such as SSH or HTTPS, that encrypts the data in transit.

PC B: Enable disk encryption

This option will encrypt the HDD of PC B using a tool such as BitLocker or VeraCrypt. Disk encryption is a technique that protects data at rest by converting it into an unreadable format that can only be decrypted with a valid key or password. By enabling disk encryption, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the confidentiality and integrity of PC B’s data. However, this option may also affect the performance and usability of PC B, as it requires additional processing time and user authentication to access the encrypted data. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and choose a strong key or password before encrypting the disk.

PC C: Disable unneeded services

This option will stop and disable the SSH daemon that is using port 22 on PC C. SSH is a secure service that allows remote access and command execution over an encrypted channel. However, port 22 is the default and well-known port for SSH, which makes it a common target for brute-force attacks and port scanning. By disabling the SSH daemon on port 22, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of PC C. However, this option may also affect the functionality of PC C if it needs to use SSH for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to enable the SSH daemon on a different port, such as 4022, by editing the configuration file using the following command:

sudo nano /etc/ssh/sshd_config

Server A. Need to select the following:

A black and white screen with white text Description automatically generated

The company should use HMAC SHA256 as a cryptographic technique to ensure that packets received between two parties have not been tampered with and the connection remains private. HMAC stands for hash-based message authentication code, which is a method of generating a message authentication code using a cryptographic hash function and a secret key. HMAC can provide both integrity and authenticity of the packets, as well as resistance to replay attacks. SHA256 is a specific hash function that produces a 256-bit output. SHA256 is considered secure and widely used in various cryptographic applications. Verified References:

• https://www.ericsson.com/en/blog/2021/7/cryptography-and-privacy-protecting-private-data
• https://www.mdpi.com/journal/cryptography/special_issues/Preserve_Enhance_Privacy
• https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s11432-021-3393-x

Public keys on both endpoints are required for implementing PKI-based mutual authentication. PKI stands for Public Key Infrastructure, which is a system that manages the creation, distribution, and verification of certificates. Certificates are digital documents that contain public keys and identity information of their owners. Certificates are issued by trusted authorities called Certificate Authorities (CAs), and can be used to prove the identity and authenticity of the certificate holders. Mutual authentication is a process in which two parties authenticate each other at the same time using certificates. Mutual authentication can provide stronger security and privacy than one-way authentication, where only one party is authenticated. In PKI-based mutual authentication, each party has a certificate that contains its public key and identity information, and a private key that corresponds to its public key. The private key is kept secret and never shared with anyone, while the public key is shared and used to verify the identity and signature of the certificate holder. The basic steps of PKI-based mutual authentication are as follows:

• Party A sends its certificate to Party B.
• Party B verifies Party A’s certificate by checking its validity, signature, and trust chain. If the certificate is valid and trusted, Party B extracts Party A’s public key from the certificate.
• Party B generates a random challenge (such as a nonce or a timestamp) and encrypts it with Party A’s public key. Party B sends the encrypted challenge to Party A.
• Party A decrypts the challenge with its private key and sends it back to Party B.
• Party B compares the received challenge with the original one. If they match, Party B confirms that Party A is the legitimate owner of the certificate and has possession of the private key.
• The same steps are repeated in reverse, with Party A verifying Party B’s certificate and sending a challenge encrypted with Party B’s public key.

A. Perfect forward secrecy on both endpoints is not required for implementing PKI-based mutual authentication. Perfect forward secrecy (PFS) is a property of encryption protocols that ensures that the compromise of a long-term secret key (such as a private key) does not affect the security of past or future session keys (such as symmetric keys). PFS can enhance the security and privacy of encrypted communications, but it does not provide authentication by itself.

B. Shared secret for both endpoints is not required for implementing PKI-based mutual authentication. Shared secret is a method of authentication that relies on a pre-shared piece of information (such as a password or a passphrase) that is known only to both parties. Shared secret can provide simple and fast authentication, but it does not provide non-repudiation or identity verification.

D. A common public key on each endpoint is not required for implementing PKI-based mutual authentication. A common public key on each endpoint would imply that both parties share the same certificate and private key, which would defeat the purpose of PKI-based mutual authentication. Each party should have its own unique certificate and private key that proves its identity and authenticity.

E. A common private key on each endpoint is not required for implementing PKI-based mutual authentication. A common private key on each endpoint would imply that both parties share the same certificate and public key, which would defeat the purpose of PKI-based mutual authentication. Each party should have its own unique certificate and private key that proves its identity and authenticity.

Resource exhaustion is a condition that occurs when a system or service runs out of resources, such as memory, CPU, disk space, or bandwidth, and becomes unable to function properly or respond to requests. Resource exhaustion can be caused by high demand, poor design, misconfiguration, or malicious attacks, such as denial-of-service (DoS).

Resource exhaustion would be the most significant business risk to a company that signs a contract with a cloud service provider (CSP) that is able to provide the same uptime as other CSPs at a markedly reduced cost, because this could:

• Indicate that the CSP is oversubscribing or underprovisioning its resources, which could result in performance degradation, service disruption, or data loss for the company.
• Affect the company’s availability, reliability, and scalability requirements, which could impact its operations, reputation, and customer satisfaction.
• Expose the company to potential security breaches or compliance violations, if the CSP does not implement adequate security controls or measures to prevent or mitigate resource exhaustion.

VDI (virtual desktop infrastructure), proxy, CASB (cloud access security broker), and DRM (digital rights management) are technologies that can mitigate the concerns of processing sensitive information using SaaS (software as a service) collaboration tools. VDI is a technology that provides virtualized desktop environments for users that are hosted and managed by a central server, allowing users to access applications or data from any device or location. VDI can prevent data leakage to the media via printing of documents, as it can restrict or monitor the printing capabilities or permissions of users or devices. Proxy is a technology that acts as an intermediary between clients and servers, filtering or modifying web traffic based on predefined rules or policies. Proxy can prevent data leakage to a personal email address, as it can block or redirect web requests to unauthorized or untrusted email domains or services. CASB is a technology that provides visibility and control over cloud services or applications, enforcing security policies or compliance requirements based on predefined rules or criteria. CASB can prevent data access and viewing by systems administrators, as it can encrypt or mask sensitive data before it reaches the cloud provider or application, making it unreadable or inaccessible by unauthorized parties. DRM is a technology that restricts the access, use, modification, or distribution of digital content or devices, enforcing the rights and permissions granted by the content owner or provider to authorized users or devices. DRM can prevent data upload to a file storage site, as it can limit or disable the copying, sharing, or transferring capabilities or permissions of users or devices. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-vdi https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Modeling user behavior and monitoring for deviations from normal and continuously monitoring code commits to repositories and generating summary logs are actions that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations. Modeling user behavior and monitoring for deviations from normal is a technique that uses baselines, analytics, machine learning, or other methods to establish normal patterns of user activity and identify anomalies or outliers that could indicate malicious or suspicious behavior. Modeling user behavior and monitoring for deviations from normal can help detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments, as it can alert on unusual or unauthorized access attempts, commands, actions, or transactions by users. Continuously monitoring code commits to repositories and generating summary logs is a technique that uses tools, scripts, automation, or other methods to track and record changes made to code repositories by developers, testers, reviewers, or other parties involved in the software development process. Continuously monitoring code commits to repositories and generating summary logs can help detect authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations, as it can audit and verify the source, time, reason, and impact of code changes made by authorized users. Performing static code analysis of committed code and generate summary reports is not an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations, but an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect vulnerabilities, errors, bugs, or quality issues in committed code. Implementing an XML gateway and monitor for policy violations is not an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations, but an action that will enable the data feeds needed to protect XML-based web services from threats or attacks by validating XML messages against predefined policies. Monitoring dependency management tools and report on susceptible third-party libraries is not an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations, but an action that will enable the data feeds needed to identify outdated or vulnerable third-party libraries used in software development projects. Installing an IDS (intrusion detection system) on the development subnet and passively monitor for vulnerable services is not an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes

Moving the server to a cloud provider is the most cost-effective solution to avoid performance issues caused by too many connections during peak seasons, such as holidays. Moving the server to a cloud provider can provide scalability, elasticity, and availability for the web server, as it can adjust its resources and capacity according to the demand and traffic. Moving the server to a cloud provider can also reduce operational and maintenance costs, as the cloud provider can handle the infrastructure and security aspects. Changing the operating system may not help avoid performance issues, as it could introduce compatibility or functionality problems, and it may not address the resource or capacity limitations. Buying a new server and creating an active-active cluster may help avoid performance issues, but it may not be cost-effective, as it could involve hardware and software expenses, as well as complex configuration and management tasks. Upgrading the server with a new one may help avoid performance issues, but it may not be cost-effective, as it could involve hardware and software expenses, as well as migration and testing efforts. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-cloud-computing https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

The process ID 87 can be the starting point for an investigation of a possible buffer overflow attack, as it shows a high percentage of CPU utilization (99.7%) and a suspicious command name (graphic.linux_randomization.prg). A buffer overflow attack is a type of attack that exploits a vulnerability in an application or system that allows an attacker to write data beyond the allocated buffer size, potentially overwriting memory segments and executing malicious code. A high CPU utilization could indicate that the process is performing intensive or abnormal operations, such as a buffer overflow attack. A suspicious command name could indicate that the process is trying to disguise itself or evade detection, such as by mimicking a legitimate program or using random characters. The other process IDs do not show signs of a buffer overflow attack, as they have low CPU utilization and normal command names. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-buffer-overflow https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

PAM (Privileged Access Management) is a solution that can increase the security posture of user endpoints by providing more visibility and control over local administrator accounts. By implementing PAM, removing users from the local administrators group, and prompting users for explicit approval when elevated privileges are required, the security engineer can reduce the attack surface, prevent unauthorized access, and enforce the principle of least privilege. Implementing PAM, keeping users in the local administrators group, and enabling local administrator account monitoring may not provide enough control or visibility over local administrator accounts, as users could still abuse or compromise their privileges. Implementing EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response) may not provide enough control or visibility over local administrator accounts, as EDR is mainly focused on detecting and responding to threats, not managing privileges. Enabling user behavior analytics may not provide enough control or visibility over local administrator accounts, as user behavior analytics is mainly focused on identifying anomalies or risks in user activity, not managing privileges. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-pam https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

We recommend that you encrypt your virtual hard disks (VHDs) to help protect your boot volume and data volumes at rest in storage, along with your encryption keys and secrets. Azure Disk Encryption helps you encrypt your Windows and Linux IaaS virtual machine disks. Azure Disk Encryption uses the industry-standard BitLocker feature of Windows and the DM-Crypt feature of Linux to provide volume encryption for the OS and the data disks. The solution is integrated with Azure Key Vault to help you control and manage the disk-encryption keys and secrets in your key vault subscription. The solution also ensures that all data on the virtual machine disks are encrypted at rest in Azure Storage. https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/fundamentals/iaas

The security analyst should remove the cipher TLS_DHE_DSS_WITH_RC4_128_SHA to support the business requirements, as it is considered weak and vulnerable to on-path attacks. RC4 is an outdated stream cipher that has been deprecated by major browsers and protocols due to its flaws and weaknesses. The other ciphers are more secure and compliant with secure-by-design principles and PCI DSS. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-cipher https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

The device event logs show that the device was in two different locations (New York and London) within a short time span (one hour), which indicates impossible travel. This could be a sign of a compromised device or account. The best response action is to disable the device’s account and access while investigating the incident. Malicious installation of an application is not evident from the logs, nor is resource leak or falsified status reporting. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-impossible-travel https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

TPMs provide the ability to store measurements of code and data that can be used to ensure that code and data remain unchanged over time. This is done through Platform Configuration Registers (PCRs), which are structures used to store measurements of code and data. The measurements are taken during the boot process and can be used to compare the state of the system at different times, which can be used to detect any changes to the system and verify that the system has not been tampered with.

B. Log aggregator: A log aggregator is a tool that collects, parses, and stores logs from various sources, such as devices, applications, servers, etc. A log aggregator can help meet the requirement of retaining logs for 365 days by providing a centralized and scalable storage solution1 .

D. PAM: PAM stands for privileged access management. It is a technology that controls and monitors the access of privileged users (such as administrators) to critical systems and data. PAM can help meet the requirement of controlling and tracking privileged user access by enforcing policies such as least privilege, multifactor authentication, password rotation, session recording, etc. .

F. SIEM: SIEM stands for security information and event management. It is a technology that analyzes and correlates logs from various sources to detect and respond to security incidents. SIEM can help meet the requirement of identifying ransomware threats and zero-day vulnerabilities by providing real-time alerts, threat intelligence feeds, incident response workflows, etc. .

Galois/Counter Mode (GCM) is an AES mode of operation that provides both confidentiality and data integrity. It is well-suited for processing streams of data, making it ideal for streaming video services. GCM is known for its strong cryptographic security and good performance, which aligns with the legacy cipher's characteristics and the streaming service's requirements.

A spam campaign is a mass distribution of unsolicited or fraudulent emails that may contain malicious links, attachments, or requests. Spam campaigns are often used by attackers to deliver ransomware, which is a type of malware that encrypts the victim’s data and demands a ransom for its decryption.

Simulating a spam campaign would allow the Chief Security Officer (CSO) to evaluate whether the training has been successful in reducing the number of successful ransomware attacks that have hit the company, because it would:

• Test the employees’ ability to recognize and avoid clicking on fake or malicious emails, which is one of the main vectors for ransomware infection.
• Measure the effectiveness of the training by comparing the click-through rate and the infection rate before and after the training.
• Provide feedback and reinforcement to the employees by informing them of their performance and reminding them of the best practices for email security.

The SIEM logs indicate suspicious behavior that could be a sign of a compromise, such as the launching of cmd.exe after Outlook.exe, which is atypical user behavior and could indicate that a machine has been compromised to perform lateral movement within the network. Isolating laptop314 from the network would contain the threat and prevent any potential spread to other systems while further investigation takes place.

The primary risk for an organization working with vendors in different time zones is that support might not be available during the organization's regular business hours. This can lead to delays in receiving necessary support or assistance when equipment issues arise, which could be critical if there's an equipment failure.

Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) solutions provide continuous monitoring and response to advanced threats. They can help mitigate the risk of not having visibility into off-network activities by detecting, investigating, and responding to suspicious activities on endpoints, regardless of their location.

Proper forensic investigation requires that evidence is preserved in a manner that maintains its integrity and reliability. To prevent legal issues such as penalties for not conducting a proper forensic investigation, the first and most crucial step is to ensure that evidence is preserved so that it can be verified, collected, and analyzed correctly. This involves making sure that the evidence is not tampered with or altered from the time it is identified until it is presented in a legal proceeding.

Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR) solutions are designed to automate and streamline security operations in complex environments. By utilizing APIs, SOAR platforms can integrate with various security tools to enhance incident response processes, automate tasks, and improve overall efficiency. This aligns with the requirements of using the latest technology and having high control over the solution. SOAR's ability to orchestrate between different security solutions and automate responses to threats makes it the best option to reduce the security task workload while maintaining high controls.

Certificate pinning is a technique that embeds one or more trusted certificates or public keys inside an application, and verifies that any certificate presented by a server matches one of those certificates or public keys. Certificate pinning can prevent on-path attacks, such as man-in-the-middle (MITM) attacks, which intercept and modify the communication between a client and a server.

Configuring certificate pinning inside the application would allow the mobile application developer to create a global, highly scalable, secure chat application that is not susceptible to on-path attacks while the user is traveling in potentially hostile regions, because it would:

• Ensure that only trusted servers can communicate with the application, by rejecting any server certificate that does not match one of the pinned certificates or public keys.
• Protect the confidentiality, integrity, and authenticity of the chat messages, by preventing any attacker from intercepting, modifying, or impersonating them.
• Enhance the security of the application by reducing its reliance on external factors, such as certificate authorities (CAs), certificate revocation lists (CRLs), or online certificate status protocol (OCSP).

HTTP Strict Transport Security (HSTS) is a web security policy mechanism that helps to protect websites against man-in-the-middle attacks such as protocol downgrade attacks and cookie hijacking. It allows web servers to declare that web browsers (or other complying user agents) should only interact with it using secure HTTPS connections, and never via the insecure HTTP protocol. Enabling HSTS would prevent attackers from redirecting users from a secure site to an unsecure or malicious one.

Single-tenant architectures provide a dedicated environment for each client, which enhances data privacy since the resources are not shared with other tenants. This isolation minimizes the risk of data leakage or interference from other tenants, offering a high degree of privacy. Additionally, single-tenancy allows for full control over the database environment, including customization options tailored to specific security requirements or compliance needs, which is not always possible in a multi-tenant architecture.

Agent-based scanning is best suited for environments with multiple subnets, VLANs, and branch offices, as described. It allows for fast scanning with fewer false positives, and since the agents are installed on the servers, they tend to have a lower impact on performance. This type of scanning also facilitates signature-based scanning, which is one of the customer's requirements.

DNS Security Extensions (DNSSEC) adds a layer of security to the DNS lookup and response process which can prevent users from being redirected to fraudulent websites, a common goal of typosquatting. DNSSEC ensures that the DNS data has not been modified from its original state and is especially useful if the DNS system is returning proper results and there are no known Indicators of Compromise (IoCs). It uses digital signatures and public-key encryption to provide authentication for DNS data.

A hybrid IaaS solution in a single-tenancy cloud is the best option for the company to meet the computing demand while complying with healthcare standards for virtualization and cloud computing. A hybrid IaaS solution allows the company to use both on-premises and cloud-based resources to scale up its capacity and performance. A single-tenancy cloud ensures that the company’s data and applications are isolated from other customers and have dedicated resources and security controls. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://www.hhs.gov/hipaa/for-professionals/special-topics/cloud-computing/index.html

A Service Level Agreement is a contract between a service provider and a customer that outlines the level of services to be provided, the metrics by which those services will be measured, and how the agreement will be managed by both parties. SLAs also include provisions for dispute resolution and for the termination of the agreement.

Network Access Control (NAC) is used to bolster the network security by restricting the availability of network resources to managed endpoints that don't satisfy the compliance requirements of the Organization.

The main rights for individuals under the GDPR are to:

allow subject access

have inaccuracies corrected

have information erased

prevent direct marketing

prevent automated decision-making and profiling

allow data portability (as per the paragraph above)

source: https://www.clouddirect.net/11-things-you-mus t-do-now-for-gdpr-compliance/

These are two of the requirements of the GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation), which is a legal framework that sets guidelines for the collection and processing of personal data of individuals within the European Union (EU). The GDPR also requires data controllers to obtain consent from data subjects, protect data with appropriate security measures, notify data subjects and authorities of data breaches, and appoint a data protection officer.

Mobile application management (MAM) is a solution that allows the organization to control and secure the approved collaboration applications and the data within them on personal devices. MAM can prevent unstructured data from being exfiltrated by restricting the ability to move, copy, or share data between applications. Multi-factor authentication (MFA) is a solution that requires the user to provide more than one piece of evidence to prove their identity when accessing corporate data. MFA can prevent data from being exfiltrated as a result of compromised credentials by adding an extra layer of security. Digital rights management (DRM) is a solution that protects the intellectual property rights of digital content by enforcing policies and permissions on how the content can be used, accessed, or distributed. DRM can prevent sensitive information in emails from being exfiltrated by encrypting the content and limiting the actions that can be performed on it, such as forwarding, printing, or copying. Verified References:

• https://www.manageengine.com/data-security/what-is/byod.html
• https://www.cimcor.com/blog/7-scariest-byod-security-risks-how-to-mitigate

A VPN (virtual private network) can provide secure connectivity for remote users to access servers hosted by the cloud provider. A CASB (cloud access security broker) can enforce policies and controls for accessing SaaS applications. A secure web gateway can monitor and filter user browser activity to prevent malicious or unauthorized traffic. Verified References: https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-vpn

This is because the homegrown identity management system is not consistent with best practices and leaves the institution vulnerable, which means it needs to be replaced with a more secure and reliable solution. A new IAM system/vendor should be able to provide features such as role-based access control, two-factor authentication, auditing, and compliance that can enhance the security and efficiency of the identity management process. A requirements document can help define the scope, objectives, and criteria for selecting a suitable IAM system/vendor that meets the needs of the institution.

https://eklitzke.org/memory-protection-and-aslr

ASLR (Address Space Layout Randomization) is a technology that can mitigate the manipulation of memory segments caused by a buffer overflow attack. ASLR randomizes the location of memory segments, such as the stack, heap, or libraries, making it harder for an attacker to predict or control where to inject malicious code or overwrite memory segments. NX bit (No-eXecute bit) is a technology that can mitigate the execution of malicious code injected by a buffer overflow attack. NX bit marks certain memory segments as non-executable, preventing an attacker from running code in those segments. DEP (Data Execution Prevention) is a technology that can mitigate the execution of malicious code injected by a buffer overflow attack. DEP uses hardware and software mechanisms to mark certain memory regions as data-only, preventing an attacker from running code in those regions. HSM (Hardware Security Module) is a device that can provide cryptographic functions and key storage, but it does not mitigate the manipulation of memory segments caused by a buffer overflow attack. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-aslr https://p artners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide