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156-215.80 Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

R80 Security Management Server can be installed on which of the following operating systems?

Options:

A.

Gaia only

B.

Gaia, SPLAT, Windows Server only

C.

Gaia, SPLAT, Windows Server and IPSO only

D.

Gaia and SPLAT only

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Questions 5

Anti-Spoofing is typically set up on which object type?

Options:

A.

Security Gateway

B.

Host

C.

Security Management object

D.

Network

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Questions 6

Choose what BEST describes a Session.

Options:

A.

Starts when an Administrator publishes all the changes made on SmartConsole.

B.

Starts when an Administrator logs in to the Security Management Server through SmartConsole and ends when it is published.

C.

Sessions ends when policy is pushed to the Security Gateway.

D.

Sessions locks the policy package for editing.

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Questions 7

Which authentication scheme requires a user to possess a token?

Options:

A.

TACACS

B.

SecurID

C.

Check Point password

D.

RADIUS

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Questions 8

Administrator wishes to update IPS from SmartConsole by clicking on the option “update now” under the IPS tab. Which device requires internet access for the update to work?

Options:

A.

Security Gateway

B.

Device where SmartConsole is installed

C.

SMS

D.

SmartEvent

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Questions 9

Which of the following is NOT an element of VPN Simplified Mode and VPN Communities?

Options:

A.

“Encrypt” action in the Rule Base

B.

Permanent Tunnels

C.

“VPN” column in the Rule Base

D.

Configuration checkbox “Accept all encrypted traffic”

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Questions 10

Fill in the blank: RADIUS Accounting gets ______ data from requests generated by the accounting client

Options:

A.

Destination

B.

Identity

C.

Payload

D.

Location

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Questions 11

Fill in the blank: A _______ is used by a VPN gateway to send traffic as if it were a physical interface.

Options:

A.

VPN Tunnel Interface

B.

VPN community

C.

VPN router

D.

VPN interface

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Questions 12

Which type of Endpoint Identity Agent includes packet tagging and computer authentication?

Options:

A.

Full

B.

Light

C.

Custom

D.

Complete

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Questions 13

John Adams is an HR partner in the ACME organization. ACME IT wants to limit access to HR servers to designated IP addresses to minimize malware infection and unauthorized access risks. Thus, the gateway policy permits access only from John's desktop which is assigned a static IP address 10.0.0.19.

John received a laptop and wants to access the HR Web Server from anywhere in the organization. The IT department gave the laptop a static IP address, but that limits him to operating it only from his desk. The current Rule Base contains a rule that lets John Adams access the HR Web Server from his desktop with a static IP (10.0.0.19). He wants to move around the organization and continue to have access to the HR Web Server.

To make this scenario work, the IT administrator:

1) Enables Identity Awareness on a gateway, selects AD Query as one of the Identity Sources installs the policy.

2) Adds an access role object to the Firewall Rule Base that lets John Adams PC access the HR Web Server from any machine and from any location.

3) Changes from static IP address to DHCP for the client PC.

What should John request when he cannot access the web server from his laptop?

Options:

A.

John should lock and unlock his computer

B.

Investigate this as a network connectivity issue

C.

The access should be changed to authenticate the user instead of the PC

D.

John should install the Identity Awareness Agent

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Questions 14

To fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher on a Security Gateway:

Options:

A.

run fw ctl multik set_mode 9 in Expert mode and then reboot

B.

Using cpconfig, update the Dynamic Dispatcher value to “full” under the CoreXL menu

C.

Edit /proc/interrupts to include multik set_mode 1 at the bottom of the file, save, and reboot

D.

run fw ctl multik set_mode 1 in Expert mode and then reboot

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Questions 15

Which of the following authentication methods can be configured in the Identity Awareness setup wizard?

Options:

A.

Check Point Password

B.

TACACS

C.

LDAP

D.

Windows password

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Questions 16

The system administrator of a company is trying to find out why acceleration is not working for the traffic. The traffic is allowed according to the rule base and checked for viruses. But it is not accelerated. What is the most likely reason that the traffic is not accelerated?

Options:

A.

There is a virus found. Traffic is still allowed but not accelerated

B.

The connection required a Security server

C.

Acceleration is not enabled

D.

The traffic is originating from the gateway itself

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Questions 17

The WebUI offers three methods for downloading Hotfixes via CPUSE. One of them is Automatic method. How many times per day will CPUSE agent check for hotfixes and automatically download them?

Options:

A.

Six times per day

B.

Seven times per day

C.

Every two hours

D.

Every three hours

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Questions 18

What is the benefit of Manual NAT over Automatic NAT?

Options:

A.

If you create a new Security Policy, the Manual NAT rules will be transferred to this new policy

B.

There is no benefit since Automatic NAT has in any case higher priority over Manual NAT

C.

You have the full control about the priority of the NAT rules

D.

On IPSO and GAIA Gateways, it is handled in a Stateful manner

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Questions 19

What is the mechanism behind Threat Extraction?

Options:

A.

This is a new mechanism which extracts malicious files from a document to use it as a counter-attack against its sender

B.

This is a new mechanism which is able to collect malicious files out of any kind of file types to destroy it prior to sending it to the intended recipient

C.

This is a new mechanism to identify the IP address of the sender of malicious codes and to put it into the SAM database (Suspicious Activity Monitoring).

D.

Any active contents of a document, such as JavaScripts, macros and links will be removed from the document and forwarded to the intended recipient, which makes this solution very fast

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Questions 20

As a Security Administrator, you must refresh the Client Authentication authorized time-out every time a new user connection is authorized. How do you do this? Enable the Refreshable Timeout setting:

Options:

A.

in the user object's Authentication screen.

B.

in the Gateway object's Authentication screen.

C.

in the Limit tab of the Client Authentication Action Properties screen.

D.

in the Global Properties Authentication screen.

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Questions 21

Which of the following is NOT a valid option when configuring access for Captive Portal?

Options:

A.

From the Internet

B.

Through internal interfaces

C.

Through all interfaces

D.

According to the Firewall Policy

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Questions 22

Which of the following are available SmartConsole clients which can be installed from the R77 Windows CD? Read all answers and select the most complete and valid list.

Options:

A.

SmartView Tracker, SmartDashboard, CPINFO, SmartUpdate, SmartView Status

B.

SmartView Tracker, SmartDashboard, SmartLSM, SmartView Monitor

C.

SmartView Tracker, CPINFO, SmartUpdate

D.

Security Policy Editor, Log Viewer, Real Time Monitor GUI

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Questions 23

How do you configure an alert in SmartView Monitor?

Options:

A.

An alert cannot be configured in SmartView Monitor.

B.

By choosing the Gateway, and Configure Thresholds.

C.

By right-clicking on the Gateway, and selecting Properties.

D.

By right-clicking on the Gateway, and selecting System Information.

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Questions 24

Which of the following is NOT an option for internal network definition of Anti-spoofing?

Options:

A.

Specific – derived from a selected object

B.

Route-based – derived from gateway routing table

C.

Network defined by the interface IP and Net Mask

D.

Not-defined

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Questions 25

How would you deploy TE250X Check Point appliance just for email traffic and in-line mode without a Check Point Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

Install appliance TE250X on SpanPort on LAN switch in MTA mode

B.

Install appliance TE250X in standalone mode and setup MTA

C.

You can utilize only Check Point Cloud Services for this scenario

D.

It is not possible, always Check Point SGW is needed to forward emails to SandBlast appliance

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Questions 26

During the Check Point Stateful Inspection Process, for packets that do not pass Firewall Kernel Inspection and are rejected by the rule definition, packets are:

Options:

A.

Dropped without sending a negative acknowledgment

B.

Dropped without logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment

C.

Dropped with negative acknowledgment

D.

Dropped with logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment

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Questions 27

Where would an administrator enable Implied Rules logging?

Options:

A.

In Smart Log Rules View

B.

In SmartDashboard on each rule

C.

In Global Properties under Firewall

D.

In Global Properties under log and alert

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Questions 28

Vanessa is expecting a very important Security Report. The Document should be sent as an attachment via e-mail. An e-mail with Security_report.pdf file was delivered to her e-mail inbox. When she opened the PDF file, she noticed that the file is basically empty and only few lines of text are in it. The report is missing some graphs, tables and links. Which component of SandBlast protection is her company using on a Gateway?

Options:

A.

SandBlast Threat Emulation

B.

SandBlast Agent

C.

Check Point Protect

D.

SandBlast Threat Extraction

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Questions 29

If the first packet of an UDP session is rejected by a security policy, what does the firewall send to the client?

Options:

A.

Nothing

B.

TCP FIN

C.

TCP RST

D.

ICMP unreachable

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Questions 30

Where does the security administrator activate Identity Awareness within SmartDashboard?

Options:

A.

Gateway Object > General Properties

B.

Security Management Server > Identity Awareness

C.

Policy > Global Properties > Identity Awareness

D.

LDAP Server Object > General Properties

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Questions 31

Which component functions as the Internal Certificate Authority for R77?

Options:

A.

Security Gateway

B.

Management Server

C.

Policy Server

D.

SmartLSM

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Questions 32

Which of the following is NOT a back up method?

Options:

A.

Save backup

B.

System backup

C.

snapshot

D.

Migrate

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Questions 33

Which message indicates IKE Phase 2 has completed successfully?

Options:

A.

Quick Mode Complete

B.

Aggressive Mode Complete

C.

Main Mode Complete

D.

IKE Mode Complete

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Questions 34

When logging in for the first time to a Security management Server through SmartConsole, a fingerprint is saved to the:

Options:

A.

Security Management Server’s /home/.fgpt file and is available for future SmartConsole authentications.

B.

Windows registry is available for future Security Management Server authentications.

C.

There is no memory used for saving a fingerprint anyway.

D.

SmartConsole cache is available for future Security Management Server authentications.

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Questions 35

What protocol is specifically used for clustered environments?

Options:

A.

Clustered Protocol

B.

Synchronized Cluster Protocol

C.

Control Cluster Protocol

D.

Cluster Control Protocol

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Questions 36

Which of the following is NOT a valid application navigation tab in the R80 SmartConsole?

Options:

A.

Manage and Command Line

B.

Logs and Monitor

C.

Security Policies

D.

Gateway and Servers

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Questions 37

Which two of these Check Point Protocols are used by ?

Options:

A.

ELA and CPD

B.

FWD and LEA

C.

FWD and CPLOG

D.

ELA and CPLOG

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Questions 38

The default method for destination NAT is _____________, where NAT occurs on the Inbound interface closest to the client.

Options:

A.

Destination side

B.

Source side

C.

Server side

D.

Client side

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Questions 39

Which of these components does NOT require a Security Gateway R77 license?

Options:

A.

Security Management Server

B.

Check Point Gateway

C.

SmartConsole

D.

SmartUpdate upgrading/patching

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Questions 40

Choose what BEST describes users on Gaia Platform.

Options:

A.

There is one default user that cannot be deleted.

B.

There are two default users and one cannot be deleted.

C.

There is one default user that can be deleted.

D.

There are two default users that cannot be deleted and one SmartConsole Administrator.

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Questions 41

Fill in the blank: The _________ software blade enables Application Security policies to allow, block, or limit website access based on user, group, and machine identities.

Options:

A.

Application Control

B.

Data Awareness

C.

URL Filtering

D.

Threat Emulation

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Questions 42

Which of the following licenses are considered temporary?

Options:

A.

Perpetual and Trial

B.

Plug-and-play and Evaluation

C.

Subscription and Perpetual

D.

Evaluation and Subscription

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Questions 43

You installed Security Management Server on a computer using GAiA in the MegaCorp home office. You use IP address 10.1.1.1. You also installed the Security Gateway on a second GAiA computer, which you plan to ship to another Administrator at a MegaCorp hub office. What is the correct order for pushing SIC certificates to the Gateway before shipping it?

1. Run cpconfig on the Gateway, select Secure Internal Communication, enter the activation key, and reconfirm.

2. Initialize Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) on the Security Management Server.

3. Configure the Gateway object with the host name and IP addresses for the remote site.

4. Click the Communication button in the Gateway object's General screen, enter the activation key, and click Initialize and OK.

5. Install the Security Policy.

Options:

A.

2, 3, 4, 1, 5

B.

2, 1, 3, 4, 5

C.

1, 3, 2, 4, 5

D.

2, 3, 4, 5, 1

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Questions 44

Which of the following is NOT defined by an Access Role object?

Options:

A.

Source Network

B.

Source Machine

C.

Source User

D.

Source Server

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Questions 45

What is Consolidation Policy?

Options:

A.

The collective name of the Security Policy, Address Translation, and IPS Policies.

B.

The specific Policy written in SmartDashboard to configure which log data is stored in the SmartReporter database.

C.

The collective name of the logs generated by SmartReporter.

D.

A global Policy used to share a common enforcement policy for multiple Security Gateways.

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Questions 46

Which of the following is NOT a tracking log option in R80.x?

Options:

A.

Log

B.

Full Log

C.

Detailed Log

D.

Extended Log

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Questions 47

When should you generate new licenses?

Options:

A.

Before installing contract files.

B.

After a device upgrade.

C.

When the existing license expires, license is upgraded or the IP-address associated with the license changes.

D.

Only when the license is upgraded.

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Questions 48

You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp with an R80 Check Point estate. You have received a call by one of the management users stating that they are unable to browse the Internet with their new tablet connected to the company Wireless. The Wireless system goes through the Check Point Gateway. How do you review the logs to see what the problem may be?

Options:

A.

Open SmartLog and connect remotely to the IP of the wireless controller

B.

Open SmartView Tracker and filter the logs for the IP address of the tablet

C.

Open SmartView Tracker and check all the IP logs for the tablet

D.

Open SmartLog and query for the IP address of the Manager’s tablet

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Questions 49

After the initial installation on Check Point appliance, you notice that the Management interface and default gateway are incorrect. Which commands could you use to set the IP to 192.168.80.200/24 and default gateway to 192.168.80.1.

Options:

A.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24set static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config

B.

add interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0add static-route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config

C.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0add static-route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config

D.

add interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24add static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config

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Questions 50

Which of the following is an authentication method used for Identity Awareness?

Options:

A.

SSL

B.

Captive Portal

C.

PKI

D.

RSA

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Questions 51

John is using Management HA. Which Smartcenter should be connected to for making changes?

Options:

A.

secondary Smartcenter

B.

active Smartcenter

C.

connect virtual IP of Smartcenter HA

D.

primary Smartcenter

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Questions 52

Fill in the blank: The position of an implied rule is manipulated in the __________________ window.

Options:

A.

NAT

B.

Firewall

C.

Global Properties

D.

Object Explorer

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Questions 53

Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the traffic direction?

Options:

A.

Incoming

B.

Internal

C.

External

D.

Outgoing

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Questions 54

SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?

Options:

A.

Smart Cloud Services

B.

Load Sharing Mode Services

C.

Threat Agent Solution

D.

Public Cloud Services

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Questions 55

Fill in the blank: It is Best Practice to have a _____ rule at the end of each policy layer.

Options:

A.

Explicit Drop

B.

Implied Drop

C.

Explicit CleanUp

D.

Implicit Drop

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Questions 56

Which SmartConsole tab is used to monitor network and security performance?

Options:

A.

Manage & Settings

B.

Security Policies

C.

Gateway & Servers

D.

Logs & Monitor

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Questions 57

Which VPN routing option uses VPN routing for every connection a satellite gateway handles?

Options:

A.

To satellites through center only

B.

To center only

C.

To center and to other satellites through center

D.

To center, or through the center to other satellites, to internet and other VPN targets

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Questions 58

Which utility allows you to configure the DHCP service on GAIA from the command line?

Options:

A.

ifconfig

B.

dhcp_cfg

C.

sysconfig

D.

cpconfig

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Questions 59

Which of the following commands can be used to remove site-to-site IPSEC Security Associations (SA)?

Options:

A.

vpn tu

B.

vpn ipsec remove -l

C.

vpn debug ipsec

D.

fw ipsec tu

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Questions 60

What is the default shell for the command line interface?

Options:

A.

Expert

B.

Clish

C.

Admin

D.

Normal

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Questions 61

You can see the following graphic:

What is presented on it?

Options:

A.

Properties of personal .p12 certificate file issued for user John.

B.

Shared secret properties of John’s password.

C.

VPN certificate properties of the John’s gateway.

D.

Expired .p12 certificate properties for user John.

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Questions 62

At what point is the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) created?

Options:

A.

Upon creation of a certificate

B.

During the primary Security Management Server installation process.

C.

When an administrator decides to create one.

D.

When an administrator initially logs into SmartConsole.

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Questions 63

Vanessa is a Firewall administrator. She wants to test a backup of her company’s production Firewall cluster Dallas_GW. She has a lab environment that is identical to her production environment. She decided to restore production backup via SmartConsole in lab environment. Which details she need to fill in System Restore window before she can click OK button and test the backup?

Options:

A.

Server, SCP, Username, Password, Path, Comment, Member

B.

Server, TFTP, Username, Password, Path, Comment, All Members

C.

Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Path, Comment, All Members

D.

Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Path, Comment, Member

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Questions 64

You want to define a selected administrator's permission to edit a layer. However, when you click the + sign in the “Select additional profile that will be able edit this layer” you do not see anything. What is the most likely cause of this problem? Select the BEST answer.

Options:

A.

“Edit layers by Software Blades” is unselected in the Permission Profile

B.

There are no permission profiles available and you need to create one first.

C.

All permission profiles are in use.

D.

“Edit layers by selected profiles in a layer editor” is unselected in the Permission profile.

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Questions 65

Which of the following is NOT an authentication scheme used for accounts created through SmartConsole?

Options:

A.

Security questions

B.

Check Point password

C.

SecurID

D.

RADIUS

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Questions 66

ABC Corp., and have recently returned from a training course on Check Point's new advanced R80 management platform. You are presenting an in-house R80 Management to the other administrators in ABC Corp.

How will you describe the new “Publish” button in R80 Management Console?

Options:

A.

The Publish button takes any changes an administrator has made in their management session, publishes a copy to the Check Point of R80, and then saves it to the R80 database.

B.

The Publish button takes any changes an administrator has made in their management session and publishes a copy to the Check Point Cloud of R80 and but does not save it to the R80

C.

The Publish button makes any changes an administrator has made in their management session visible to all other administrator sessions and saves it to the Database.

D.

The Publish button makes any changes an administrator has made in their management session visible to the new Unified Policy session and saves it to the Database.

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Questions 67

What are the two types of address translation rules?

Options:

A.

Translated packet and untranslated packet

B.

Untranslated packet and manipulated packet

C.

Manipulated packet and original packet

D.

Original packet and translated packet

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Questions 68

Fill in the blank: To build an effective Security Policy, use a ________ and _______ rule.

Options:

A.

Cleanup; stealth

B.

Stealth; implicit

C.

Cleanup; default

D.

Implicit; explicit

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Questions 69

Which pre-defined Permission Profile should be assigned to an administrator that requires full access to audit all configurations without modifying them?

Options:

A.

Auditor

B.

Read Only All

C.

Super User

D.

Full Access

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Questions 70

You are the administrator for Alpha Corp. You have logged into your R80 Management server. You are making some changes in the Rule Base and notice that rule No.6 has a pencil icon next to it.

What does this mean?

Options:

A.

The rule No.6 has been marked for deletion in your Management session.

B.

The rule No.6 has been marked for deletion in another Management session.

C.

The rule No.6 has been marked for editing in your Management session.

D.

The rule No.6 has been marked for editing in another Management session.

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Questions 71

The Gaia operating system supports which routing protocols?

Options:

A.

BGP, OSPF, RIP

B.

BGP, OSPF, EIGRP, PIM, IGMP

C.

BGP, OSPF, RIP, PIM, IGMP

D.

BGP, OSPF, RIP, EIGRP

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Questions 72

Fill in the blanks: The _________ collects logs and sends them to the _________ .

Options:

A.

Log server; security management server

B.

Log server; Security Gateway

C.

Security management server; Security Gateway

D.

Security Gateways; log server

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Questions 73

Which Check Point feature enables application scanning and the detection?

Options:

A.

Application Dictionary

B.

AppWiki

C.

Application Library

D.

CPApp

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Questions 74

Fill in the blank: With the User Directory Software Blade, you can create R80 user definitions on a(an) ___________ Server.

Options:

A.

NT domain

B.

SMTP

C.

LDAP

D.

SecurID

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Questions 75

DLP and Geo Policy are examples of what type of Policy?

Options:

A.

Standard Policies

B.

Shared Policies

C.

Inspection Policies

D.

Unified Policies

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Questions 76

Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores that information in state tables?

Options:

A.

INSPECT Engine

B.

Stateful Inspection

C.

Packet Filtering

D.

Application Layer Firewall

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Questions 77

Which of the following is NOT a license activation method?

Options:

A.

SmartConsole Wizard

B.

Online Activation

C.

License Activation Wizard

D.

Offline Activation

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Questions 78

Choose the Best place to find a Security Management Server backup file named backup_fw, on a Check Point Appliance.

Options:

A.

/var/log/Cpbackup/backups/backup/backup_fw.tgs

B.

/var/log/Cpbackup/backups/backup/backup_fw.tar

C.

/var/log/Cpbackup/backups/backups/backup_fw.tar

D.

/var/log/Cpbackup/backups/backup_fw.tgz

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Status:
Expired
Exam Code: 156-215.80
Exam Name: Check Point Certified Security Administrator R80
Last Update: Apr 14, 2023
Questions: 525
$64  $159.99
$48  $119.99
$40  $99.99
buy now 156-215.80