CS0-003 Sample Questions Answers

The correct answer is B. Replace the current MD5 with SHA-256.

The vulnerability that the security analyst is able to exploit is a hash collision, which is a situation where two different files produce the same hash value. Hash collisions can allow an attacker to bypass the integrity or authentication checks that rely on hash values, and submit malicious files to the system. The web application uses MD5, which is a hashing algorithm that is known to be vulnerable to hash collisions. Therefore, the analyst should suggest replacing the current MD5 with SHA-256, which is a more secure and collision-resistant hashing algorithm.

The other options are not the best suggestions to mitigate the vulnerability with the fewest changes to the current script and infrastructure. Deploying a WAF (web application firewall) to the front of the application (A) may help protect the web application from some common attacks, but it may not prevent hash collisions or detect malicious files. Deploying an antivirus application on the hosting system © may help scan and remove malicious files from the system, but it may not prevent hash collisions or block malicious files from being submitted. Replacing the MD5 with digital signatures (D) may help verify the authenticity and integrity of the files, but it may require significant changes to the current script and infrastructure, as digital signatures involve public-key cryptography and certificate authorities.

The most likely explanation for this traffic pattern is C2 beaconing activity. C2 stands for command and control, which is a phase of the Cyber Kill Chain that involves the adversary attempting to establish communication with a successfully exploited target. C2 beaconing activity is a type of network traffic that indicates a compromised system is sending periodic messages or signals to an attacker’s system using various protocols, such as HTTP(S), DNS, ICMP, or UDP. C2 beaconing activity can enable the attacker to remotely control or manipulate the target system or network using various methods, such as malware callbacks, backdoors, botnets, or covert channels.

Defense evasion is the technique of avoiding detection or prevention by security tools or mechanisms. In this case, the freeware program is likely a malware that generates random DNS queries to communicate with a command and control server or exfiltrate data. The command Add-MpPreference -ExclusionPath '%Program Filest\ksysconfig' is used to add an exclusion path to Windows Defender, which is a built-in antivirus software, to prevent it from scanning the malware folder. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5, page 204; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5, page 212. pr

An SLA (Service Level Agreement) is a contract or agreement between a service provider and a customer that defines the expected level of service, performance, quality, and availability of the service. An SLA also specifies the responsibilities, obligations, and penalties for both parties in case of non-compliance or breach of the agreement. An SLA can help organizations to ensure that their security services are delivered in a timely and effective manner, and that any security incidents or vulnerabilities are addressed and resolved within a specified time frame. An SLA can also help to establish clear communication, expectations, and accountability between the service provider and the customer12

An MOU (Memorandum of Understanding) is a document that expresses a mutual agreement or understanding between two or more parties on a common goal or objective. An MOU is not legally binding, but it can serve as a basis for future cooperation or collaboration. An MOU may not be suitable for requiring remediation of a known threat within a given time frame, as it does not have the same level of enforceability, specificity, or measurability as an SLA.

Best-effort patching is an informal and ad hoc approach to applying security patches or updates to systems or software. Best-effort patching does not follow any defined process, policy, or schedule, and relies on the availability and discretion of the system administrators or users. Best-effort patching may not be effective or efficient for requiring remediation of a known threat within a given time frame, as it does not guarantee that the patches are applied correctly, consistently, or promptly. Best-effort patching may also introduce new risks or vulnerabilities due to human error, compatibility issues, or lack of testing.

Organizational governance is the framework of rules, policies, procedures, and processes that guide and direct the activities and decisions of an organization. Organizational governance can help to establish the roles, responsibilities, and accountabilities of different stakeholders within the organization, as well as the goals, values, and principles that shape the organizational culture and behavior. Organizational governance can also help to ensure compliance with internal and external standards, regulations, and laws. Organizational governance may not be sufficient for requiring remediation of a known threat within a given time frame, as it does not specify the details or metrics of the service delivery or performance. Organizational governance may also vary depending on the size, structure, and nature of the organization.

The output shows the results of a port scan, which is a technique used to identify open ports and services running on a network host. Port scanning can be used by attackers to discover potential vulnerabilities and exploit them, or by defenders to assess the security posture and configuration of their network devices1

The output lists six ports that are open on the target host, along with the service name and version associated with each port. The service name indicates the type of application or protocol that is using the port, while the version indicates the specific release or update of the service. The service name and version can provide useful information for both attackers and defenders, as they can reveal the capabilities, features, and weaknesses of the service.

Among the six ports listed, two are particularly risky and should be investigated further by the security team: port 23 and port 636.

Port 23 is used by Telnet, which is an old and insecure protocol for remote login and command execution. Telnet does not encrypt any data transmitted over the network, including usernames and passwords, which makes it vulnerable to eavesdropping, interception, and modification by attackers. Telnet also has many known vulnerabilities that can allow attackers to gain unauthorized access, execute arbitrary commands, or cause denial-of-service attacks on the target host23

Port 636 is used by LDAP over SSL/TLS (LDAPS), which is a protocol for accessing and modifying directory services over a secure connection. LDAPS encrypts the data exchanged between the client and the server using SSL/TLS certificates, which provide authentication, confidentiality, and integrity. However, LDAPS can also be vulnerable to attacks if the certificates are not properly configured, verified, or updated. For example, attackers can use self-signed or expired certificates to perform man-in-the-middle attacks, spoofing attacks, or certificate revocation attacks on LDAPS connections.

Therefore, the security team should investigate further why port 23 and port 636 are open on the target host, and what services are running on them. The security team should also consider disabling or replacing these services with more secure alternatives, such as SSH for port 23 and StartTLS for port 6362

A vulnerability that is related to a specific adversary campaign, with IoCs found in the SIEM, should have the highest priority for the mitigation process. This is because it indicates that the vulnerability is actively being exploited by a known threat actor, and that the organization’s security monitoring system has detected signs of compromise. This poses a high risk of data breach, service disruption, or other adverse impacts. References: How to Prioritize Vulnerabilities Effectively: Vulnerability Prioritization Explained, Section: How to prioritize vulnerabilities step by step to avoid drowning in sea of problems; CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Security Operations and Monitoring, page 156.

The CEO should initiate an alert to department managers to speak privately with affected staff. This is because the trade secret is confidential and should not be disclosed to the public. Additionally, the CEO should verify legal notification requirements of PII and SPII in the legal and human resource departments to ensure compliance with data protection laws.

References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-002, 2nd Edition, Chapter 4, “Data Protection and Privacy Practices”, page 194; CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 4.0 “Compliance and Assessment”, Objective 4.1 “Given a scenario, analyze data as part of a security incident”, Sub-objective “Data classification levels”, page 23

The correct answer is A. XML.

STIX and OpenloC are two standards for representing and exchanging cyber threat intelligence (CTI) information. STIX stands for Structured Threat Information Expression and OpenloC stands for Open Location and Identity Coordinates. Both standards use XML as the underlying data format to encode the information in a structured and machine-readable way. XML stands for Extensible Markup Language and it is a widely used standard for defining and exchanging data on the web. XML uses tags, attributes, and elements to describe the structure and meaning of the data. XML is also human-readable, as it uses plain text and follows a hierarchical and nested structure.

XML is not the only format that can be used to make STIX and OpenloC information readable by both humans and machines, but it is the most common and widely supported one. Other formats that can be used include JSON, CSV, or PDF, depending on the use case and the preferences of the information producers and consumers. However, XML has some advantages over other formats, such as:

• XML is more expressive and flexible than JSON or CSV, as it can define complex data types, schemas, namespaces, and validation rules.
• XML is more standardized and interoperable than PDF, as it can be easily parsed, transformed, validated, and queried by various tools and languages.
• XML is more compatible with existing CTI standards and tools than other formats, as it is the basis for STIX 1.x, TAXII 1.x, MAEC, CybOX, OVAL, and others.

References:

• 1 Introduction to STIX - GitHub Pages
• 2 5 Best Threat Intelligence Feeds in 2023 (Free & Paid Tools) - Comparitech
• 3 What Are STIX/TAXII Standards? - Anomali Resources
• 4 What is STIX/TAXII? | Cloudflare
• 5 Sample Use | TAXII Project Documentation - GitHub Pages
• 6 Trying to retrieve xml data with taxii - Stack Overflow
• 7 CISA AIS TAXII Server Connection Guide
• 8 CISA AIS TAXII Server Connection Guide v2.0 | CISA

Indicators of compromise (IoCs) are pieces of data or evidence that suggest a system or network has been compromised by an attacker or malware. IoCs can include IP addresses, domain names, URLs, file hashes, registry keys, network traffic patterns, user behaviors, or system anomalies. IoCs can be used to detect, analyze, and respond to security incidents, as well as to share threat intelligence with other organizations or authorities. IoCs can produce the data needed for an executive briefing on possible threats to the organization, as they can provide information on the source, nature, scope, impact, and mitigation of the threats.

The correct answer is A. Address space layout randomization.

Address space layout randomization (ASLR) is a security control that randomizes the memory address space of a process, making it harder for an attacker to exploit memory-based vulnerabilities, such as buffer overflows1. ASLR can also prevent a security analyst from finding the proper memory address of a piece of malicious code, as the memory address changes every time the process runs2.

The other options are not the best explanations for why the memory address changes every time the process runs. Data execution prevention (B) is a security control that prevents code from being executed in certain memory regions, such as the stack or the heap3. Stack canary © is a security technique that places a random value on the stack before a function’s return address, to detect and prevent stack buffer overflows. Code obfuscation (D) is a technique that modifies the source code or binary of a program to make it more difficult to understand or reverse engineer. These techniques do not affect the memory address space of a process, but rather the execution or analysis of the code.

Increasing training and awareness for all staff is the best way to address the issue of employees being enticed to assist attackers by visiting specific websites and running downloaded files when prompted by phone calls. This issue is an example of social engineering, which is a technique that exploits human psychology and behavior to manipulate people into performing actions or divulging information that benefit the attackers. Social engineering can take many forms, such as phishing, vishing, baiting, quid pro quo, or impersonation. The best defense against social engineering is to educate and train the staff on how to recognize and avoid common social engineering tactics, such as:

• Verifying the identity and legitimacy of the caller or sender before following their instructions or clicking on any links or attachments
• Being wary of unsolicited or unexpected requests for information or action, especially if they involve urgency, pressure, or threats
• Reporting any suspicious or anomalous activity to the security team or the appropriate authority
• Following the organization’s policies and procedures on security awareness and best practices

Official References:

• https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
• https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
• https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered

MITRE ATT&CK is a framework and knowledge base that describes the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) used by various adversaries in cyberattacks. MITRE ATT&CK can help security analysts compare TTPs between different known adversaries of an organization, as well as identify patterns, gaps, or trends in adversary behavior. MITRE ATT&CK can also help security analysts improve threat detection, analysis, and response capabilities, as well as share threat intelligence with other organizations or communities

Generating a hash value and making a backup image is the best method to ensure the data on the device is not modified, as it creates a verifiable copy of the original data that can be used for forensic analysis. Encrypting the device, protecting it with a password, or performing a memory scan dump do not prevent the data from being altered or deleted. Verified References: CompTIA CySA+ CS0-002 Certification Study Guide, page 3291

The first action that should be completed to remediate the findings is to perform proper sanitization on all fields. Sanitization is a process that involves validating, filtering, or encoding any user input or data before processing or storing it on a system or application. Sanitization can help prevent various types of attacks, such as cross-site scripting (XSS), SQL injection, or command injection, that exploit unsanitized input or data to execute malicious scripts, commands, or queries on a system or application. Performing proper sanitization on all fields can help address the most critical and common vulnerability found during the vulnerability assessment, which is XSS.

Passive scanning is a method of vulnerability identification that does not send any packets or probes to the target devices, but rather observes and analyzes the network traffic passively. Passive scanning can minimize the risk of OT/ICS devices malfunctioning due to the vulnerability identification process, as it does not interfere with the normal operation of the devices or cause any network disruption. Passive scanning can also detect vulnerabilities that active scanning may miss, such as misconfigured devices, rogue devices or unauthorized traffic. Official References:

• https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
• https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered
• https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst

Determining the asset value of each system is the best action to perform first, as it helps to categorize and prioritize the systems based on the sensitivity of the data they host. The asset value is a measure of how important a system is to the organization, in terms of its financial, operational, or reputational impact. The asset value can help the security analyst to assign a risk level and a protection level to each system, and to allocate resources accordingly. The other actions are not as effective as determining the asset value, as they do not directly address the goal of promoting confidentiality, availability, and integrity of the data. Interviewing the users who access these systems may provide some insight into how the systems are used and what data they contain, but it may not reflect the actual value or sensitivity of the data from an organizational perspective. Scanning the systems to see which vulnerabilities currently exist may help to identify and remediate some security issues, but it does not help to categorize or prioritize the systems based on their data sensitivity. Configuring alerts for vendor-specific zero-day exploits may help to detect and respond to some emerging threats, but it does not help to protect the systems based on their data sensitivity.

In a root cause analysis following unauthorized access, the initial step is usually to review relevant log files. These logs can provide critical information about how and when the attacker gained access.

The first step in a root cause analysis after a data breach is typically to review the logs. This helps the analyst understand how the attacker gained access by providing a detailed record of all events, including unauthorized or abnormal activities. Documenting the incident, interviewing employees, and identifying immediate containment actions are important steps, but they usually follow the initial log review.

DNS exfiltration is a technique that uses the DNS protocol to transfer data from a compromised network or device to an attacker-controlled server. DNS exfiltration can bypass firewall rules and security products that do not inspect DNS traffic. The characteristics of the suspicious DNS traffic in the question match the indicators of DNS exfiltration, such as:

• DNS traffic while a tunneling session is active: This implies that the DNS protocol is being used to create a covert channel for data transfer.
• The mean time between queries is less than one second: This implies that the DNS queries are being sent at a high frequency to maximize the amount of data transferred.
• The average query length exceeds 100 characters: This implies that the DNS queries are encoding large amounts of data in the subdomains or other fields of the DNS packets.

Official References:

• https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
• https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/topic/bypassing-security-products-via-dns-data-exfiltration/
• https://www.reddit.com/r/CompTIA/comments/nvjuzt/dns_exfiltration_explanation/

A prioritized list of critical systems defined by executive leadership is the best option to use to develop a business continuity plan. A business continuity plan (BCP) is a system of prevention and recovery from potential threats to a company. The plan ensures that personnel and assets are protected and are able to function quickly in the event of a disaster1. A BCP should include a business impact analysis, which identifies the critical systems and processes that are essential for the continuity of the business operations, and the potential impacts of their disruption2. The executive leadership should be involved in defining the critical systems and their priorities, as they have the strategic vision and authority to make decisions that affect the whole organization3. A diagram of all systems and interdependent applications, a repository for all the software used by the organization, and a configuration management database in print at an off-site location are all useful tools for documenting and managing the IT infrastructure, but they are not sufficient to develop a comprehensive BCP that covers all aspects of the business continuity4. References: What Is a Business Continuity Plan (BCP), and How Does It Work?, Business continuity plan (BCP) in 8 steps, with templates, Business continuity planning | Business Queensland, Understanding the Essentials of a Business Continuity Plan

The best action that would allow the analyst to gather intelligence without disclosing information to the attackers is to upload the binary to an air gapped sandbox for analysis. An air gapped sandbox is an isolated environment that has no connection to any external network or system. Uploading the binary to an air gapped sandbox can prevent any communication or interaction between the binary and the attackers, as well as any potential harm or infection to other systems or networks. An air gapped sandbox can also allow the analyst to safely analyze and observe the behavior, functionality, or characteristics of the binary. 

The best way to see the entire contents of the downloaded files in Wireshark is to change the display filter to ftp-data and follow the TCP streams. FTP-data is a protocol that is used to transfer files between an FTP client and server using TCP port 20. By filtering for ftp-data packets and following the TCP streams, the analyst can see the actual file data that was transferred during the FTP session

The most likely scenario occurring with the time stamps is that the NTP server is not configured on the host. NTP is the Network Time Protocol, which is used to synchronize the clocks of computers over a network. NTP uses a hierarchical system of time sources, where each level is assigned a stratum number. The most accurate time sources, such as atomic clocks or GPS receivers, are at stratum 0, and the devices that synchronize with them are at stratum 1, and so on. NTP clients can query multiple NTP servers and use algorithms to select the best time source and adjust their clocks accordingly1. If the NTP server is not configured on the host, the host will rely on its own hardware clock, which may drift over time and become inaccurate. This can cause discrepancies in the time stamps between the host and other devices on the network, such as the firewall, which may be synchronized with a different NTP server or use a different time zone. This can affect the security analysis and correlation of events, as well as the compliance and auditing of the network23. References: How the Windows Time Service Works, Time Synchronization - All You Need To Know, Firewall rules logging: a closer look at our new network compliance and …

The security administrator should investigate shtml.exe next, as it is a potential vulnerability that allows remote code execution on the web server. Nikto scan results indicate that the web server is running Apache on Windows, and that the shtml.exe file is accessible in the /scripts/ directory. This file is part of the Server Side Includes (SSI) feature, which allows dynamic content generation on web pages. However, if the SSI feature is not configured properly, it can allow attackers to execute arbitrary commands on the web server by injecting malicious code into the URL or the web page12. Therefore, the security administrator should check the SSI configuration and permissions, and remove or disable the shtml.exe file if it is not needed. References: Nikto-Penetration testing. Introduction, Web application scanning with Nikto

The activities taken by the process with PID 1024 will provide the best insight into this potentially malicious process, based on the anomalous behavior. BGInfo.exe is a legitimate tool that displays system information on the desktop background, but it can also be used by attackers to gather information about the compromised host or to disguise malicious processes12. By monitoring the activities of PID 1024, such as the files it accesses, the network connections it makes, or the commands it executes, the analyst can determine if the process is benign or malicious.

References: bginfo.exe Windows process - What is it?, What is bginfo.exe? Is it Safe or a Virus? How to remove or fix it

Vulnerability 2 has the highest impact metrics, specifically the highest attack vector (AV) and attack complexity (AC) values. This means that the vulnerability is more likely to be exploited and more difficult to remediate.

References:

• CVSS v3.1 Specification Document, section 2.1.1 and 2.1.2
• The CVSS v3 Vulnerability Scoring System, section 3.1 and 3.2

The analyst should focus on the impact of the events in order to move the incident forward. Impact is the measure of the potential or actual damage caused by an incident, such as data loss, financial loss, reputational damage, or regulatory penalties. Impact can help the analyst prioritize the events that need to be investigated based on their severity and urgency, and allocate the appropriate resources and actions to contain and remediate them. Impact can also help the analyst communicate the status and progress of the incident to the stakeholders and customers, and justify the decisions and recommendations made during the incident response12. Vulnerability score, mean time to detect, and isolation are all important metrics or actions for incident response, but they are not the main focus for moving the incident forward. Vulnerability score is the rating of the likelihood and severity of a vulnerability being exploited by a threat actor. Mean time to detect is the average time it takes to discover an incident. Isolation is the process of disconnecting an affected system from the network to prevent further damage or spread of the incident34 . References: Incident Response: Processes, Best Practices & Tools - Atlassian, Incident Response Metrics: What You Should Be Measuring, Vulnerability Scanning Best Practices, How to Track Mean Time to Detect (MTTD) and Mean Time to Respond (MTTR) to Cybersecurity Incidents, [Isolation and Quarantine for Incident Response]

MITRE ATT&CK is a globally accessible knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations. It is used as a foundation for the development of specific threat models and methodologies in the private sector, in government, and in the cybersecurity product and service community. It can help security professionals understand, detect, and mitigate cyber threats by providing a comprehensive framework of TTPs.

References: MITRE ATT&CK, Getting Started with ATT&CK, MITRE ATT&CK | MITRE

Performing a tabletop drill based on previously identified incident scenarios is the best way to test the changes to the BC and DR plans without any impact to the business, as it is a low-cost and low-risk method of exercising the plans and identifying any gaps or issues. A tabletop drill is a type of BC/DR exercise that involves gathering key personnel from different departments and roles and discussing how they would respond to a hypothetical incident scenario. A tabletop drill does not involve any actual simulation or disruption of the systems or processes, but rather relies on verbal communication and documentation review. A tabletop drill can help to ensure that everyone is familiar with the BC/DR plans, that the plans reflect the current state of the organization, and that the plans are consistent and coordinated across different functions. The other options are not as suitable as performing a tabletop drill, as they involve more cost, risk, or impact to the business. Simulating an incident by shutting down power to the primary data center is a type of BC/DR exercise that involves creating an actual disruption or outage of a critical system or process, and observing how the organization responds and recovers. This type of exercise can provide a realistic assessment of the BC/DR capabilities, but it can also cause significant impact to the business operations, customers, and reputation. Migrating active workloads from the primary data center to the secondary location is a type of BC/DR exercise that involves switching over from one system or site to another, and verifying that the backup system or site can support the normal operations. This type of exercise can help to validate the functionality and performance of the backup system or site, but it can also incur high costs, complexity, and potential errors or failures. Comparing the current plan to lessons learned from previous incidents is a type of BC/DR activity that involves reviewing past experiences and outcomes, and identifying best practices or improvement opportunities. This activity can help to update and refine the BC/DR plans, but it does not test or validate them in a simulated or actual scenario

Registry key values would be missing from a scan performed with this configuration, as the scanner appliance would not have access to the Windows Registry of the scanned systems. The Windows Registry is a database that stores configuration settings and options for the operating system and installed applications. To scan the Registry, the scanner would need to have credentials to log in to the systems and run a local agent or script. The other items would not be missing from the scan, as they can be detected by the scanner appliance without credentials. Operating system version can be identified by analyzing service banners or fingerprinting techniques. Open ports can be discovered by performing a port scan or sending probes to common ports. IP address can be obtained by resolving the hostname or using network discovery tools. https://attack.mitre.org/techniques/T1112/

The security analyst is validating a Local File Inclusion (LFI) vulnerability, as indicated by the “/…/…/…/” in the GET request which is a common indicator of directory traversal attempts associated with LFI. The other options are not relevant for this purpose: SQL injection involves injecting malicious SQL statements into a database query; XSS involves injecting malicious scripts into a web page; CSRF involves tricking a user into performing an unwanted action on a web application.

References: According to the CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition1, one of the objectives for the exam is to “use appropriate tools and methods to manage, prioritize and respond to attacks and vulnerabilities”. The book also covers the usage and syntax of Burp Suite, a tool used for testing web application security, in chapter 6. Specifically, it explains the meaning and function of each component in Burp Suite, such as Repeater, which allows the security analyst to modify and resend individual requests1, page 239. Therefore, this is a reliable source to verify the answer to the question.

Quarantining the server is the best action to perform immediately, as it isolates the affected server from the rest of the network and prevents the ransomware from spreading to other systems or data. Quarantining the server also preserves the evidence of the ransomware attack, which can be useful for forensic analysis and law enforcement investigation. The other actions are not as urgent as quarantining the server, as they may not stop the ransomware infection, or they may destroy valuable evidence. Shutting down the server may not remove the ransomware, and it may trigger a data deletion mechanism by the ransomware. Reimaging the server may restore its functionality, but it will also erase any traces of the ransomware and make recovery of encrypted data impossible. Updating the OS to the latest version may fix some vulnerabilities, but it will not remove the ransomware or decrypt the data. Official References:

• https://www.cisa.gov/stopransomware/ransomware-guide
• https://www.cisa.gov/sites/default/files/publications/Ransomware_Executive_One-Pager_and_Technical_Document-FINAL.pdf
• https://www.cisa.gov/stopransomware/ive-been-hit-ransomware

The best recommendations to prevent an XSS vulnerability from being exploited are to implement a compensating control in the source code and to fix the vulnerability using a virtual patch at the WAF. A compensating control is a technique that mitigates the risk of a vulnerability by adding additional security measures, such as input validation, output encoding, or HTML sanitization. A virtual patch is a rule that blocks or modifies malicious requests or responses at the WAF level, without modifying the application code. These recommendations are effective, efficient, and less disruptive than the other options. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Security Operations and Monitoring, page 156; Cross Site Scripting Prevention Cheat Sheet, Section: XSS Defense Philosophy.

The best action for the incident response team to recommend in this scenario is to perform no action until HR or legal counsel advises on next steps. This action can help avoid any potential legal or ethical issues, such as violating employee privacy rights, contractual obligations, or organizational policies. This action can also help ensure that any evidence or information collected from the employee’s system or network is admissible and valid in case of any legal action or dispute. The incident response team should consult with HR or legal counsel before taking any action that may affect the employee’s system or network.

Key pair authentication is a method of using a public and private key to securely access cloud resources, such as downloading the configuration of assets from a cloud tenancy. Key pair authentication is more secure than user and password or PAM, and does not require an additional factor like MFA.

References: Authentication Methods - Configuring Tenant-Wide Settings in Azure …, Cloud Foundation - Oracle Help Center

The best implementation to give the best central visibility into the events occurring throughout the corporate environment without logging in to the servers individually is B. Configure the servers to forward logs to a SIEM.

A SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) is a security solution that helps organizations detect, analyze, and respond to security threats before they disrupt business1. SIEM tools collect, aggregate, and correlate log data from various sources across an organization’s network, such as applications, devices, servers, and users. SIEM tools also provide real-time alerts, dashboards, reports, and incident response capabilities to help security teams identify and mitigate cyberattacks2345.

By configuring the servers to forward logs to a SIEM, the security analysts can have a central view of potential threats and monitor security incidents across the corporate environment without logging in to the servers individually. This can save time, improve efficiency, and enhance security posture2345.

Deploying a database to aggregate the logging (A) may not provide the same level of analysis, correlation, and alerting as a SIEM tool. Sharing the log directory on each server to allow local access © may not be scalable or secure for a large number of servers. Automating the emailing of logs to the analysts (D) may not be timely or effective for real-time threat detection and response. Therefore, B is the best option among the choices given.

A signal-shielded bag and a tamper-evident seal are tools that can be used to maintain the integrity of the mobile phone while it is transported. A signal-shielded bag prevents the phone from receiving or sending any signals that could compromise the data or evidence on the device. A tamper-evident seal ensures that the phone has not been opened or altered during the transportation. References: Mobile device forensics, Section: Acquisition

The correct answers for key factors in the change management process to reduce the impact of system failures are:

D. Identify assets with dependence that could be impacted by the change.

F. Ensure that all assets are properly listed in the inventory management system.

D. Identify assets with dependence that could be impacted by the change: This is crucial in change management because understanding the interdependencies among assets can help anticipate and mitigate the potential cascading effects of a change. By identifying these dependencies, the organization can plan more effectively for changes and minimize the risk of unintended consequences that could lead to system failures.

F. Ensure that all assets are properly listed in the inventory management system: Maintaining an accurate and comprehensive inventory of assets is fundamental in change management. Knowing exactly what assets the organization possesses and their characteristics allows for better planning and impact analysis when changes are made. This ensures that no critical component is overlooked during the change process, reducing the risk of failures due to incomplete information.

Other Options:

A. Ensure users document system recovery plan prior to deployment: While documenting a system recovery plan is important, it's more related to disaster recovery and business continuity planning than directly reducing the impact of system failures due to changes.

B. Perform a full system-level backup following the change: While backups are essential, they are generally a reactive measure to recover from a failure, rather than a proactive measure to reduce the impact of system failures in the first place.

C. Leverage an audit tool to identify changes that are being made: While using an audit tool is helpful for tracking changes and ensuring compliance, it is not directly linked to reducing the impact of system failures due to changes.

E. Require diagrams to be completed for all critical systems: While having diagrams of critical systems is useful for understanding and managing them, it is not a direct method for reducing the impact of system failures due to changes. Diagrams are more about documentation and understanding rather than proactive change management.

Header analysis is the technique of examining the metadata of an email, such as the sender, recipient, date, subject, and routing information. It can help to identify the source of a malicious email by revealing the IP address and domain name of the originator, as well as any spoofing or redirection attempts. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6, page 240; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 6, page 249.

The output shows that the web application has a cross-origin resource sharing (CORS) header that allows any origin to access its resources. This is a security misconfiguration that could allow malicious websites to make requests to the web application on behalf of the user and access sensitive data or perform unauthorized actions. The tuning recommendation is to configure the Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to only allow authorized domains that need to access the web application’s resources. This would prevent unauthorized cross-origin requests and reduce the risk of cross-site request forgery (CSRF) attacks.

After detecting a compromised email server and unusual network traffic, the next step in incident response is containment, to prevent further damage or spread of the compromise. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Incident Response, page 197.

A risk score is a numerical value that represents the potential impact and likelihood of a vulnerability being exploited. It can help to identify the potential loss incurred by an issue and prioritize remediation efforts accordingly. https://www.comptia.org/training/books/cysa-cs0-003-study-guide

Isolation is the first step to take after detecting some indicators of compromise (IoCs) of possible ransomware contamination. Isolation prevents the ransomware from spreading to other servers or segments of the network, and allows the security team to investigate and contain the incident. Isolation can be done by disconnecting the infected servers from the network, blocking the malicious traffic, or applying firewall rules12.

References: 10 Things You Should Do After a Ransomware Attack, How to Recover from a Ransomware Attack: A Step-by-Step Guide

CSRF is an attack that forces an end user to execute unwanted actions on a web application in which they’re currently authenticated. An attacker may trick the user into clicking a malicious link or submitting a forged form that performs an action on the user’s behalf, such as changing their password or transferring funds. If the user has several tabs open in the browser, they may not notice the CSRF request or the resulting change in their account. Updating the browser may have cleared the user’s cache or cookies, preventing them from logging in to their account after the CSRF attack.

Port 3389 is commonly used by Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP), which is a service that allows remote access to a system. A vulnerability on this port could allow an attacker to compromise the web server or use it as a pivot point to access other systems. However, if the firewall blocks this port, the risk of exploitation is reduced.

References: CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 2: Software and Systems Security, page 67; CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 3: Software and Systems Security, page 103.

Performing input validation before allowing submission is the best recommendation for remediation of this application vulnerability. Input validation is a technique that checks the data entered by users or attackers against a set of rules or constraints, such as data type, length, format, or range. Input validation can prevent common web application attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), or command injection, which exploit the lack of input validation to execute malicious code or commands on the server or the client side. By validating the input before allowing submission, the web application can reject or sanitize any malicious or unexpected input, and protect the user credentials and other sensitive data from being compromised12. References: Input Validation - OWASP, 4 Most Common Application Vulnerabilities and Possible Remediation

The best practice that the company should follow with this proxy is to decommission the proxy. Decommissioning the proxy involves removing or disposing of the proxy from the rack and the network, as well as deleting or wiping any data or configuration on the proxy. Decommissioning the proxy can help eliminate the vulnerability on the proxy, as well as reduce the attack surface, complexity, or cost of maintaining the network. Decommissioning the proxy can also free up space or resources for other devices or systems that are in use or needed by the company.

The observed activity from a privileged account indicates an insider attack, which is when a trusted user or employee misuses their access rights to compromise the security of the organization. Accessing emails and sensitive information, modifying audit logs, and logging in at abnormal times are all signs of malicious behavior by a privileged user who may be trying to steal, tamper, or destroy data, or cover their tracks. An insider attack can cause significant damage to the organization’s reputation, operations, and compliance12. References: The Privileged Identity Playbook Guides Management of Privileged User Accounts, How to Track Privileged Users’ Activities in Active Directory

Log entry 4 shows an attempt to exploit the zero-day command injection vulnerability by appending a malicious command (;cat /etc/passwd) to the end of a legitimate request (/cgi-bin/index.cgi?name=John). This command would try to read the contents of the /etc/passwd file, which contains user account information, and could lead to further compromise of the system. The other log entries do not show any signs of command injection, as they do not contain any special characters or commands that could alter the intended behavior of the application. Official References:

• https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/command-injection/
• https://www.zerodayinitiative.com/advisories/published/

Deduplication is a process that involves removing any duplicate or redundant data or information from a data set or source. Deduplication can help consolidate several threat intelligence feeds by eliminating any overlapping or repeated indicators of compromise (IoCs), alerts, reports, or recommendations. Deduplication can also help reduce the volume and complexity of threat intelligence data, as well as improve its quality, accuracy, or relevance.

Based on the events in the log, the most likely occurrence is that an adversary is performing a vulnerability scan. The log shows LDAP read operations and EDR enumerating local groups, which are indicative of an adversary scanning the system to find vulnerabilities or sensitive information. The final entry shows SMB connection attempts to multiple hosts from a single host, which could be a sign of network discovery or lateral movement. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Security Operations and Monitoring, page 161; Monitor logs from vulnerability scanners, Section: Reports on Nessus vulnerability data.

Time synchronization is the process of ensuring that all systems in a network have the same accurate time, which is essential for correlating data points from different sources. If the system has an issue with time synchronization, the analyst may have difficulty matching events that occurred at the same time or in a specific order. Access rights, network segmentation, and invalid playbook are not directly related to the issue of correlating data points. Verified References: [CompTIA CySA+ CS0-002 Certification Study Guide], page 23

Vulnerability B is the vulnerability that the analyst should be most concerned about, knowing that end users frequently click on malicious links sent via email. Vulnerability B is a remote code execution vulnerability in Microsoft Outlook that allows an attacker to run arbitrary code on the target system by sending a specially crafted email message. This vulnerability is very dangerous, as it does not require any user interaction or attachment opening to trigger the exploit. The attacker only needs to send an email to the victim’s Outlook account, and the code will execute automatically when Outlook connects to the Exchange server. This vulnerability has a high severity rating of 9.8 out of 10, and it affects all supported versions of Outlook. Therefore, the analyst should prioritize patching this vulnerability as soon as possible to prevent potential compromise of the workstations.

This is because scanning without admin privileges can limit the scope and accuracy of the vulnerability scan, and potentially miss some critical vulnerabilities that require higher privileges to detect. According to the OWASP Vulnerability Management Guide1, “scanning without administrative privileges will result in a large number of false negatives and an incomplete scan”. Therefore, the analyst should recommend addressing this issue to ensure potential vulnerabilities are identified.

When documenting a physical incident in a network data closet, taking photos provides a clear and immediate record of the situation, which is essential for thorough incident documentation and subsequent investigation.

Proper documentation of an incident in a data closet should include taking photos of the impacted items. This provides visual evidence and helps in understanding the physical context of the incident, which is crucial for a thorough investigation. Backing up configuration files, recording connections, and creating network diagrams, while important, are not the primary means of documenting the physical aspects of an incident.

The log entry "......\boot.ini" is indicative of a directory traversal attack, where an attacker attempts to access files and directories that are stored outside the web root folder.

The log snippet "......\boot.ini" is indicative of a directory traversal attack. This type of attack aims to access files and directories that are stored outside the web root folder. By manipulating variables that reference files with “../” (dot-dot-slash), the attacker may be able to access arbitrary files and directories stored on the file system.

SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) is the best option to help the analyst implement the recommendation, as it reflects the software solution that enables security teams to integrate and coordinate separate tools into streamlined threat response workflows and automate repetitive tasks. SOAR is a term coined by Gartner in 2015 to describe a technology that combines the functions of security incident response platforms, security orchestration and automation platforms, and threat intelligence platforms in one offering. SOAR solutions help security teams to collect inputs from various sources, such as EDR agents, firewalls, or SIEM systems, and perform analysis and triage using a combination of human and machine power. SOAR solutions also allow security teams to define and execute incident response procedures in a digital workflow format, using automation to perform low-level tasks or actions, such as blocking an IP address or quarantining a device. SOAR solutions can help security teams to improve efficiency, consistency, and scalability of their operations, as well as reduce mean time to detect (MTTD) and mean time to respond (MTTR) to threats. The other options are not as suitable as SOAR, as they do not match the description or purpose of the recommendation. SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) is a software solution that collects and analyzes data from various sources, such as logs, events, or alerts, and provides security monitoring, threat detection, and incident response capabilities. SIEM solutions can help security teams to gain visibility, correlation, and context of their security data, but they do not provide automation or orchestration features like SOAR solutions. SLA (Service Level Agreement) is a document that defines the expectations and responsibilities between a service provider and a customer, such as the quality, availability, or performance of the service. SLAs can help to manage customer expectations, formalize communication, and improve productivity and relationships, but they do not help to implement technical recommendations like SOAR solutions. IoC (Indicator of Compromise) is a piece of data or evidence that suggests a system or network has been compromised by a threat actor, such as an IP address, a file hash, or a registry key. IoCs can help to identify and analyze malicious activities or incidents, but they do not help to implement response actions like SOAR solutions.

USB ports are a common attack vector that can be used to deliver malware, steal data, or compromise systems. The first step to mitigate this vulnerability is to check the configurations of the company assets and disable or restrict the USB ports if possible. This will prevent unauthorized devices from being connected and reduce the attack surface. The other options are also important, but they are not the first priority in this scenario.

References:

• CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, page 247
• What are Attack Vectors: Definition & Vulnerabilities, section “How to secure attack vectors”
• Are there any attack vectors for a printer connected through USB in a Windows environment?, answer by user “schroeder”

A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack is a type of cyberattack that aims to overwhelm a target’s network or server with a large volume of traffic from multiple sources. A common technique for launching a DDoS attack is to compromise DNS servers, which are responsible for resolving domain names into IP addresses. By flooding DNS servers with malicious requests, attackers can disrupt the normal functioning of the internet and prevent users from accessing external SaaS resources. Official References: https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/threat-intelligence/cyber-kill-chain-seven-steps-cyberattack/

A new program has been set to execute on system start is the most likely cause of the suspicious activity that is occurring, as it indicates that the malware has modified the registry keys of the system to ensure its persistence. File Integrity Monitoring (FIM) is a tool that monitors changes to files and registry keys on a system and alerts the security analyst of any unauthorized or malicious modifications. The alert triggered by FIM shows that the malware has created a new registry key under the Run subkey, which is used to launch programs automatically when the system starts. The new registry key points to a file named “update.exe” in the Temp folder, which is likely a malicious executable disguised as a legitimate update file. Official References:

• https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered
• https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
• https://www.comptia.org/training/books/cysa-cs0-002-study-guide

Beaconing is the best term to describe the activity that is taking place, as it refers to the periodic communication between an infected host and a blocklisted external server. Beaconing is a common technique used by malware to establish a connection with a command-and-control (C2) server, which can provide instructions, updates, or exfiltration capabilities to the malware. Beaconing can vary in frequency, duration, and payload, depending on the type and sophistication of the malware. The other terms are not as accurate as beaconing, as they describe different aspects of malicious activity. Data exfiltration is the unauthorized transfer of data from a compromised system to an external destination, such as a C2 server or a cloud storage service. Data exfiltration can be a goal or a consequence of malware infection, but it does not necessarily involve blocklisted servers or consistent requests. Rogue device is a device that is connected to a network without authorization or proper security controls. Rogue devices can pose a security risk, as they can introduce malware, bypass firewalls, or access sensitive data. However, rogue devices are not necessarily infected with malware or communicating with blocklisted servers. Scanning is the process of probing a network or a system for vulnerabilities, open ports, services, or other information. Scanning can be performed by legitimate administrators or malicious actors, depending on the intent and authorization. Scanning does not imply consistent requests or blocklisted servers, as it can target any network or system.

The correct answer is B. Allowlisting.

Allowlisting is a technique that allows only pre-approved web-based software to run on a system or network, while blocking all other software. Allowlisting can help prevent unauthorized or malicious software from compromising the security of an organization. Allowlisting can be implemented using various methods, such as application control, browser extensions, firewall rules, or proxy servers12.

The other options are not the best techniques to ensure that users only leverage web-based software that has been pre-approved by the organization. Blocklisting (A) is a technique that blocks specific web-based software from running on a system or network, while allowing all other software. Blocklisting can be ineffective or inefficient, as it requires constant updates and may not catch all malicious software. Graylisting © is a technique that temporarily rejects or delays incoming messages from unknown or suspicious sources, until they are verified as legitimate. Graylisting is mainly used for email filtering, not for web-based software control. Webhooks (D) are a technique that allows web-based software to send or receive data from other web-based software in real time, based on certain events or triggers. Webhooks are not related to web-based software control, but rather to web-based software integration.

Data loss prevention (DLP) is a tool that can prevent the exposure of PII outside of an organization by monitoring, detecting, and blocking sensitive data in motion, in use, or at rest.

According to the security policy, the company shall use the CVSSv3.1 Base Score Metrics to prioritize the remediation of security vulnerabilities. Option C has the highest CVSSv3.1 Base Score of 9.8, which indicates a critical severity level. The company shall also prioritize confidentiality of data over availability of systems and data, and option C has a high impact on confidentiality (C:H). Finally, the company shall prioritize patching of publicly available systems and services over patching of internally available systems, and option C affects a public-facing web server. Official References: https://www.first.org/cvss/

SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation and Response) and SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) are solutions that can help centralize the workload for the internal security team by collecting, correlating, and analyzing alerts from different sources, such as EDR. SOAR can also automate and streamline incident response workflows, while SIEM can provide dashboards and reports for security monitoring and compliance. References: What is EDR? Endpoint Detection & Response, How Does the Cyber Kill Chain Protect Against Attacks?; What is EDR Solution?, EDR solutions secure diverse endpoints through central monitoring

A tabletop exercise is a type of simulation exercise that involves testing possible incident scenarios and how to react properly, without actually performing any actions or using any resources. A tabletop exercise is usually conducted by a facilitator who presents a realistic scenario to a group of participants, such as a cyberattack, a natural disaster, or a data breach. The participants then discuss and evaluate their roles, responsibilities, plans, procedures, and policies for responding to the incident, as well as the potential impacts and outcomes. A tabletop exercise can help identify strengths and weaknesses in the incident response plan, improve communication and coordination among the stakeholders, raise awareness and preparedness for potential incidents, and provide feedback and recommendations for improvement.

The correct answer is C. False negative.

A false negative is a situation where an attack or a threat is not detected by a security control, even though it should have been. In this case, the SIEM rule was unable to detect an attack with nine failed logins, which is below the threshold of ten failed logins that triggers an alert. This means that the SIEM rule missed a potential attack and failed to alert the security analysts, resulting in a false negative.

A false positive is a situation where a benign or normal activity is detected as an attack or a threat by a security control, even though it is not. A true negative is a situation where a benign or normal activity is not detected as an attack or a threat by a security control, as expected. A true positive is a situation where an attack or a threat is detected by a security control, as expected. These are not the correct answers for this question.

Reverse engineering is the process of analyzing a binary file to understand its structure, functionality, and behavior. It can help to identify the purpose of the binary file, such as whether it is a malicious program, a legitimate application, or a library. Reverse engineering can involve various techniques, such as disassembling, decompiling, debugging, or extracting strings or resources from the binary file123. Reverse engineering can also help to find vulnerabilities, backdoors, or hidden features in the binary file

Penetration testing is the best strategy to evaluate the security of the software without the source code. Penetration testing is a type of security testing that simulates real-world attacks on the software to identify and exploit its vulnerabilities. Penetration testing can be performed on the software as a black box, meaning that the tester does not need to have access to the source code or the internal structure of the software. Penetration testing can help the analyst to assess the security posture of the software, the potential impact of the vulnerabilities, and the effectiveness of the existing security controls12. Static testing, vulnerability testing, and dynamic testing are other types of security testing, but they usually require access to the source code or the internal structure of the software. Static testing is the analysis of the software code or design without executing it. Vulnerability testing is the identification and evaluation of the software weaknesses or flaws. Dynamic testing is the analysis of the software code or design while executing it345. References: Penetration Testing - OWASP, What is a Penetration Test and How Does It Work?, Static Code Analysis | OWASP Foundation, Vulnerability Scanning Best Practices, Dynamic Testing - OWASP

The output shows the result of running the ssl-enum-ciphers script with Nmap, which is a tool that can scan web servers for supported SSL/TLS cipher suites. Cipher suites are combinations of cryptographic algorithms that are used to establish secure communication between a client and a server. The output shows the cipher suites that are supported by the server, along with a letter grade (A through F) indicating the strength of the connection. The output also shows the least strength, which is the strength of the weakest cipher offered by the server. In this case, the least strength is F, which means that the server is allowing insecure cipher suites that are vulnerable to attacks or have been deprecated. For example, the output shows that the server supports SSLv3, which is an outdated and insecure protocol that is susceptible to the POODLE attack. The output also shows that the server supports RC4, which is a weak and broken stream cipher that should not be used. Therefore, the best description of the output is that the host is allowing insecure cipher suites. The other descriptions are not accurate, as they do not reflect what the output shows. The host is not up or responding is incorrect, as the output clearly shows that the host is up and responding to the scan. The host is running excessive cipher suites is incorrect, as the output does not indicate how many cipher suites the host is running, only which ones it supports. The Secure Shell port on this host is closed is incorrect, as the output does not show anything about port 22, which is the default port for Secure Shell (SSH). The output only shows information about port 443, which is the default port for HTTPS.

A Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) would have reduced the complexity of identity and access management in cloud-based assets. CASBs provide visibility into cloud application usage, data protection, and governance for cloud-based services.

A HTTP/404 error code means that the requested page or resource was not found on the web server. This could be caused by various reasons, such as incorrect URLs, moved or deleted pages, missing assets, or server misconfigurations123. The analyst should first identify the source of the requests and examine the related activity to determine if they are legitimate or malicious, and what actions need to be taken to resolve the issue. The other options are either premature or irrelevant without further investigation. References: 1: 404 Page Not Found Error: What It Is and How to Fix It 2: 404 Error Code: What Causes Them and How To Fix It 3: About 404 errors and how to Troubleshoot it?

The output shows that port 80 is open and running an HTTP service, indicating that the host could potentially be vulnerable to web-based attacks. The other options are not relevant for this purpose: the host is responsive to the ICMP request, as shown by the “Host is up” message; the host is not running a mail server, as there is no SMTP or POP3 service detected; the host is not allowing unsecured FTP connections, as there is no FTP service detected.References: According to the CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition123, one of the objectives for the exam is to “use appropriate tools and methods to manage, prioritize and respond to attacks and vulnerabilities”. The book also covers the usage and syntax of nmap, a popular network scanning tool, in chapter 5. Specifically, it explains the meaning and function of each option in nmap, such as “-sV” for version detection2, page 195. Therefore, this is a reliable source to verify the answer to the question.

Reviewing the steps that the previous analyst followed is the most important step during the transition, as it ensures continuity and consistency of the investigation. It also helps the new analyst to understand the current status, scope, and findings of the investigation, and to avoid repeating the same actions or missing any important details. The other options are either less important, premature, or potentially biased. References: CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4: Incident Response and Management, page 191. Incident response best practices and tips, Tip 1: Always pack a jump bag.

One of the best actions to take after the conclusion of a security incident to improve incident response in the future is to schedule a review with all teams to discuss what occurred, what went well, what went wrong, and what can be improved. This review is also known as a lessons learned session or an after-action report. The purpose of this review is to identify the root causes of the incident, evaluate the effectiveness of the incident response process, document any gaps or weaknesses in the security controls, and recommend corrective actions or preventive measures for future incidents. Official References: https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/threat-intelligence/cyber-kill-chain-seven-steps-cyberattack/

The analyst should look at p4wnp1_aloa.lan (192.168.86.56) first, as this is the most suspicious device on the network. P4wnP1 ALOA is a tool that can be used to create a malicious USB device that can perform various attacks, such as keystroke injection, network sniffing, man-in-the-middle, or backdoor creation. The presence of a device with this name on the network could indicate that an attacker has plugged in a malicious USB device to a system and gained access to the network. Official References: https://github.com/mame82/P4wnP1_aloa

An API endpoint is a point of entry for a communication between two different SaaS-based security tools. It allows one tool to send requests and receive responses from the other tool using a common interface. An API endpoint can be used to notify the other tool in the event a threat is detected and trigger an appropriate action. SMB share, SMTP notification, and SNMP trap are not suitable for SaaS integration security, as they are either network protocols or email services that do not provide a direct and secure communication between two different SaaS tools. References: Top 10 Best SaaS Security Tools - 2023, What is SaaS Security? A Guide to Everything SaaS Security, 6 Key Considerations for SaaS Integration Security | Prismatic, Introducing Security for Interconnected SaaS - Palo Alto Networks

The takeown command is used to take ownership of a file or folder that previously was denied access to the current user or group12. The activity observed indicates that someone has taken ownership of all files and folders under the C:\Users\Documents\HR\Employees directory, which may contain sensitive or confidential information. This could be a sign of unauthorized privileges, as the user or group may not have the legitimate right or need to access those files or folders. Taking ownership of files or folders could also enable the user or group to modify or delete them, which could affect the integrity or availability of the data.

The correct answer is A. System hardening.

System hardening is the process of securing a system by reducing its attack surface, applying patches and updates, configuring security settings, and implementing security controls. System hardening can help prevent or mitigate vulnerability events that may affect operating systems. Host-based IPS, firewalls, and two-factor authentication are examples of security controls that can be applied to harden a system1.

The other options are not the best descriptions of the scenario. A hybrid network architecture (B) is a network design that combines on-premises and cloud-based resources, which may or may not involve system hardening. Continuous authorization © is a security approach that monitors and validates the security posture of a system on an ongoing basis, which is different from system hardening. Secure access service edge (D) is a network architecture that delivers cloud-based security services to remote users and devices, which is also different from system hardening.

The correct answer is A. 121.19.30.221.

Based on the log files and the organization’s priorities, the host that warrants additional investigation is 121.19.30.221, because it is the only host that accessed a file containing sensitive data and is not from the partner vendor’s range.

The log files show the following information:

• The IP addresses of the hosts that accessed the web server
• The date and time of the access
• The file path of the requested resource
• The number of bytes transferred

The organization’s priorities are:

• Unauthorized data disclosure is more critical than denial of service attempts
• Denial of service attempts are more important than ensuring vendor data access

According to these priorities, the most serious threat to the organization is unauthorized data disclosure, which occurs when sensitive, protected, or confidential data is copied, transmitted, viewed, stolen, altered, or used by an individual unauthorized to do so123. Therefore, the host that accessed a file containing sensitive data and is not from the partner vendor’s range poses the highest risk to the organization.

The file that contains sensitive data is /reports/2023/financials.pdf, as indicated by its name and path. This file was accessed by two hosts: 121.19.30.221 and 216.122.5.5. However, only 121.19.30.221 is not from the partner vendor’s range, which is 216.122.5.x. Therefore, 121.19.30.221 is a potential unauthorized data disclosure threat and warrants additional investigation.

The other hosts do not warrant additional investigation based on the log files and the organization’s priorities.

Host 134.17.188.5 accessed /index.html multiple times in a short period of time, which could indicate a denial of service attempt by flooding the web server with requests45. However, denial of service attempts are less critical than unauthorized data disclosure according to the organization’s priorities, and there is no evidence that this host succeeded in disrupting the web server’s normal operations.

Host 202.180.1582 accessed /images/logo.png once, which does not indicate any malicious activity or threat to the organization.

Host 216.122.5.5 accessed /reports/2023/financials.pdf once, which could indicate unauthorized data disclosure if it was not authorized to do so. However, this host is from the partner vendor’s range, which is required to have access to monthly reports and is the only external vendor with authorized access according to the organization’s requirements.

Therefore, based on the log files and the organization’s priorities, host 121.19.30.221 warrants additional investigation as it poses the highest risk of unauthorized data disclosure to the organization.

USB ports are a common attack vector that can be used to deliver malware, steal data, or compromise systems. The first step to mitigate this vulnerability is to check the configurations of the company assets and disable or restrict the USB ports if possible. This will prevent unauthorized devices from being connected and reduce the attack surface. The other options are also important, but they are not the first priority in this scenario.

References:

• CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, page 247
• What are Attack Vectors: Definition & Vulnerabilities, section “How to secure attack vectors”
• Are there any attack vectors for a printer connected through USB in a Windows environment?, answer by user “schroeder”

The correct answer is B. It proactively facilitates real-time information sharing between the public and private sectors.

TAXII, or Trusted Automated eXchange of Intelligence Information, is a standard protocol for sharing cyber threat intelligence in a standardized, automated, and secure manner. TAXII defines how cyber threat information can be shared via services and message exchanges, such as discovery, collection management, inbox, and poll. TAXII is designed to support STIX, or Structured Threat Information eXpression, which is a standardized language for describing cyber threat information in a readable and consistent format. Together, STIX and TAXII form a framework for sharing and using threat intelligence, creating an open-source platform that allows users to search through records containing attack vectors details such as malicious IP addresses, malware signatures, and threat actors123.

The importance of implementing TAXII as part of a threat intelligence program is that it proactively facilitates real-time information sharing between the public and private sectors. By using TAXII, organizations can exchange cyber threat information with various entities, such as security vendors, government agencies, industry associations, or trusted groups. TAXII enables different sharing models, such as hub and spoke, source/subscriber, or peer-to-peer, depending on the needs and preferences of the information producers and consumers. TAXII also supports different levels of access control, encryption, and authentication to ensure the security and privacy of the shared information123.

By implementing TAXII as part of a threat intelligence program, organizations can benefit from the following advantages:

• They can receive timely and relevant information about the latest threats and vulnerabilities that may affect their systems or networks.
• They can leverage the collective knowledge and experience of other organizations that have faced similar or related threats.
• They can improve their situational awareness and threat detection capabilities by correlating and analyzing the shared information.
• They can enhance their incident response and mitigation strategies by applying the best practices and recommendations from the shared information.
• They can contribute to the overall improvement of cyber security by sharing their own insights and feedback with other organizations123.

The other options are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the importance of implementing TAXII as part of a threat intelligence program.

Option A is incorrect because TAXII does not provide a structured way to gain information about insider threats. Insider threats are malicious activities conducted by authorized users within an organization, such as employees, contractors, or partners. Insider threats can be detected by using various methods, such as user behavior analysis, data loss prevention, or anomaly detection. However, TAXII is not designed to collect or share information about insider threats specifically. TAXII is more focused on external threats that originate from outside sources, such as hackers, cybercriminals, or nation-states4.

Option C is incorrect because TAXII does not exchange messages in the most cost-effective way and requires little maintenance once implemented. TAXII is a protocol that defines how messages are exchanged, but it does not specify the cost or maintenance of the exchange. The cost and maintenance of implementing TAXII depend on various factors, such as the type and number of services used, the volume and frequency of data exchanged, the security and reliability requirements of the exchange, and the availability and compatibility of existing tools and platforms. Implementing TAXII may require significant resources and efforts from both the information producers and consumers to ensure its functionality and performance5.

Option D is incorrect because TAXII is not a semi-automated solution to gather threat intelligence about competitors in the same sector. TAXII is a fully automated solution that enables the exchange of threat intelligence among various entities across different sectors. TAXII does not target or collect information about specific competitors in the same sector. Rather, it aims to foster collaboration and cooperation among organizations that share common interests or goals in cyber security. Moreover, gathering threat intelligence about competitors in the same sector may raise ethical and legal issues that are beyond the scope of TAXII.

References:

• 1 What is STIX/TAXII? | Cloudflare
• 2 What Are STIX/TAXII Standards? - Anomali Resources
• 3 What is STIX and TAXII? - EclecticIQ
• 4 What Is an Insider Threat? Definition & Examples | Varonis
• 5 Implementing STIX/TAXII - GitHub Pages
• [6] Cyber Threat Intelligence: Ethical Hacking vs Unethical Hacking | Infosec

Passive network foot printing is the best description of the example, as it reflects the technique of collecting information about a network or system by monitoring or sniffing network traffic without sending any packets or interacting with the target. Foot printing is a term that refers to the process of gathering information about a target network or system, such as its IP addresses, open ports, operating systems, services, or vulnerabilities. Foot printing can be done for legitimate purposes, such as penetration testing or auditing, or for malicious purposes, such as reconnaissance or intelligence gathering. Foot printing can be classified into two types: active and passive. Active foot printing involves sending packets or requests to the target and analyzing the responses, such as using tools like ping, traceroute, or Nmap. Active foot printing can provide more accurate and detailed information, but it can also be detected by firewalls or intrusion detection systems (IDS). Passive foot printing involves observing or capturing network traffic without sending any packets or requests to the target, such as using tools like tcpdump, Wireshark, or Shodan. Passive foot printing can provide less information, but it can also avoid detection by firewalls or IDS. The example in the question shows that the attacker has gained access to the syslog server on a LAN and reviewed the syslog entries to prioritize possible next targets. A syslog server is a server that collects and stores log messages from various devices or applications on a network. A syslog entry is a record of an event or activity that occurred on a device or application, such as an error, a warning, or an alert. By reviewing the syslog entries, the attacker can obtain information about the network or system, such as its configuration, status, performance, or security issues. This is an example of passive network foot printing, as the attacker is not sending any packets or requests to the target, but rather observing or capturing network traffic from the syslog server. The other options are not correct, as they describe different techniques or concepts. OS fingerprinting is a technique of identifying the operating system of a target by analyzing its responses to certain packets or requests, such as using tools like Nmap or Xprobe2. OS fingerprinting can be done actively or passively, but it is not what the attacker is doing in the example. Service port identification is a technique of identifying the services running on a target by scanning its open ports and analyzing its responses to certain packets or requests, such as using tools like Nmap or Netcat. Service port identification can be done actively or passively, but it is not what the attacker is doing in the example. Application versioning is a concept that refers to the process of assigning unique identifiers to different versions of an application, such as using numbers, letters, dates, or names. Application versioning can help to track changes, updates, bugs, or features of an application, but it is not related to what the attacker is doing in the example.

Under the terms of PCI DSS, an organization that has experienced a breach of customer transactions should report the breach to the card issuer. The card issuer is the financial institution that issues the payment cards to the customers and that is responsible for authorizing and processing the transactions. The card issuer may have specific reporting requirements and procedures for the organization to follow in the event of a breach. The organization should also notify other parties that may be affected by the breach, such as customers, law enforcement, or regulators, depending on the nature and scope of the breach. Official References: https://www.pcisecuritystandards.org/