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156-315.81 Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

You are investigating issues with to gateway cluster members are not able to establish the first initial cluster synchronization. What service is used by the FWD daemon to do a Full Synchronization?

Options:

A.

TCP port 443

B.

TCP port 257

C.

TCP port 256

D.

UDP port 8116

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Questions 5

What is considered Hybrid Emulation Mode?

Options:

A.

Manual configuration of file types on emulation location.

B.

Load sharing of emulation between an on premise appliance and the cloud.

C.

Load sharing between OS behavior and CPU Level emulation.

D.

High availability between the local SandBlast appliance and the cloud.

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Questions 6

SandBlast appliances can be deployed in the following modes:

Options:

A.

using a SPAN port to receive a copy of the traffic only

B.

detect only

C.

inline/prevent or detect

D.

as a Mail Transfer Agent and as part of the traffic flow only

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Questions 7

John detected high load on sync interface. Which is most recommended solution?

Options:

A.

For short connections like http service – delay sync for 2 seconds

B.

Add a second interface to handle sync traffic

C.

For short connections like http service – do not sync

D.

For short connections like icmp service – delay sync for 2 seconds

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Questions 8

What is a best practice before starting to troubleshoot using the “fw monitor” tool?

Options:

A.

Run the command: fw monitor debug on

B.

Clear the connections table

C.

Disable CoreXL

D.

Disable SecureXL

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Questions 9

In the Check Point Firewall Kernel Module, each Kernel is associated with a key, which specifies the type of traffic applicable to the chain module. For Wire Mode configuration, chain modules marked with ____________ will not apply.

Options:

A.

ffff

B.

1

C.

2

D.

3

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Questions 10

What is the command to check the status of the SmartEvent Correlation Unit?

Options:

A.

fw ctl get int cpsead_stat

B.

cpstat cpsead

C.

fw ctl stat cpsemd

D.

cp_conf get_stat cpsemd

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Questions 11

To enable Dynamic Dispatch on Security Gateway without the Firewall Priority Queues, run the following command in Expert mode and reboot:

Options:

A.

fw ctl Dyn_Dispatch on

B.

fw ctl Dyn_Dispatch enable

C.

fw ctl multik set_mode 4

D.

fw ctl multik set_mode 1

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Questions 12

To add a file to the Threat Prevention Whitelist, what two items are needed?

Options:

A.

File name and Gateway

B.

Object Name and MD5 signature

C.

MD5 signature and Gateway

D.

IP address of Management Server and Gateway

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Questions 13

Both ClusterXL and VRRP are fully supported by Gaia R81.10 and available to all Check Point appliances. Which the following command is NOT related to redundancy and functions?

Options:

A.

cphaprob stat

B.

cphaprob –a if

C.

cphaprob –l list

D.

cphaprob all show stat

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Questions 14

Which one of the following is true about Capsule Connect?

Options:

A.

It is a full layer 3 VPN client

B.

It offers full enterprise mobility management

C.

It is supported only on iOS phones and Windows PCs

D.

It does not support all VPN authentication methods

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Questions 15

Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?

Options:

A.

Detect threats and provides a detailed report of discovered threats.

B.

Proactively detects threats.

C.

Delivers file with original content.

D.

Delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed.

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Questions 16

Which Check Point daemon monitors the other daemons?

Options:

A.

fwm

B.

cpd

C.

cpwd

D.

fwssd

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Questions 17

SmartEvent does NOT use which of the following procedures to identify events:

Options:

A.

Matching a log against each event definition

B.

Create an event candidate

C.

Matching a log against local exclusions

D.

Matching a log against global exclusions

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Questions 18

Which one of the following is true about Threat Emulation?

Options:

A.

Takes less than a second to complete

B.

Works on MS Office and PDF files only

C.

Always delivers a file

D.

Takes minutes to complete (less than 3 minutes)

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Questions 19

From SecureXL perspective, what are the tree paths of traffic flow:

Options:

A.

Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path

B.

Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path

C.

Firewall Path; Accept Path; Drop Path

D.

Firewall Path; Accelerated Path; Medium Path

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Questions 20

What are the two types of tests when using the Compliance blade?

Options:

A.

Policy-based tests and Global properties

B.

Global tests and Object-based tests

C.

Access Control policy analysis and Threat Prevention policy analysis

D.

Tests conducted based on the loC XMfcfile and analysis of SOLR documents

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Questions 21

What is the benefit of Manual NAT over Automatic NAT?

Options:

A.

If you create a new Security Policy, the Manual NAT rules will be transferred to this new policy.

B.

There is no benefit since Automatic NAT has in any case higher priority over Manual NAT

C.

You have the full control about the priority of the NAT rules

D.

On IPSO and GAIA Gateways, it is handled in a stateful manner

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Questions 22

What level of CPU load on a Secure Network Distributor would indicate that another may be necessary?

Options:

A.

Idle <20%

B.

USR <20%

C.

SYS <20%

D.

Wait <20%

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Questions 23

Check Point Support in many cases asks you for a configuration summary of your Check Point system. This is also called:

Options:

A.

cpexport

B.

sysinfo

C.

cpsizeme

D.

cpinfo

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Questions 24

What are the two ClusterXL Deployment options?

Options:

A.

Distributed and Full High Availability

B.

Broadcast and Multicast Mode

C.

Distributed and Standalone

D.

Unicast and Multicast Mode

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Questions 25

What destination versions are supported for a Multi-Version Cluster Upgrade?

Options:

A.

R81.40 and later

B.

R76 and later

C.

R70 and Later

D.

R81.10 and Later

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Questions 26

When running a query on your logs, to find records for user Toni with machine IP of 10.0.4.210 but exclude her tablet IP of 10.0.4.76, which of the following query syntax would you use?

Options:

A.

Toni? AND 10.0.4.210 NOT 10.0.4.76

B.

To** AND 10.0.4.210 NOT 10.0.4.76

C.

Ton* AND 10.0.4.210 NOT 10.0.4.75

D.

"Toni" AND 10.0.4.210 NOT 10.0.4.76

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Questions 27

Alice & Bob are going to deploy Management Data Plane Separation (MDPS) for all their Check Point Security Gateway(s)/Cluster(s). Which of the following statement is true?

Options:

A.

Each network environment is dependent and includes interfaces, routes, sockets, and processes

B.

Management Plane – To access, provision and monitor the Security Gateway

C.

Data Plane – To access, provision and monitor the Security Gateway

D.

Management Plane – for all other network traffic and processing

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Questions 28

Which command will reset the kernel debug options to default settings?

Options:

A.

fw ctl dbg -a 0

B.

fw ctl dbg resetall

C.

fw ctl debug 0

D.

fw ctl debug set 0

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Questions 29

Which Check Point process provides logging services, such as forwarding logs from Gateway to Log Server, providing Log Export API (LEA) & Event Logging API (EL-A) services.

Options:

A.

DASSERVICE

B.

FWD

C.

CPVIEWD

D.

CPD

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Questions 30

Which process handles connection from SmartConsole R81?

Options:

A.

fwm

B.

cpmd

C.

cpm

D.

cpd

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Questions 31

Installations and upgrades with CPUSE require that the CPUSE agent is up-to-date. Usually the latest build is downloaded automatically. How can you verify the CPUSE agent build?

Options:

A.

In WebUI Status and Actions page or by running the following command in CLISH: show installer status build

B.

In WebUI Status and Actions page or by running the following command in CLISH: show installer status version

C.

In the Management Server or Gateway object in SmartConsole or by running the following command in CLISH: show installer status build

D.

In the Management Server or Gateway object in SmartConsole or by running the following command in CLISH: show installer agent

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Questions 32

View the rule below. What does the lock-symbol in the left column mean? (Choose the BEST answer.)

Options:

A.

The current administrator has read-only permissions to Threat Prevention Policy.

B.

Another user has locked the rule for editing.

C.

Configuration lock is present. Click the lock symbol to gain read-write access.

D.

The current administrator is logged in as read-only because someone else is editing the policy.

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Questions 33

Which process is used mainly for backward compatibility of gateways in R81.X? It provides communication with GUI-client, database manipulation, policy compilation and Management HA synchronization.

Options:

A.

cpm

B.

fwd

C.

cpd

D.

fwm

D18912E1457D5D1DDCBD40AB3BF70D5D

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Questions 34

What is a possible command to delete all of the SSH connections of a gateway?

Options:

A.

fw sam -I dport 22

B.

fw ctl conntab -x -dpott=22

C.

fw tab -t connections -x -e 00000016

D.

fwaccel dos config set dport ssh

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Questions 35

What is the default shell for the command line interface?

Options:

A.

Expert

B.

Clish

C.

Admin

D.

Normal

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Questions 36

After having saved the Clish Configuration with the "save configuration config.txt" command, where can you find the config.txt file?

Options:

A.

You will find it in the home directory of your user account (e.g. /home/admin/)

B.

You can locate the file via SmartConsole > Command Line.

C.

You have to launch the WebUI and go to "Config" -> "Export Config File" and specifiy the destination directory of your local file system.

D.

You cannot locate the file in the file system since Clish does not have any access to the bash file system

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Questions 37

What solution is multi-queue intended to provide?

Options:

A.

Improve the efficiency of traffic handling by SecureXL SNDs

B.

Reduce the confusion for traffic capturing in FW Monitor

C.

Improve the efficiency of CoreXL Kernel Instances

D.

Reduce the performance of network interfaces

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Questions 38

Which feature is NOT provided by all Check Point Mobile Access solutions?

Options:

A.

Support for IPv6

B.

Granular access control

C.

Strong user authentication

D.

Secure connectivity

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Questions 39

Which command lists firewall chain?

Options:

A.

fwctl chain

B.

fw list chain

C.

fw chain module

D.

fw tab -t chainmod

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Questions 40

In which VPN community is a satellite VPN gateway not allowed to create a VPN tunnel with another satellite VPN gateway?

Options:

A.

Pentagon

B.

Combined

C.

Meshed

D.

Star

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Questions 41

Packet acceleration (SecureXL) identifies connections by several attributes. Which of the attributes is NOT used for identifying connection?

Options:

A.

Source Address

B.

Destination Address

C.

TCP Acknowledgment Number

D.

Source Port

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Questions 42

According to out of the box SmartEvent policy, which blade will automatically be correlated into events?

Options:

A.

Firewall

B.

VPN

C.

IPS

D.

HTTPS

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Questions 43

What is the purpose of the command "ps aux | grep twd"?

Options:

A.

You can check the Process ID and the processing time of the twd process.

B.

You can convert the log file into Post Script format.

C.

You can list all Process IDs for all running services.

D.

You can check whether the IPS default setting is set to Detect or Prevent mode

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Questions 44

John detected high load on sync interface. Which is most recommended solution?

Options:

A.

For FTP connections – do not sync

B.

Add a second interface to handle sync traffic

C.

For short connections like http service – do not sync

D.

For short connections like icmp service – delay sync for 2 seconds

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Questions 45

Aaron is a Syber Security Engineer working for Global Law Firm with large scale deployment of Check Point Enterprise Appliances running GAiA R81.X The Network Security Developer Team is having an issue testing the API with a newly deployed R81.X Security Management Server Aaron wants to confirm API services are working properly. What should he do first?

Options:

A.

Aaron should check API Server status with "fwm api status" from Expert mode If services are stopped, he should start them with "fwm api start".

B.

Aaron should check API Server status with "cpapi status" from Expert mode. If services are stopped, he should start them with "cpapi start"

C.

Aaron should check API Server status with "api status" from Expert mode If services are stopped, he should start them with "api start"

D.

Aaron should check API Server status with "cpm api status" from Expert mode. If services are stopped, he should start them with "cpi api start".

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Questions 46

What is the recommended way to have a redundant Sync connection between the cluster nodes?

Options:

A.

In the SmartConsole / Gateways & Servers -> select Cluster Properties / Network Management and define two Sync interfaces per node. Connect both Sync interfaces

without using a switch.

B.

Use a group of bonded interfaces. In the SmartConsole / Gateways & Servers -> select Cluster Properties / Network Management and define a Virtual IP for the Sync

interface.

C.

In the SmartConsole / Gateways & Servers -> select Cluster Properties / Network Management and define two Sync interfaces per node. Use two different Switches to

connect both Sync interfaces.

D.

Use a group of bonded interfaces connected to different switches. Define a dedicated sync interface, only one interface per node using the SmartConsole / Gateways &

Servers -> select Cluster Properties / Network Management.

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Questions 47

In terms of Order Rule Enforcement, when a packet arrives at the gateway, the gateway checks it against the rules in the top Policy Layer, sequentially from top to bottom Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

If the Action of the matching rule is Accept the gateway will drop the packet

B.

If the Action of the matching rule is Drop, the gateway continues to check rules in the next Policy Layer down

C.

If the Action of the matching rule is Drop the gateway stops matching against later rules in the Policy Rule Base and drops the packet

D.

If the rule does not match in the Network policy it will continue to other enabled polices

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Questions 48

What is the amount of Priority Queues by default?

Options:

A.

There are 8 priority queues and this number cannot be changed.

B.

There is no distinct number of queues since it will be changed in a regular basis based on its system requirements.

C.

There are 7 priority queues by default and this number cannot be changed.

D.

There are 8 priority queues by default, and up to 8 additional queues can be manually configured

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Questions 49

Which VPN routing option uses VPN routing for every connection a satellite gateway handles?

Options:

A.

To satellites through center only

B.

To center only

C.

To center and to other satellites through center

D.

To center, or through the center to other satellites, to Internet and other VPN targets

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Questions 50

Due to high CPU workload on the Security Gateway, the security administrator decided to purchase a new multicore CPU to replace the existing single core CPU. After installation, is the administrator required to perform any additional tasks?

Options:

A.

Run cprestart from clish

B.

After upgrading the hardware, increase the number of kernel instances using cpconfig

C.

Administrator does not need to perform any task. Check Point will make use of the newly installed CPU and Cores

D.

Hyperthreading must be enabled in the bios to use CoreXL

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Questions 51

Which software blade does NOT accompany the Threat Prevention policy?

Options:

A.

Anti-virus

B.

IPS

C.

Threat Emulation

D.

Application Control and URL Filtering

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Questions 52

According to the policy installation flow the transfer state (CPTA) is responsible for the code generated by the FWM. On the Security Gateway side a process receives them and first stores them Into a temporary directory. Which process is true for receiving these Tiles;

Options:

A.

FWD

B.

CPD

C.

FWM

D.

RAD

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Questions 53

Which 3 types of tracking are available for Threat Prevention Policy?

Options:

A.

SMS Alert, Log, SNMP alert

B.

Syslog, None, User-defined scripts

C.

None, Log, Syslog

D.

Alert, SNMP trap, Mail

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Questions 54

What is false regarding a Management HA environment?

Options:

A.

Only one Management Server should be active, while any others be in standby mode

B.

It is not necessary to establish SIC between the primary and secondary management server, since the latter gets the exact same copy of the management database from the prior.

C.

SmartConsole can connect to any management server in Readonly mode.

D.

Synchronization will occur automatically with each Publish event if the Standby servers are available.

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Questions 55

What traffic does the Anti-bot feature block?

Options:

A.

Command and Control traffic from hosts that have been identified as infected

B.

Command and Control traffic to servers with reputation for hosting malware

C.

Network traffic that is directed to unknown or malicious servers

D.

Network traffic to hosts that have been identified as infected

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Questions 56

Which of the following is NOT an attribute of packet acceleration?

Options:

A.

Source address

B.

Protocol

C.

Destination port

D.

VLAN Tag

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Questions 57

Choose the correct syntax to add a new host named “emailserver1” with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA Management CLI?

Options:

A.

mgmt_cli add host name “myHost12 ip” address 10.50.23.90

B.

mgmt_cli add host name ip-address 10.50.23.90

C.

mgmt_cli add host “emailserver1” address 10.50.23.90

D.

mgmt_cli add host name “emailserver1” ip-address 10.50.23.90

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Questions 58

The customer has about 150 remote access user with a Windows laptops. Not more than 50 Clients will be connected at the same time. The customer want to use multiple VPN Gateways as entry point and a personal firewall. What will be the best license for him?

Options:

A.

He will need Capsule Connect using MEP (multiple entry points).

B.

Because the customer uses only Windows clients SecuRemote will be sufficient and no additional license is needed

C.

He will need Harmony Endpoint because of the personal firewall.

D.

Mobile Access license because he needs only a 50 user license, license count is per concurrent user.

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Questions 59

What is the main objective when using Application Control?

Options:

A.

To filter out specific content.

B.

To assist the firewall blade with handling traffic.

C.

To see what users are doing.

D.

Ensure security and privacy of information.

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Questions 60

What API command below creates a new host object with the name "My Host" and IP address of "192 168 0 10"?

Options:

A.

set host name "My Host" ip-address "192.168.0.10"

B.

new host name "My Host" ip-address "192 168.0.10"

C.

create host name "My Host" ip-address "192.168 0.10"

D.

mgmt.cli -m add host name "My Host" ip-address "192.168.0 10"

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Questions 61

What is required for a site-to-site VPN tunnel that does not use certificates?

Options:

A.

Pre-Shared Secret

B.

RSA Token

C.

Unique Passwords

D.

SecurelD

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Questions 62

Alice & Bob are concurrently logged In via SSH on the same Check Point Security Gateway as user "admin* however Bob was first logged in and acquired the lock Alice Is not aware that Bob is also togged in to the same Security Management Server as she is but she needs to perform very urgent configuration changes - which of the following GAlAclish command is true for overriding Bobs configuration database lock:

Options:

A.

lock database override

B.

unlock override database

C.

unlock database override

D.

database unlock override

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Questions 63

Which Operating Systems are supported for the Endpoint Security VPN?

Options:

A.

Windows and x86 Solaris

B.

Windows and macOS computers

C.

Windows and SPARC Solaris

D.

Windows and Red Hat Linux

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Questions 64

Which Mobile Access Application allows a secure container on Mobile devices to give users access to internal website, file share and emails?

Options:

A.

Check Point Remote User

B.

Check Point Capsule Workspace

C.

Check Point Mobile Web Portal

D.

Check Point Capsule Remote

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Questions 65

Fill in the blank: The command ___________________ provides the most complete restoration of a R81 configuration.

Options:

A.

upgrade_import

B.

cpconfig

C.

fwm dbimport -p

D.

cpinfo –recover

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Questions 66

In R81 spoofing is defined as a method of:

Options:

A.

Disguising an illegal IP address behind an authorized IP address through Port Address Translation.

B.

Hiding your firewall from unauthorized users.

C.

Detecting people using false or wrong authentication logins

D.

Making packets appear as if they come from an authorized IP address.

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Questions 67

Tom has been tasked to install Check Point R81 in a distributed deployment. Before Tom installs the systems this way, how many machines will he need if he does NOT include a SmartConsole machine in his calculations?

Options:

A.

One machine, but it needs to be installed using SecurePlatform for compatibility purposes.

B.

One machine

C.

Two machines

D.

Three machines

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Questions 68

Which statement is correct about the Sticky Decision Function?

Options:

A.

It is not supported with either the Performance pack of a hardware based accelerator card

B.

Does not support SPI’s when configured for Load Sharing

C.

It is automatically disabled if the Mobile Access Software Blade is enabled on the cluster

D.

It is not required L2TP traffic

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Questions 69

What happen when IPS profile is set in Detect Only Mode for troubleshooting?

Options:

A.

It will generate Geo-Protection traffic

B.

Automatically uploads debugging logs to Check Point Support Center

C.

It will not block malicious traffic

D.

Bypass licenses requirement for Geo-Protection control

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Questions 70

Fill in the blank: The R81 feature _____ permits blocking specific IP addresses for a specified time period.

Options:

A.

Block Port Overflow

B.

Local Interface Spoofing

C.

Suspicious Activity Monitoring

D.

Adaptive Threat Prevention

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Questions 71

If you needed the Multicast MAC address of a cluster, what command would you run?

Options:

A.

cphaprob –a if

B.

cphaconf ccp multicast

C.

cphaconf debug data

D.

cphaprob igmp

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Questions 72

How many images are included with Check Point TE appliance in Recommended Mode?

Options:

A.

2(OS) images

B.

images are chosen by administrator during installation

C.

as many as licensed for

D.

the newest image

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Questions 73

Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent which of the following? Assume you set up an Active-Active cluster.

Options:

A.

Symmetric routing

B.

Failovers

C.

Asymmetric routing

D.

Anti-Spoofing

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Questions 74

CoreXL is supported when one of the following features is enabled:

Options:

A.

Route-based VPN

B.

IPS

C.

IPv6

D.

Overlapping NAT

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Questions 75

GAiA Software update packages can be imported and installed offline in situation where:

Options:

A.

Security Gateway with GAiA does NOT have SFTP access to Internet

B.

Security Gateway with GAiA does NOT have access to Internet.

C.

Security Gateway with GAiA does NOT have SSH access to Internet.

D.

The desired CPUSE package is ONLY available in the Check Point CLOUD.

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Questions 76

Check Point recommends configuring Disk Space Management parameters to delete old log entries when available disk space is less than or equal to?

Options:

A.

50%

B.

75%

C.

80%

D.

15%

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Questions 77

In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log. Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?

Options:

A.

Accounting

B.

Suppression

C.

Accounting/Suppression

D.

Accounting/Extended

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Questions 78

Fill in the blank: Identity Awareness AD-Query is using the Microsoft _______________ API to learn users from AD.

Options:

A.

WMI

B.

Eventvwr

C.

XML

D.

Services.msc

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Questions 79

Which of the following Windows Security Events will not map a username to an IP address in Identity Awareness?

Options:

A.

Kerberos Ticket Renewed

B.

Kerberos Ticket Requested

C.

Account Logon

D.

Kerberos Ticket Timed Out

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Questions 80

Which is not a blade option when configuring SmartEvent?

Options:

A.

Correlation Unit

B.

SmartEvent Unit

C.

SmartEvent Server

D.

Log Server

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Questions 81

In the Check Point Firewall Kernel Module, each Kernel is associated with a key, which specifies the type of traffic applicable to the chain module. For Stateful Mode configuration, chain modules marked with __________________ will not apply.

Options:

A.

ffff

B.

1

C.

3

D.

2

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Questions 82

What key is used to save the current CPView page in a filename format cpview_”cpview process ID”.cap”number of captures”?

Options:

A.

S

B.

W

C.

C

D.

Space bar

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Questions 83

In what way is Secure Network Distributor (SND) a relevant feature of the Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

SND is a feature to accelerate multiple SSL VPN connections

B.

SND is an alternative to IPSec Main Mode, using only 3 packets

C.

SND is used to distribute packets among Firewall instances

D.

SND is a feature of fw monitor to capture accelerated packets

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Questions 84

What kind of information would you expect to see using the sim affinity command?

Options:

A.

The VMACs used in a Security Gateway cluster

B.

The involved firewall kernel modules in inbound and outbound packet chain

C.

Overview over SecureXL templated connections

D.

Network interfaces and core distribution used for CoreXL

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Questions 85

What is the recommended number of physical network interfaces in a Mobile Access cluster deployment?

Options:

A.

4 Interfaces – an interface leading to the organization, a second interface leading to the internet, a third interface for synchronization, a fourth interface leading to the Security Management Server.

B.

3 Interfaces – an interface leading to the organization, a second interface leading to the Internet, a third interface for synchronization.

C.

1 Interface – an interface leading to the organization and the Internet, and configure for synchronization.

D.

2 Interfaces – a data interface leading to the organization and the Internet, a second interface for synchronization.

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Questions 86

What will SmartEvent automatically define as events?

Options:

A.

Firewall

B.

VPN

C.

IPS

D.

HTTPS

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Questions 87

Which SmartConsole tab is used to monitor network and security performance?

Options:

A.

Manage Setting

B.

Security Policies

C.

Gateway and Servers

D.

Logs and Monitor

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Questions 88

What is the command to show SecureXL status?

Options:

A.

fwaccel status

B.

fwaccel stats -m

C.

fwaccel -s

D.

fwaccel stat

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Questions 89

Office mode means that:

Options:

A.

SecurID client assigns a routable MAC address. After the user authenticates for a tunnel, the VPN gateway assigns a routable IP address to the remote client.

B.

Users authenticate with an Internet browser and use secure HTTPS connection.

C.

Local ISP (Internet service Provider) assigns a non-routable IP address to the remote user.

D.

Allows a security gateway to assign a remote client an IP address. After the user authenticates for a tunnel, the VPN gateway assigns a routable IP address to the remote client.

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Questions 90

You notice that your firewall is under a DDoS attack and would like to enable the Penalty Box feature, which command you use?

Options:

A.

sim erdos –e 1

B.

sim erdos – m 1

C.

sim erdos –v 1

D.

sim erdos –x 1

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Questions 91

What is the order of NAT priorities?

Options:

A.

Static NAT, IP pool NAT, hide NAT

B.

IP pool NAT, static NAT, hide NAT

C.

Static NAT, automatic NAT, hide NAT

D.

Static NAT, hide NAT, IP pool NAT

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Questions 92

Which is NOT a SmartEvent component?

Options:

A.

SmartEvent Server

B.

Correlation Unit

C.

Log Consolidator

D.

Log Server

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Questions 93

Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?

Options:

A.

Slow path

B.

Firewall path

C.

Medium path

D.

Accelerated path

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Questions 94

Which of the following is NOT an alert option?

Options:

A.

SNMP

B.

High alert

C.

Mail

D.

User defined alert

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Questions 95

With SecureXL enabled, accelerated packets will pass through the following:

Options:

A.

Network Interface Card, OSI Network Layer, OS IP Stack, and the Acceleration Device

B.

Network Interface Card, Check Point Firewall Kernal, and the Acceleration Device

C.

Network Interface Card and the Acceleration Device

D.

Network Interface Card, OSI Network Layer, and the Acceleration Device

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Questions 96

What is not a purpose of the deployment of Check Point API?

Options:

A.

Execute an automated script to perform common tasks

B.

Create a customized GUI Client for manipulating the objects database

C.

Create products that use and enhance the Check Point solution

D.

Integrate Check Point products with 3rd party solution

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Questions 97

Fill in the blank: The R81 SmartConsole, SmartEvent GUI client, and _______ consolidate billions of logs and shows then as prioritized security events.

Options:

A.

SmartMonitor

B.

SmartView Web Application

C.

SmartReporter

D.

SmartTracker

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Questions 98

Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace both offer secured connection for remote users who are using their mobile devices. However, there are differences between the two.

Which of the following statements correctly identify each product's capabilities?

Options:

A.

Workspace supports ios operating system, Android, and WP8, whereas Connect supports ios operating system and Android only

B.

For compliance/host checking, Workspace offers the MDM cooperative enforcement, whereas Connect offers both jailbreak/root detection and MDM cooperative enforcement.

C.

For credential protection, Connect uses One-time Password login support and has no SSO support, whereas Workspace offers both One-Time Password and certain SSO login support.

D.

Workspace can support any application, whereas Connect has a limited number of application types which it will support.

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Questions 99

For best practices, what is the recommended time for automatic unlocking of locked admin accounts?

Options:

A.

20 minutes

B.

15 minutes

C.

Admin account cannot be unlocked automatically

D.

30 minutes at least

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Questions 100

SandBlast agent extends 0 day prevention to what part of the network?

Options:

A.

Web Browsers and user devices

B.

DMZ server

C.

Cloud

D.

Email servers

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Questions 101

What is UserCheck?

Options:

A.

Messaging tool used to verify a user’s credentials.

B.

Communication tool used to inform a user about a website or application they are trying to access.

C.

Administrator tool used to monitor users on their network.

D.

Communication tool used to notify an administrator when a new user is created.

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Questions 102

How many policy layers do Access Control policy support?

Options:

A.

2

B.

4

C.

1

D.

3

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Questions 103

What statement best describes the Proxy ARP feature for Manual NAT in R81.10?

Options:

A.

Automatic proxy ARP configuration can be enabled

B.

Translate Destination on Client Side should be configured

C.

fw ctl proxy should be configured

D.

local.arp file must always be configured

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Questions 104

The SmartEvent R81 Web application for real-time event monitoring is called:

Options:

A.

SmartView Monitor

B.

SmartEventWeb

C.

There is no Web application for SmartEvent

D.

SmartView

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Questions 105

Which file contains the host address to be published, the MAC address that needs to be associated with the IP Address, and the unique IP of the interface that responds to ARP request?

Options:

A.

/opt/CPshrd-R81/conf/local.arp

B.

/var/opt/CPshrd-R81/conf/local.arp

C.

$CPDIR/conf/local.arp

D.

$FWDIR/conf/local.arp

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Questions 106

Which is NOT an example of a Check Point API?

Options:

A.

Gateway API

B.

Management API

C.

OPSEC SDK

D.

Threat Prevention API

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Questions 107

Vanessa is firewall administrator in her company. Her company is using Check Point firewall on a central and several remote locations which are managed centrally by R77.30 Security Management Server. On central location is installed R77.30 Gateway on Open server. Remote locations are using Check Point UTM-1570 series appliances with R75.30 and some of them are using a UTM-1-Edge-X or Edge-W with latest available firmware. She is in process of migrating to R81.

What can cause Vanessa unnecessary problems, if she didn’t check all requirements for migration to R81?

Options:

A.

Missing an installed R77.20 Add-on on Security Management Server

B.

Unsupported firmware on UTM-1 Edge-W appliance

C.

Unsupported version on UTM-1 570 series appliance

D.

Unsupported appliances on remote locations

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Questions 108

Pamela is Cyber Security Engineer working for Global Instance Firm with large scale deployment of Check Point Enterprise Appliances using GAiA/R81.10. Company’s Developer Team is having random access issue to newly deployed Application Server in DMZ’s Application Server Farm Tier and blames DMZ Security Gateway as root cause. The ticket has been created and issue is at Pamela’s desk for an investigation. Pamela decides to use Check Point’s Packet Analyzer Tool-fw monitor to iron out the issue during approved Maintenance window.

What do you recommend as the best suggestion for Pamela to make sure she successfully captures entire traffic in context of Firewall and problematic traffic?

Options:

A.

Pamela should check SecureXL status on DMZ Security gateway and if it’s turned ON. She should turn OFF SecureXL before using fw monitor to avoid misleading traffic captures.

B.

Pamela should check SecureXL status on DMZ Security Gateway and if it’s turned OFF. She should turn ON SecureXL before using fw monitor to avoid misleading traffic captures.

C.

Pamela should use tcpdump over fw monitor tool as tcpdump works at OS-level and captures entire traffic.

D.

Pamela should use snoop over fw monitor tool as snoop works at NIC driver level and captures entire traffic.

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Questions 109

Which file gives you a list of all security servers in use, including port number?

Options:

A.

$FWDIR/conf/conf.conf

B.

$FWDIR/conf/servers.conf

C.

$FWDIR/conf/fwauthd.conf

D.

$FWDIR/conf/serversd.conf

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Questions 110

During the Check Point Stateful Inspection Process, for packets that do not pass Firewall Kernel Inspection and are rejected by the rule definition, packets are:

Options:

A.

Dropped without sending a negative acknowledgment

B.

Dropped without logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment

C.

Dropped with negative acknowledgment

D.

Dropped with logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment

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Questions 111

What is the valid range for VRID value in VRRP configuration?

Options:

A.

1 - 254

B.

1 - 255

C.

0 - 254

D.

0 - 255

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Questions 112

Which blades and or features are not supported in R81?

Options:

A.

SmartEvent Maps

B.

SmartEvent

C.

Identity Awareness

D.

SmartConsole Toolbars

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Questions 113

With MTA (Mail Transfer Agent) enabled the gateways manages SMTP traffic and holds external email with potentially malicious attachments. What is required in order to enable MTA (Mail Transfer Agent) functionality in the Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

Threat Cloud Intelligence

B.

Threat Prevention Software Blade Package

C.

Endpoint Total Protection

D.

Traffic on port 25

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Questions 114

What are the methods of SandBlast Threat Emulation deployment?

Options:

A.

Cloud, Appliance and Private

B.

Cloud, Appliance and Hybrid

C.

Cloud, Smart-1 and Hybrid

D.

Cloud, OpenServer and Vmware

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Questions 115

What does it mean if Deyra sees the gateway status? (Choose the BEST answer.)

Options:

A.

SmartCenter Server cannot reach this Security Gateway.

B.

There is a blade reporting a problem.

C.

VPN software blade is reporting a malfunction.

D.

Security Gateway’s MGNT NIC card is disconnected.

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Questions 116

Joey wants to upgrade from R75.40 to R81 version of Security management. He will use Advanced Upgrade with Database Migration method to achieve this.

What is one of the requirements for his success?

Options:

A.

Size of the /var/log folder of the source machine must be at least 25% of the size of the /var/log directory on the target machine

B.

Size of the /var/log folder of the target machine must be at least 25% of the size of the /var/log directory on the source machine

C.

Size of the $FWDIR/log folder of the target machine must be at least 30% of the size of the $FWDIR/log directory on the source machine

D.

Size of the /var/log folder of the target machine must be at least 25GB or more

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Questions 117

What CLI command compiles and installs a Security Policy on the target’s Security Gateways?

Options:

A.

fwm compile

B.

fwm load

C.

fwm fetch

D.

fwm install

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Questions 118

Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores that information in state tables?

Options:

A.

INSPECT Engine

B.

Stateful Inspection

C.

Packet Filtering

D.

Application Layer Firewall

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Questions 119

When deploying SandBlast, how would a Threat Emulation appliance benefit from the integration of ThreatCloud?

Options:

A.

ThreatCloud is a database-related application which is located on-premise to preserve privacy of company-related data

B.

ThreatCloud is a collaboration platform for all the CheckPoint customers to form a virtual cloud consisting of a combination of all on-premise private cloud environments

C.

ThreatCloud is a collaboration platform for Check Point customers to benefit from VMWare ESXi infrastructure which supports the Threat Emulation Appliances as virtual machines in the EMC Cloud

D.

ThreatCloud is a collaboration platform for all the Check Point customers to share information about malicious and benign files that all of the customers can benefit from as it makes emulation of known files unnecessary

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Questions 120

The fwd process on the Security Gateway sends logs to the fwd process on the Management Server via which 2 processes?

Options:

A.

fwd via cpm

B.

fwm via fwd

C.

cpm via cpd

D.

fwd via cpd

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Questions 121

The Event List within the Event tab contains:

Options:

A.

a list of options available for running a query.

B.

the top events, destinations, sources, and users of the query results, either as a chart or in a tallied list.

C.

events generated by a query.

D.

the details of a selected event.

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Questions 122

To fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher on a Security Gateway:

Options:

A.

run fw ctl multik set_mode 9 in Expert mode and then Reboot.

B.

Using cpconfig, update the Dynamic Dispatcher value to “full” under the CoreXL menu.

C.

Edit/proc/interrupts to include multik set_mode 1 at the bottom of the file, save, and reboot.

D.

run fw multik set_mode 1 in Expert mode and then reboot.

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Questions 123

When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?

Options:

A.

None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself.

B.

SmartConsole

C.

SecureClient

D.

Security Gateway

E.

SmartEvent

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Questions 124

Which statement is true regarding redundancy?

Options:

A.

System Administrators know when their cluster has failed over and can also see why it failed over by using the cphaprob –f if command.

B.

ClusterXL offers three different Load Sharing solutions: Unicast, Broadcast, and Multicast.

C.

Machines in a ClusterXL High Availability configuration must be synchronized.

D.

Both ClusterXL and VRRP are fully supported by Gaia and available to all Check Point appliances, open servers, and virtualized environments.

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Questions 125

Which CLI command will reset the IPS pattern matcher statistics?

Options:

A.

ips reset pmstat

B.

ips pstats reset

C.

ips pmstats refresh

D.

ips pmstats reset

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Questions 126

In R81, how do you manage your Mobile Access Policy?

Options:

A.

Through the Unified Policy

B.

Through the Mobile Console

C.

From SmartDashboard

D.

From the Dedicated Mobility Tab

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Questions 127

What is true about the IPS-Blade?

Options:

A.

In R81, IPS is managed by the Threat Prevention Policy

B.

In R81, in the IPS Layer, the only three possible actions are Basic, Optimized and Strict

C.

In R81, IPS Exceptions cannot be attached to “all rules”

D.

In R81, the GeoPolicy Exceptions and the Threat Prevention Exceptions are the same

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Questions 128

SSL Network Extender (SNX) is a thin SSL VPN on-demand client that is installed on the remote user’s machine via the web browser. What are the two modes of SNX?

Options:

A.

Application and Client Service

B.

Network and Application

C.

Network and Layers

D.

Virtual Adapter and Mobile App

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Questions 129

Where you can see and search records of action done by R81 SmartConsole administrators?

Options:

A.

In SmartView Tracker, open active log

B.

In the Logs & Monitor view, select “Open Audit Log View”

C.

In SmartAuditLog View

D.

In Smartlog, all logs

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Questions 130

You noticed that CPU cores on the Security Gateway are usually 100% utilized and many packets were dropped. You don’t have a budget to perform a hardware upgrade at this time. To optimize drops you decide to use Priority Queues and fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher. How can you enable them?

Options:

A.

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching on

B.

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching set_mode 9

C.

fw ctl multik set_mode 9

D.

fw ctl multik pq enable

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Questions 131

Which of the following is a new R81 Gateway feature that had not been available in R77.X and older?

Options:

A.

The rule base can be built of layers, each containing a set of the security rules. Layers are inspected in the order in which they are defined, allowing control over the rule base flow and which security functionalities take precedence.

B.

Limits the upload and download throughput for streaming media in the company to 1 Gbps.

C.

Time object to a rule to make the rule active only during specified times.

D.

Sub Policies ae sets of rules that can be created and attached to specific rules. If the rule is matched, inspection will continue in the sub policy attached to it rather than in the next rule.

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Questions 132

To help SmartEvent determine whether events originated internally or externally you must define using the Initial Settings under General Settings in the Policy Tab. How many options are available to calculate the traffic direction?

Options:

A.

5 Network; Host; Objects; Services; API

B.

3 Incoming; Outgoing; Network

C.

2 Internal; External

D.

4 Incoming; Outgoing; Internal; Other

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Questions 133

What is true about VRRP implementations?

Options:

A.

VRRP membership is enabled in cpconfig

B.

VRRP can be used together with ClusterXL, but with degraded performance

C.

You cannot have a standalone deployment

D.

You cannot have different VRIDs in the same physical network

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Questions 134

What is a feature that enables VPN connections to successfully maintain a private and secure VPN session without employing Stateful Inspection?

Options:

A.

Stateful Mode

B.

VPN Routing Mode

C.

Wire Mode

D.

Stateless Mode

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Questions 135

You want to gather and analyze threats to your mobile device. It has to be a lightweight app. Which application would you use?

Options:

A.

SmartEvent Client Info

B.

SecuRemote

C.

Check Point Protect

D.

Check Point Capsule Cloud

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Questions 136

What are the attributes that SecureXL will check after the connection is allowed by Security Policy?

Options:

A.

Source address, Destination address, Source port, Destination port, Protocol

B.

Source MAC address, Destination MAC address, Source port, Destination port, Protocol

C.

Source address, Destination address, Source port, Destination port

D.

Source address, Destination address, Destination port, Protocol

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Questions 137

Which view is NOT a valid CPVIEW view?

Options:

A.

IDA

B.

RAD

C.

PDP

D.

VPN

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Questions 138

The Security Gateway is installed on GAIA R81. The default port for the Web User Interface is ______ .

Options:

A.

TCP 18211

B.

TCP 257

C.

TCP 4433

D.

TCP 443

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Questions 139

Which command would disable a Cluster Member permanently?

Options:

A.

clusterXL_admin down

B.

cphaprob_admin down

C.

clusterXL_admin down-p

D.

set clusterXL down-p

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Questions 140

Which statement is NOT TRUE about Delta synchronization?

Options:

A.

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8161

B.

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8116

C.

Quicker than Full sync

D.

Transfers changes in the Kernel tables between cluster members.

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Questions 141

Which of the following statements is TRUE about R81 management plug-ins?

Options:

A.

The plug-in is a package installed on the Security Gateway.

B.

Installing a management plug-in requires a Snapshot, just like any upgrade process.

C.

A management plug-in interacts with a Security Management Server to provide new features and support for new products.

D.

Using a plug-in offers full central management only if special licensing is applied to specific features of the plug-in.

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Questions 142

Identify the API that is not supported by Check Point currently.

Options:

A.

R81 Management API-

B.

Identity Awareness Web Services API

C.

Open REST API

D.

OPSEC SDK

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Questions 143

Which command lists all tables in Gaia?

Options:

A.

fw tab –t

B.

fw tab –list

C.

fw-tab –s

D.

fw tab -1

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Questions 144

Which two of these Check Point Protocols are used by SmartEvent Processes?

Options:

A.

ELA and CPD

B.

FWD and LEA

C.

FWD and CPLOG

D.

ELA and CPLOG

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Questions 145

Which of the following process pulls application monitoring status?

Options:

A.

fwd

B.

fwm

C.

cpwd

D.

cpd

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Questions 146

What command verifies that the API server is responding?

Options:

A.

api stat

B.

api status

C.

show api_status

D.

app_get_status

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Questions 147

The CPD daemon is a Firewall Kernel Process that does NOT do which of the following?

Options:

A.

Secure Internal Communication (SIC)

B.

Restart Daemons if they fail

C.

Transfers messages between Firewall processes

D.

Pulls application monitoring status

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Questions 148

Which command is used to set the CCP protocol to Multicast?

Options:

A.

cphaprob set_ccp multicast

B.

cphaconf set_ccp multicast

C.

cphaconf set_ccp no_broadcast

D.

cphaprob set_ccp no_broadcast

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Questions 149

Which command can you use to verify the number of active concurrent connections?

Options:

A.

fw conn all

B.

fw ctl pstat

C.

show all connections

D.

show connections

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Questions 150

You can select the file types that are sent for emulation for all the Threat Prevention profiles. Each profile defines a(n) _____ or _____ action for the file types.

Options:

A.

Inspect/Bypass

B.

Inspect/Prevent

C.

Prevent/Bypass

D.

Detect/Bypass

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Questions 151

NAT rules are prioritized in which order?

1. Automatic Static NAT

2. Automatic Hide NAT

3. Manual/Pre-Automatic NAT

4. Post-Automatic/Manual NAT rules

Options:

A.

1, 2, 3, 4

B.

1, 4, 2, 3

C.

3, 1, 2, 4

D.

4, 3, 1, 2

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Questions 152

What scenario indicates that SecureXL is enabled?

Options:

A.

Dynamic objects are available in the Object Explorer

B.

SecureXL can be disabled in cpconfig

C.

fwaccel commands can be used in clish

D.

Only one packet in a stream is seen in a fw monitor packet capture

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Questions 153

Can multiple administrators connect to a Security Management Server at the same time?

Options:

A.

No, only one can be connected

B.

Yes, all administrators can modify a network object at the same time

C.

Yes, every administrator has their own username, and works in a session that is independent of other administrators.

D.

Yes, but only one has the right to write.

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Questions 154

What processes does CPM control?

Options:

A.

Object-Store, Database changes, CPM Process and web-services

B.

web-services, CPMI process, DLEserver, CPM process

C.

DLEServer, Object-Store, CP Process and database changes

D.

web_services, dle_server and object_Store

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Questions 155

What component of R81 Management is used for indexing?

Options:

A.

DBSync

B.

API Server

C.

fwm

D.

SOLR

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Questions 156

Which statement is true about ClusterXL?

Options:

A.

Supports Dynamic Routing (Unicast and Multicast)

B.

Supports Dynamic Routing (Unicast Only)

C.

Supports Dynamic Routing (Multicast Only)

D.

Does not support Dynamic Routing

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Questions 157

Which Remote Access Client does not provide an Office-Mode Address?

Options:

A.

SecuRemote

B.

Endpoint Security Suite

C.

Endpoint Security VPN

D.

Check Point Mobile

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Questions 158

What is the purpose of a SmartEvent Correlation Unit?

Options:

A.

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit is designed to check the connection reliability from SmartConsole to the SmartEvent Server.

B.

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit’s task it to assign severity levels to the identified events.

C.

The Correlation unit role is to evaluate logs from the log server component to identify patterns/threats and convert them to events.

D.

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit is designed to check the availability of the SmartReporter Server.

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Questions 159

Which of the following will NOT affect acceleration?

Options:

A.

Connections destined to or originated from the Security gateway

B.

A 5-tuple match

C.

Multicast packets

D.

Connections that have a Handler (ICMP, FTP, H.323, etc.)

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Questions 160

Which directory below contains log files?

Options:

A.

/opt/CPSmartlog-R81/log

B.

/opt/CPshrd-R81/log

C.

/opt/CPsuite-R81/fw1/log

D.

/opt/CPsuite-R81/log

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Questions 161

: 131

Which command is used to display status information for various components?

Options:

A.

show all systems

B.

show system messages

C.

sysmess all

D.

show sysenv all

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Questions 162

Which encryption algorithm is the least secured?

Options:

A.

AES-128

B.

AES-256

C.

DES

D.

3DES

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Questions 163

Customer’s R81 management server needs to be upgraded to R81.10. What is the best upgrade method when the management server is not connected to the Internet?

Options:

A.

Export R81 configuration, clean install R81.10 and import the configuration

B.

CPUSE offline upgrade

C.

CPUSE online upgrade

D.

SmartUpdate upgrade

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Questions 164

With Mobile Access enabled, administrators select the web-based and native applications that can be accessed by remote users and define the actions that users can perform the applications. Mobile Access encrypts all traffic using:

Options:

A.

HTTPS for web-based applications and 3DES or RC4 algorithm for native applications. For end users to access the native applications, they need to install the SSL Network Extender.

B.

HTTPS for web-based applications and AES or RSA algorithm for native applications. For end users to access the native application, they need to install the SSL Network Extender.

C.

HTTPS for web-based applications and 3DES or RC4 algorithm for native applications. For end users to access the native applications, no additional software is required.

D.

HTTPS for web-based applications and AES or RSA algorithm for native applications. For end users to access the native application, no additional software is required.

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Questions 165

Traffic from source 192.168.1.1 is going to www.google.com. The Application Control Blade on the gateway is inspecting the traffic. Assuming acceleration is enabled which path is handling the traffic?

Options:

A.

Slow Path

B.

Medium Path

C.

Fast Path

D.

Accelerated Path

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Questions 166

To accelerate the rate of connection establishment, SecureXL groups all connection that match a particular service and whose sole differentiating element is the source port. The type of grouping enables even the very first packets of a TCP handshake to be accelerated. The first packets of the first connection on the same service will be forwarded to the Firewall kernel which will then create a template of the connection. Which of the these is NOT a SecureXL template?

Options:

A.

Accept Template

B.

Deny Template

C.

Drop Template

D.

NAT Template

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Questions 167

John is using Management HA. Which Smartcenter should be connected to for making changes?

Options:

A.

secondary Smartcenter

B.

active Smartenter

C.

connect virtual IP of Smartcenter HA

D.

primary Smartcenter

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Questions 168

Security Checkup Summary can be easily conducted within:

Options:

A.

Summary

B.

Views

C.

Reports

D.

Checkups

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Questions 169

For Management High Availability, which of the following is NOT a valid synchronization status?

Options:

A.

Collision

B.

Down

C.

Lagging

D.

Never been synchronized

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Questions 170

SmartConsole R81 requires the following ports to be open for SmartEvent R81 management:

Options:

A.

19090,22

B.

19190,22

C.

18190,80

D.

19009,443

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Questions 171

What is the benefit of “tw monitor” over “tcpdump”?

Options:

A.

“fw monitor” reveals Layer 2 information, while “tcpdump” acts at Layer 3.

B.

“fw monitor” is also available for 64-Bit operating systems.

C.

With “fw monitor”, you can see the inspection points, which cannot be seen in “tcpdump”

D.

“fw monitor” can be used from the CLI of the Management Server to collect information from multiple gateways.

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Questions 172

SandBlast has several functional components that work together to ensure that attacks are prevented in real-time. Which the following is NOT part of the SandBlast component?

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

Mobile Access

C.

Mail Transfer Agent

D.

Threat Cloud

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Questions 173

When Dynamic Dispatcher is enabled, connections are assigned dynamically with the exception of:

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

HTTPS

C.

QOS

D.

VoIP

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Questions 174

Which command gives us a perspective of the number of kernel tables?

Options:

A.

fw tab -t

B.

fw tab -s

C.

fw tab -n

D.

fw tab -k

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Questions 175

SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?

Options:

A.

Smart Cloud Services

B.

Load Sharing Mode Services

C.

Threat Agent Solution

D.

Public Cloud Services

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Exam Code: 156-315.81
Exam Name: Check Point Certified Security Expert R81.20
Last Update: Apr 19, 2024
Questions: 617
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