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IIA-CFSA Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

High-risk scores are those with an average of scores:

Options:

A.

3.75 or more

B.

3.25 or more

C.

4.25 or more

D.

4.00 or more

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Questions 5

Internal audit routinely reviews compliance risk and also should be reviewing business risk. The efforts to control both risk types will purely enhance:

Options:

A.

The short-term profitability and viability of an organization

B.

The long-term profitability and viability of an organization

C.

Both short-term and long-term profitability and viability of an organization

D.

None of these

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Questions 6

Agents that represent one company exclusively are called:

Options:

A.

Independent Agents

B.

Captive Agents

C.

Exclusive Agents

D.

Detached Agents

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Questions 7

Which of the following should be the next step after the structuring process in order to complete the securitization process?

Options:

A.

Credit management

B.

Credit operations

C.

Credit Enhancement

D.

Credit deployment

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Questions 8

Commonly used distribution system/s in the insurance industry is/are:

Options:

A.

Personal selling distribution system and the direct response distribution

B.

Ordinary agency system

C.

Career agency system

D.

All of these whereas B and C are the same

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Questions 9

Strategic Risk if not properly controlled, understood or measured may result in:

Options:

A.

High Earnings volatility

B.

Significant capital pressures

C.

Withdrawal of loan portfolios by the customers

D.

Only A&B

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Questions 10

Insurance policies are good for insurance needs, however, as a main investment vehicles, they have considerable downsides.

Options:

A.

A majority of a premium payments is “part of commission” a small percent of your moneygoes towards the investment avenue.

B.

The guaranteed cash value, or accumulation value of your investment is normally such a low percentage, typically one to three percent.

C.

You would be much better off using a traditional investment vehicle than an insurance policy as an investment

D.

Only A & B

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Questions 11

Some specific requirements of securities and exchange 1934 Act are:

Options:

A.

Registration Requirement

B.

Credit Regulation

C.

Manipulation and Deception

D.

All of these

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Questions 12

Insurance industry is regulated by:

Options:

A.

State Governments

B.

Federal Government

C.

Non-Government

D.

All of these

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Questions 13

___________ bank balances are bank assets on deposit in other banks.

Options:

A.

“Due from”

B.

“Due to fixed reserves

C.

“Due from reserves”

D.

Both B& C

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Questions 14

Office of the comptroller of the currency:

Options:

A.

Ensures the safety and soundness of the National Banking System

B.

Foster competition by allowing banks to offer new products and services

C.

Improve the efficiency and effectiveness of OCC supervision including regulatory burden

D.

All of these

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Questions 15

I- Loan Processing

II- Claims Processing

III- Applicating

IV- Credit and Collection

V- Reconciliations

VI- Account Payments

VIII- Time and Expense Reimbursement

IX- Vendor Payments

X- Payroll

These all are the services included in:

Options:

A.

Back office operations

B.

Offshore Operations

C.

Tax-free export zones

D.

None of these

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Questions 16

Data gathering and evaluation during field work includes:

Options:

A.

Gaining and understanding of the activity, system, or process under review

B.

Observing conditions and operations

C.

Interviewing people and examining assets and accounting, and other operational business, and other operational records.

D.

All of these

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Questions 17

Which of the following situation would not impair audit objectivity?

Options:

A.

An auditor is assigned to audit a business function that the auditor was responsible for nine months ago

B.

An individual temporarily assigned to the internal audit activity because of the individual’sexpert knowledge in a particular business function assigned to audit an activity that theindividual was responsible for just prior to transferring to the internal audit activity

C.

An auditor is assigned to perform a post-implementation review on a system for which the auditor participated in the design process

D.

An auditor is assigned to perform a post-implementation review on a system for which the auditor performed a procedure review and made control recommendations prior to the system’s implementation

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Questions 18

IIA’s code of ethics applies to __________ that provide internal auditing services:

Options:

A.

Individuals

B.

Entities

C.

Individuals and entities

D.

Individuals, entities and indirect authorities

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Questions 19

Homeowner policies combine property and casualty coverage into the same policy (known as multi-line policies). Homeowner policies provide four types of property coverage. All of the following are out of those EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Dwelling

B.

Personal property

C.

Loss of use

D.

Medical coverage

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Questions 20

The most common index funds tries to tracks the S&P 500 by purchasing all 500 stocks using the same percentage as the index. Other indices that mutual funds try to copy include all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Russell 2000

B.

Wilshire 5000

C.

MCSI-EAFE

D.

None of these

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Questions 21

Securities available for sale should be reported at current market value. When this type of security has an unrealized gain or loss:

Options:

A.

It is reported on balance sheet

B.

It is reported on income statement

C.

It is not reported on income statement

D.

It is reported on cash flow statement

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Questions 22

The entity has comprehensive, written credit risk management policies and procedures for derivative activities. This addresses to:

Options:

A.

Counterparty Risk

B.

Market risk

C.

Market liquidity Risk

D.

Legal Risk

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Questions 23

Deposit accounts are either interest bearing or non-interest bearing. Interest bearing accounts includes _________ and ___________. The types of accounts bear interest for a fixed period of time and are known as time deposits.

Options:

A.

Savings accounts, certificates of deposit

B.

Savings accounts, term deposit

C.

Certificate of deposit, Savings accounts and certificates of deposit

D.

Savings accounts, certificates of deposit and non-interesting bearing account

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Questions 24

All lending institutions assume some loans will not be repaid and thus estimate the losses they expect from their loan portfolio. Management of the lending institution sets a reserve for loan losses at a given point based on factors such as:

Options:

A.

The number and type of loans made

B.

The quality of loans made

C.

The number of problem loans

D.

All of these

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Questions 25

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a control environment?

Options:

A.

Management communicates the importance of internal controls to all employees

B.

Employees have a vague idea of their responsibilities; so they work in a flexible environment

C.

Employees are held accountable for their performance

D.

A system is in place to monitor controls on a regular basis

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Questions 26

___________ help bring performance back into compliance, or address problems that have been identified such as employee grievance system, employee performance approvals, or an administrative appeal’s process.

Options:

A.

Correction controls

B.

Detective controls

C.

Preventive controls

D.

None of These

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Questions 27

Exception reports generated by the lending institution are designed to identify past-due loans. Auditors should review these exception reports to identify an unusually high number of exceptions and old or unusual exceptions that might indicate that:

Options:

A.

The institution is not following up on exceptions in a timely manner

B.

The institution is following up on exceptions in a timely manner

C.

The auditor is not following up on exceptions in a timely manner

D.

The competitor is not following up on exceptions in a timely manner

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Questions 28

An area of FOMC board responsibilities is the development and administration of regulation that implement major federal laws governing consumer credit, such as:

Options:

A.

Truth bending Act and the equal credit opportunity Act

B.

Home Mortgage disclosure Act and truth savings ACT

C.

Sunshine Act

D.

Only A & b

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Questions 29

Asset Management is the term usually given to describe companies that run manual Funds. The largest are those who provide:

Options:

A.

Passive Funds

B.

ETF (Exchange traded funds)

C.

Index Funds

D.

All of the above

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Questions 30

__________ agency system uses agents who sell the policies of a group of affiliated companies.

Options:

A.

Multiple-line (or all lines) agency system

B.

Personal selling distribution system

C.

Career agency system

D.

None of these

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Questions 31

Regulation D, an SEC rule governing the limited offer and sale of securities without registration under the securities Act of 1933, regulates private placement exemptions. Regulation D supports all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Allows for the issuance and sale of securities to purchasers, if they qualify as accreditedinvestors

B.

Offerings are advantageous to any private company or entrepreneur because they allow anentity to obtain funding faster and to avoid the costs associated with a public offering

C.

Allows usually smaller companies to raise capital through the sale of equity or debt securities without having to register their securities with SEC.

D.

None of these

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Questions 32

Electronic financial services audits should focus on whether there are adequate internal controls in place to protect customer transactions information, and assets. Some key steps in clued all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Determine whether disaster contingency plans for the failure of internet transactions orcommunication are adequate, regularly updated

B.

Determine whether disaster contingency plans for the failure of internet transactions orcommunication are adequate, regularly tested, and regularly updated

C.

Determine whether an access is controlled by a firewall

D.

Stress test analyzing changes in market and credit conditions are appropriate. The marketassumptions are reasonable

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Questions 33

_____________ loans allow the consumer to repay a loan over a set period. They require periodic principal and interest payments The loan is generally secured by the item being purchased. Automobile loans or real estate mortgage loans are common types of such types of loans.

Options:

A.

Installment loans

B.

Consumer loans

C.

Residential loans

D.

Asset-based loans

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Questions 34

Many group disability income policies contain a physical examination provision that requires a doctor to examine a claimant before the claim is paid. The insurer may also require the claimant to undergo periodic examinations to verify:

Options:

A.

That the disability still exists

B.

That the correct amount was paid

C.

That the claim is properly satisfied

D.

None of these

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Questions 35

Derivates can be effective low cost tools for managing expose experience losses due to:

Options:

A.

Interest rate change

B.

Master agreements

C.

Commodity price change

D.

All of these

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Questions 36

The interagency statement calls for these disclosures to be provided EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Orally during any sales presentation

B.

Orally when investment advice concerning the non deposit investment products is provided

C.

In advertisement and other promotional materials as specified in the interagency statement

D.

None of these

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Questions 37

_____________ is a type of insurance that employers provide for employees. Injured employees must file with the agency that administrates it in their state and notify their employer. It pays: Medical expenses for employees and rehabilitation benefits for employees who become disables through work Death benefits for survivors of employees who die because of an occupational injury or disease

Options:

A.

Dental insurance

B.

Presumptive disability provision

C.

Consumer-driven health plan

D.

Worker’s compensation

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Questions 38

It is a contract that defines corporation and bondholders responsibilities and is designed to protect the right of the bondholders. A trustee (most often a commercial bank) is generally appointed to ensure that the obligations defined in the agreement are of trust indenture must e filled with SEC. What is it?

Options:

A.

Bond certificate

B.

Trust indenture

C.

Secured bonds

D.

Collateral trust

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Questions 39

Auditors should be aware that the investment objectives of a mutual fund are usually based on a risk profile outlined in the fund prospectus. For example, aggressive growth funds may invest in highly volatile stock issues and a money market fund may invest in lo –risk money market instruments. Other funds have investment objectives based on the type or location of companies they invest in, such as:

Options:

A.

Funds that invest only in non-profit organizations

B.

Funds that invest only in environmentally conscious companies

C.

Funds that invest only in U.S. government organizations

D.

None of these

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Questions 40

Most municipal and corporate bonds are rated by an independent rating firm such as Standard & Poor’s (S&P) or Moody’s. These ratings provide investors with information regarding the risk of default on the bond issue. The higher rated bonds are considered _________.

Options:

A.

Investment grade bonds

B.

Speculative bonds

C.

Junk bonds

D.

Blue chip bonds

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Questions 41

Auditors testing mutual funds transactions will typically focus on whether customer purchases and redemptions are accounted properly. In cases where brokers are used to maintain customer accounts, auditors may need to confirm:

Options:

A.

The number of shares held by the broker

B.

The number of shares held by the dealer

C.

The number of shares held by the shareholder itself

D.

The number of shares held by the mutual fund

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Questions 42

Federal Reserve Board has:

Options:

A.

Monetary policy

B.

Regulatory responsibilities

C.

Supervisory responsibilities

D.

All of these

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Questions 43

Compliance testing is designed primarily to:

Options:

A.

Hold detection risk to an acceptable level

B.

Determine whether policies and procedures have been followed

C.

Determine that account balances exit, are accurate, and are properly classified

D.

Provide evidence about monetary misstatements

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Questions 44

The major benefit of risk assessment is:

Options:

A.

To staff the plans and financial budgets

B.

To consider factor that may affect risk and giving the highest priority to audit areas that have the highest potential for adverse consequences

C.

To identify the possible adverse effects based solely on the type of activity, the type of resources, amount of assets or complexity of transactions

D.

Failure to achieve the organization’s goal and objectives

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Questions 45

Deposit accounts are:

Options:

A.

Interest bearing accounts

B.

Non-interest bearing accounts

C.

Tax bearing accounts

D.

Either A or B

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Questions 46

Types of commercial loans are /are:

Options:

A.

Installment loans

B.

Floor plan financing

C.

Asset-based financing

D.

Both B and C

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Questions 47

The plans developed for the audit functions should be updated as circumstances dictate. Such specific types of plans include all EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Activity Reports

B.

Target dates

C.

Opportunities and threats

D.

Staffing plans and financial budgets

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Questions 48

Engagement client management often has a negative perception of audit process; therefore, communication throughout the audit process is essential to alleviate some of the concerns of management. The very first step in communicating the audit information with the client is:

Options:

A.

Entrance conference

B.

Formal notification of the audit

C.

Explanation of the scope of audit

D.

None of these

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Questions 49

Which of the following is NOT included in the list of principles for formulating well- stated audit objectives?

Options:

A.

Clearly identify the client

B.

Clearly identify the type of performance to be audited and separate objectives if more than one element of performance is to be reviewed

C.

Frame objectives that consider a realistic scope and methodology

D.

Onsite Observation

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Questions 50

Cash surrender life insurance is referred to:

Options:

A.

Permanent life insurance

B.

Whole life insurance

C.

Both of these

D.

None of these

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Questions 51

If a mutual fund has an NAV of $100 million, and investors own $10,000,000 of fund’s shares, the funds per share value will be:

Options:

A.

$100

B.

$1

C.

$10

D.

None of these

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Questions 52

When one buys a cash instrument, for example 100 shares of ABC Inc., the payoff is linear (disregarding the impact of dividends). If share are purchased at $50 and the price appreciated to $75, we have ________ on a mark-to-mark basis.

Options:

A.

Made $2500

B.

Lost $2500

C.

Made $2500

D.

None of these

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Questions 53

A participant’s right to receive partial or full benefits under a private retirement plan even if the participant terminates employment prior to retirement is referred to as

Options:

A.

Contributing.

B.

Accumulating.

C.

Vesting.

D.

Non-revocation.

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Questions 54

Business continuation insurance protects a business against the potential economic loss resulting from the passing or disability of key executives and/or employees. This is the insurance coverage which comes under the umbrella heading of:

Options:

A.

Casualty insurance

B.

General liability insurance

C.

Disability insurance

D.

Straight forward risk insurance

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Questions 55

Option’s in major types of life insurance is/are:

Options:

A.

May be renewable or convertible to a whole life policy (term life insurance)

B.

May pay dividends, may provide a reduced paid-up policy. Partial cash surrenders permitted (whole life insurance)

C.

May pay dividends minimum death benefit partial cash surrenders permitted

D.

All of these

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Questions 56

Charitable trust that is an irrevocable trust and that may be testamentary or inter-vivos (Between living persons) is called:

Options:

A.

Foundations

B.

Charitable Remainder Unitrust

C.

Charitable Remainder Annuity Trust

D.

None of these

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Questions 57

Optional basic and supplement life insurances are the variants of:

Options:

A.

Ordinary life insurance

B.

Group life insurance

C.

Accidental death and Dismemberment

D.

None of these

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Questions 58

An entity that purchases and sells securities on its own behalf is acting as:

Options:

A.

A broker

B.

A dealer

C.

An agent

D.

A principal

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Questions 59

Some of the risks associated with bond funds are all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Credit Risk

B.

Interest Rate Risk

C.

Payment Risk

D.

Liquidity Risk

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Questions 60

One fund may invest on mostly established “blue chip” (Companies that pay regular dividends). Another fund may invest in newer technology companies that pay no dividends but that may have more potential for growth. These are the examples of:

Options:

A.

Mutual funds

B.

Index funds

C.

Stock funds

D.

Bond funds

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Questions 61

There are different classes of mutual funds. Classes that typically do not have a front-end sales load. Instead they may impose a contingent deferred sales load and a 12b-1 fee (along with other annual expenses) is called:

Options:

A.

Class A

B.

Class B

C.

Class C

D.

Both B&C

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Questions 62

Recent activities in the marketplace have caused your company to comply with requests from 50 percent of your policyholders to cancel their policies. The company complies and refunds them amounts due. Your audit of this should ensure these refunds were charged against what account?

Options:

A.

Incurred but not reported (IBNR)

B.

Unearned premium reserve

C.

Goodwill

D.

Allocation for uncollectible accounts

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Questions 63

The “combined ratio” of an insurance company is the ratio from combining which of the following?

I. The “loss ratio.”

II. The “other underwriting expense ratio.”

III. The “expense ratio.”

IV. The “IBNR.”

Options:

A.

I and II only.

B.

I and II only.

C.

III and IV only.

D.

I, II, III and IV.

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Questions 64

The main objective/s of an audit of swaps is/are:

Options:

A.

To determine the adequacy and effectiveness of controls relating to rate swap transactions

B.

To ascertain that swap transaction are properly recorded in accordance with their term

C.

To ensure that the company’s financial statements and regulatory reports properly reflect in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles, the results of swap activity

D.

All of these

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Questions 65

The duties of a guardian in guardianship arrangements are similar to those of a trustee.

Specifically, the guardian is obligated to:

1) Protect and preserve the assets

2) Submit an inventory and appraisal to the court

3) Retain or divest assets

4) Use principal and income for the benefit of the ward

5) Submit an annual accounting to the court

Options:

A.

Only 1.3,4

B.

All of these

C.

Only 1, 2

D.

All except 3

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Questions 66

Bank loans can generally be classified in several ways EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Time loans are made for a specific time period

B.

Demand loans have fixed maturity dates and also may be payable on demand of the lender

C.

Installment loans require periodic principal

D.

Line-of-credit arrangements allow the borrower to borrow up to a maximum limit for aspecific period.

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Questions 67

____________ is an electronic payment network used by individuals businesses, financial institutions and government organizations. It provide better cash management capabilities and lower costs than traditional paper payments.

Options:

A.

EFT (Electronic Funds Transfer)

B.

ACH (Automated cleaning house)

C.

ATM

D.

None of these

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Questions 68

Preliminary prospectuses are often called:

Options:

A.

Red hearing

B.

Introductory Notes

C.

Initial Coverage

D.

None of these

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Questions 69

Which one of the following statements elaborates some insurance products that fall under the regulatory authority of SEC?

Options:

A.

Investment based insurance products

B.

Agents selling investment based insurance products

C.

Term insurance products

D.

Only A&B

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Questions 70

If a corporation has an asset sensitive gap in a rising rate environment, which of the following would be considered an appropriate hedging strategy to prevent a decrease in net interest income?

Options:

A.

Take no action

B.

Purchase an interest rate floor

C.

Enter into an interest rate swap to receive fixed and pay floating rate payments

D.

Enter into an interest rate swap to receive floating and pay fixed rate payment

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Questions 71

Securities available for resale, by the bank, should be reported at:

Options:

A.

Principal value

B.

Principal value + interest rate

C.

Fair value

D.

All of these

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Questions 72

In SEC review process, if SEC believes that the registration statement contains false or misleading information or that pertinent information has been omitted, it can suspend the process with______________.

Options:

A.

Stop orders

B.

Deficiency letters

C.

Legal notices

D.

Red herring

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Questions 73

Banks that performs variety of services for other bank, e.g. they make emergency loans to banks that are short of cash and clear cheques that are drawn and paid out by different banks are called:

Options:

A.

Community Banks

B.

Regional Banks

C.

Federal Reserve Banks

D.

Credit unions

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Questions 74

Leases allow a customer to use an institution’s property for a specified period. Most lease agreements give the lessee the option of purchasing the property:

Options:

A.

at principal amount

B.

below fair market value

C.

above fair market value

D.

None of these

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Questions 75

Which one of the following dominates the banking industry?

Options:

A.

Savings Banks

B.

Commercial banks

C.

Credit Unions

D.

Mortgage Bankers

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Questions 76

In variable life insurance the number and type of insurance choice available are dependent on insurer, but some policies are available with a wide variety of separate accounts also known as:

Options:

A.

Super accounts

B.

Child accounts

C.

Sub accounts

D.

Special accounts

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Status:
Expired
Exam Code: IIA-CFSA
Exam Name: Certified Financial Services Auditor
Last Update: Apr 21, 2023
Questions: 511
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