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156-315.77 Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

Fill in the blank.

To verify SecureXL statistics, you would use the command _____.

Options:

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Questions 5

Fred is troubleshooting a NAT issue and wants to check to see if the inbound connection from this internal network is being translated across the interface in the firewall correctly. He decides to use the fw monitor to capture the traffic from the source 192.168.3.5 or the destination of 10.1.1.25 on his Security Gateway. Green that has an IP of 192.168.4.5. What command captures this traffic in a file that he can download and review with WireShark?

Options:

A.

Expert@Green# fwmonitor –e “accept src=192.168.3.5 and dst=10.1.1.25;” –o monitor.out

B.

Expert@Green# fw monitor –e “accept src=192.168.3.5 and dst=10.1.1.25;” –o monitor.out

C.

Expert@Green# fwmonitor –e “accept src=192.168.3.5 or dst=10.1.1.25;” –o monitor.out

D.

Expert@Green# fw monitor –e “accept src=192.168.3.5 or dst=10.1.1.25;” –o monitor.out

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Questions 6

In the following cluster configuration; if you reboot sglondon_1 which device will be active when sglondon_1 is back up and running? Why?

Options:

A.

sglondon_1 because it the first configured object with the lowest IP.

B.

sglondon_2 because sglondon_1 has highest IP.

C.

sglondon_1, because it is up again, sglondon_2 took over during reboot.

D.

sglondon_2 because it has highest priority.

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Questions 7

When using Captive Portal to send unidentified users to a Web portal for authentication, which of the following is NOT a recommended use for this method?

Options:

A.

For deployment of Identity Agents

B.

Identity-based enforcement for non-AD users (non-Windows and guest users)

C.

Leveraging identity in Internet application control

D.

Basic identity enforcement in the internal network

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Questions 8

Which of the following access options would you NOT use when configuring Captive Portal?

Options:

A.

From the Internet

B.

Through all interfaces

C.

Through internal interfaces

D.

Through the Firewall policy

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Questions 9

Which is NOT a method through which Identity Awareness receives its identities?

Options:

A.

AD Query

B.

Group Policy

C.

Identity Agent

D.

Captive Portal

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Questions 10

MultiCorp has bought company OmniCorp and now has two active AD domains. How would you deploy Identity Awareness in this environment?

Options:

A.

You must run an ADquery for every domain.

B.

Identity Awareness can only manage one AD domain.

C.

Only one ADquery is necessary to ask for all domains.

D.

Only Captive Portal can be used.

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Questions 11

Identity Agent is a lightweight endpoint agent that authenticates securely with Single Sign-On (SSO). Which of the following is NOT a recommended use for this method?

Options:

A.

Leveraging machine name or identity

B.

When accuracy in detecting identity is crucial

C.

Identity based enforcement for non-AD users (non-Windows and guest users)

D.

Protecting highly sensitive servers

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Questions 12

Which two processes are responsible on handling Identity Awareness?

Options:

A.

pdp and lad

B.

pdp and pdp-11

C.

pep and lad

D.

pdp and pep

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Questions 13

The following graphic illustrates which command being issued on Secure Platform?

Options:

A.

fwaccel stats

B.

fw accel stats

C.

fw securexl stats

D.

fwsecurexl stats

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Questions 14

Where is the encryption domain for a SmartLSM Security Gateway configured in R71?

Options:

A.

Inside the SmartLSM Security Gateway object in the SmartDashboard GUI

B.

Inside the SmartLSM Security Gateway profile in the SmartProvisioning GUI

C.

Inside the SmartLSM Security Gateway object in the SmartProvisioning GUI

D.

Inside the SmartLSM Security Gateway profile in the SmartDashboard GUI

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Questions 15

What is the proper CLISH syntax to configure a default route via 192.168.255.1 in GAiA?

Options:

A.

set static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.255.1 priority 1 on

B.

set static-route 192.168.255.0/24 nexthop gateway logical ethl on

C.

set static-route 192.168.255.0/24 nexthop gateway address 192.168.255.1 priority 1 on

D.

set static-route nexthop default gateway logical 192.168.255.1 priority 1 on

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Questions 16

The “MAC Magic” value must be modified under the following condition:

Options:

A.

There is more than one cluster connected to the same VLAN

B.

A firewall cluster is configured to use Multicast for CCP traffic

C.

There are more than two members in a firewall cluster

D.

A firewall cluster is configured to use Broadcast for CCP traffic

Questions 17

A user cannot authenticate to SSL VPN. You have verified the user is assigned a user group and reproduced the problem, confirming a failed-login session. You do not see an indication of this attempt in the traffic log. The user is not using a client certificate for login.

To debug this error, where in the authentication process could the solution be found?

Options:

A.

apache

B.

admin

C.

cvpnd

D.

cpauth

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Questions 18

Remote clients are using SSL VPN to authenticate via LDAP server to connect to the organization. Which gateway process is responsible for the authentication?

Options:

A.

vpnd

B.

cvpnd

C.

fwm

D.

fwd

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Questions 19

VPN routing can also be configured by editing which file?

Options:

A.

$FWDIR/VPN/route_conf.c

B.

$FWDIR/conf/vpn_route.conf

C.

$FWDIR/bin/vpn_route.conf

D.

$FWDIR/conf/vpn_route.c

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Questions 20

You configure a Check Point QoS Rule Base with two rules:

an H.323 rule with a weight of 10, and the Default Rule with a weight of 10.

The H.323 rule includes a per-connection guarantee of 384 Kbps. and a per-connection limit of 512 Kbps. The per-connection guarantee is for four connections, and no additional connections are allowed in the Action properties. If traffic is passing through the QoS Module matches both rules, which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Each H.323 connection will receive at least 512 Kbps of bandwidth.

B.

The H.323 rule will consume no more than 2048 Kbps of available bandwidth.

C.

50% of available bandwidth will be allocated to the Default Rule.

D.

Neither rule will be allocated more than 10% of available bandwidth.

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Questions 21

Review the following list of actions that Security Gateway R75 can take when it controls packets. The Policy Package has been configured for Simplified Mode VPN. Select the response below that includes the available actions:

Options:

A.

Accept, Reject, Encrypt, Drop

B.

Accept, Hold, Reject, Proxy

C.

Accept, Drop, Reject, Client Auth

D.

Accept, Drop, Encrypt, Session Auth

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Questions 22

Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning MEP VPN’s?

Options:

A.

The VPN Client selects which Security Gateway takes over, should the first connection fail.

B.

MEP VPN’s are restricted to the location of the gateways.

C.

State synchronization between Security Gateways is required.

D.

MEP Security Gateways cannot be managed by separate Management Servers.

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Questions 23

Where do you define NAT properties so that NAT is performed either client side or server side? In SmartDashboard under:

Options:

A.

Gateway Setting

B.

NAT Rules

C.

Global Properties > NAT definition

D.

Implied Rules

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Questions 24

Which command line interface utility allows the administrator to verify the Security Policy name and timestamp currently installed on a firewall module?

Options:

A.

fw stat

B.

fw ctl pstat

C.

fw ver

D.

cpstat fwd

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Questions 25

A Fast Path Upgrade of a cluster:

Options:

A.

Upgrades all cluster members except one at the same time.

B.

Treats each individual cluster member as an individual gateway.

C.

Is not a valid upgrade method in R76.

D.

Is only supported in major releases (R70 to R71, R75 to R76).

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Questions 26

You plan to incorporate OPSEC servers, such as Web sense and Trend Micro, to do content filtering. Which segment is the BEST location for these OPSEC servers, when you consider Security Server performance and data security?

Options:

A.

On the Security Gateway

B.

Internal network, where users are located

C.

On the Internet

D.

DMZ network, where application servers are located

E.

Dedicated segment of the network

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Questions 27

In R76, My Organization e-mail addresses or domains are used for:

Options:

A.

Scanning e-mails only if its sender e-mail address is part of this definition, by default.

B.

Defining the e-mail address of the SMTP relay server.

C.

FTP traffic sent from a user where his e-mail is part of this definition scanned by DLP, by default.

D.

HTTP traffic sent from a user where his e-mail is part of this definition scanned by DLP, by default.

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Questions 28

Which command displays the installed Security Gateway version?

Options:

A.

fw ver

B.

fw stat

C.

fw printver

D.

cpstat -gw

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Questions 29

Which of the following is a CLI command for Security Gateway R77?

Options:

A.

fw merge

B.

fw tab -u

C.

fw shutdown

D.

fwm policy_print

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Questions 30

All of the following are used by the DLP engine to match a message during a scan, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Message Body

B.

Protocol

C.

Data Type

D.

Destination

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Questions 31

Which of the following describes the default behavior of an R77 Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

Traffic is filtered using controlled port scanning.

B.

IP protocol types listed as secure are allowed by default, i.e. ICMP, TCP, UDP sessions are inspected.

C.

All traffic is expressly permitted via explicit rules.

D.

Traffic not explicitly permitted is dropped.

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Questions 32

You intend to upgrade a Check Point Gateway from R65 to R76.

To avoid problems, you decide to back up the Gateway.

Which approach allows the Gateway configuration to be completely backed up into a manageable size in the least amount of time?

Options:

A.

snapshot

B.

database revision

C.

backup

D.

upgrade export

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Questions 33

You are the MegaCorp Security Administrator. This company uses a firewall cluster, consisting of two cluster members. The cluster generally works well but one day you find that the cluster is behaving strangely. You assume that there is a connectivity problem with the cluster synchronization link (cross-over cable). Which of the following commands is the BEST for testing the connectivity of the crossover cable?

Options:

A.

ifconfig -a

B.

arping

C.

telnet

D.

ping

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Questions 34

Which process should you debug if SmartDashboard login fails?

Options:

A.

sdm

B.

cpd

C.

fwd

D.

fwm

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Questions 35

Fill in the blank.

MultiCorp is located in Atlanta. It has a branch office in Europe, Asia, and Africa. Each location has its own AD controller for local user login. How many ADqueries have to be configured?

Options:

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Questions 36

The process that performs the authentication for legacy session authentication is:

Options:

A.

cvpnd

B.

fwm

C.

vpnd

D.

fwssd

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Questions 37

When troubleshooting user authentication, you may see the following entries in a debug of the user authentication process. In which order are these messages likely to appear?

Options:

A.

make_au, au_auth, au_fetchuser, au_auth_auth, cpLdapCheck, cpLdapGetUser

B.

make_au, au_auth, au_fetchuser, cpLdapGetUser, cpLdapCheck, au_auth_auth

C.

cpLdapGetUser, au_fetchuser, cpLdapCheck, make_au, au_auth, au_auth_auth

D.

au_fetchuser, make_au, au_auth, cpLdapGetUser, au_auth_auth, cpLdapCheck

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Questions 38

While authorization for users managed by SmartDirectory is performed by the gateway, the authentication mostly occurs in _____.

Options:

A.

ldapauth

B.

cpauth

C.

ldapd

D.

cpShared

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Questions 39

What is the purpose of the pre-defined exclusions included with SmartEvent R77?

Options:

A.

To allow SmartEvent R77 to function properly with all other R71 devices.

B.

To avoid incorrect event generation by the default IPS event definition; a scenario that may occur in deployments that include Security Gateways of versions prior to R71.

C.

As a base for starting and building exclusions.

D.

To give samples of how to write your own exclusion.

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Questions 40

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of SmartLog?

Options:

A.

SmartLog has a “Top Results” pane showing things like top sources, rules, and users.

B.

SmartLog displays query results across multiple log files, reducing the need to open previous files to view results.

C.

SmartLog requires less disk space by consolidating log entries into fewer records.

D.

SmartLog creates an index of log entries, increasing query speed.

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Questions 41

Which of the following is NOT accelerated by SecureXL?

Options:

A.

SSH

B.

HTTPS

C.

FTP

D.

Telnet

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Questions 42

In a R77 ClusterXL Load Sharing configuration, which type of ARP related problem can force the use of Unicast Mode (Pivot) configuration due to incompatibility on some adjacent routers and switches?

Options:

A.

MGCP MAC address response to a Multicast IP request

B.

Multicast MAC address response to a Unicast IP request

C.

Unicast MAC address response to a Multicast IP request

D.

Multicast MAC address response to a RARP request

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Questions 43

In which case is a Sticky Decision Function relevant?

Options:

A.

Load Balancing – Forward

B.

High Availability

C.

Load Sharing – Multicast

D.

Load Sharing – Unicast

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Questions 44

When distributing IPSec packets to gateways in a Load Sharing Multicast mode cluster, which valid Load Sharing method will consider VPN information?

Options:

A.

Load Sharing based on SPIs

B.

Load Sharing based on IP addresses, ports, and serial peripheral interfaces

C.

Load Sharing based on IP addresses, ports, and security parameter indexes

D.

Load Sharing based on ports, VTI, and IP addresses

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Questions 45

Included in the customer’s network are some firewall systems with the Performance Pack in use. The customer wishes to use these firewall systems in a cluster (Load Sharing mode). He is not sure if he can use the Sticky Decision Function in this cluster. Explain the situation to him.

Options:

A.

The customer can use the firewalls with Performance Pack inside the cluster, which should support the Sticky Decision Function. It is just necessary to configure it with the clusterXL_SDF_enable command.

B.

ClusterXL always supports the Sticky Decision Function in the Load Sharing mode.

C.

The customer can use the firewalls with Performance Pack inside the cluster, which should support the Sticky Decision Function. It is just necessary to enable the Sticky Decision Function in the SmartDashboard cluster object in the ClusterXL page, Advanced Load Sharing Configuration window.

D.

Sticky Decision Function is not supported when employing either Performance Pack or a hardware-based accelerator card. Enabling the Sticky Decision Function disables these acceleration products.

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Questions 46

Which process is responsible for full synchronization in ClusterXL?

Options:

A.

cpd on the Security Gateway

B.

fwd on the Security Gateway

C.

fw kernel on the Security Gateway

D.

Clustering on the Security Gateway

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Questions 47

How does a cluster member take over the VIP after a failover event?

Options:

A.

Gratuitous ARP

B.

Broadcast storm

C.

arp -s

D.

Ping the sync interface

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Questions 48

By default, a standby Security Management Server is automatically synchronized by an active Security Management Server, when:

Options:

A.

The Security Policy is installed.

B.

The user data base is installed.

C.

The standby Security Management Server starts for the first time.

D.

The Security Policy is saved.

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Questions 49

Your organization has many VPN-1 Edge gateways at various branch offices, to allow VPN-1 Secure Client users to access company resources. For security reasons, your organization's Security Policy requires all Internet traffic initiated behind the VPN-1 Edge gateways first be inspected by your headquarters' VPN-1 Pro Security Gateway.

How do you configure VPN routing in this star VPN Community?

Options:

A.

To the Internet and other targets only

B.

To the center and other satellites, through the center

C.

To the center only

D.

To the center; or through the center to other satellites, then to the Internet and other VPN targets

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Questions 50

You receive an alert indicating a suspicious FTP connection is trying to connect to one of your internal hosts. How do you block the connection in real time and verify the connection is successfully blocked?

Options:

A.

Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker > Active mode.Block the connection using the Tools > Block Intruder menu.Use the Active mode to confirm that the suspicious connection does not reappear.

B.

Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker > Log mode.Block the connection using Tools > Block Intruder menu.Use Log mode to confirm that the suspicious connection does not reappear.

C.

Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker > Active mode.Block the connection using Tools > Block Intruder menu.Use Active mode to confirm that the suspicious connection is dropped.

D.

Highlight the suspicious connection in SmartView Tracker > Log mode.Block the connection using Tools > Block Intruder menu.Use the Log mode to confirm that the suspicious connection is dropped.

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Questions 51

What happens when an Administrator activates the DLP Portal for Self Incident Handling and enters its fully qualified domain name (DNS name)?

Options:

A.

Connections created between the user and the DLP Gateway when clicking links within e-mail notifications to send or discard quarantined e-mails (matched for an Ask User rule) are encrypted.

B.

The daemon running DLP Portal starts to run and can cater requests from users' browsers (following links from e-mail notifications) and from Check Point User Check.

C.

The DLP Gateway can now notify Data Owners about DLP incidents.

D.

User Check is activated.

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Questions 52

Assume an intruder has compromised your current IKE Phase 1 and Phase 2 keys.

Which of the following options will end the intruder's access, after the next Phase 2 exchange occurs?

Options:

A.

Phase 3 Key Revocation

B.

Perfect Forward Secrecy

C.

MD5 Hash Completion

D.

SHA1 Hash Completion

E.

DES Key Reset

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Questions 53

Rachel is the Security Administrator for a university. The university's FTP servers have old hardware and software. Certain FTP commands cause the FTP servers to malfunction.

Upgrading the FTP servers is not an option at this time.

Which of the following options will allow Rachel to control which FTP commands pass through the Security Gateway protecting the FTP servers?

Options:

A.

Global Properties > Security Server > Allowed FTP Commands

B.

SmartDefense > Application Intelligence > FTP Security Server

C.

Rule Base > Action Field > Properties

D.

Web Intelligence > Application Layer > FTP Settings

E.

FTP Service Object > Advanced > Blocked FTP Commands

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Questions 54

What is the best method for scheduling backup's on multiple firewalls?

Options:

A.

WebUI

B.

SmartProvisioning

C.

Smart Dashboard

D.

SmartUpdate

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Questions 55

Regarding QoS guarantees and limits, which of the following statements is FALSE?

Options:

A.

If both a limit and a guarantee per rule are defined in a QoS rule, then the limit must be smaller than the guarantee.

B.

If both a rule limit and a per connection limit are defined for a rule, the per connection limit must not be greater than the rule limit.

C.

A rule guarantee must not be less than the sum the guarantees defined in its sub-rules.

D.

If a guarantee is defined in a sub-rule, then a guarantee must be defined for the rule above it.

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Questions 56

What is the significance of the depicted icon in the SmartWorkflow toolbar?

Options:

A.

Submit for Approval

B.

Check the consistency of SmartWorkflow sessions.

C.

Overall status information: Everything is OK.

D.

Session has been approved.

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Questions 57

Why would an old Connecter Gateway IP be displayed to remote SSL Network Extender users, after changing it to a different IP? You must:

Options:

A.

Restart service CPwebis

B.

Update Connector's certificate to reflect the newly assigned IP address

C.

Make the change using sysconfig instead of the admin portal

D.

Install a new license corresponding to the newly configured IP

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Questions 58

Public keys and digital certificates provide which of the following? Select three.

Options:

A.

Non repudiation

B.

Data integrity

C.

Availability

D.

Authentication

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Questions 59

Check Point recommends that you back up systems running Check Point products. Run your back ups during maintenance windows to limit disruptions to services, improve CPU usage, and simplify time allotment. Which back up method does Check Point recommend anytime outside a maintenance window?

Options:

A.

snapshot

B.

backup

C.

backup_export

D.

migrate export

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Questions 60

What tool exports the Management Configuration into a single file?

Options:

A.

CPConfig_Export

B.

Backup

C.

Upgrade_Export

D.

migrate export

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Questions 61

Check Point recommends that you back up systems running Check Point products. Run your back ups during maintenance windows to limit disruptions to services, improve CPU usage, and simplify time allotment. Which back up method does Check Point recommend every couple of months, depending on how frequently you make changes to the network or policy?

Options:

A.

migrate export

B.

upgrade_export

C.

snapshot

D.

backup

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Questions 62

What process is responsible for transferring the policy file from SmartCenter to the Gateway?

Options:

A.

CPD

B.

FWM

C.

CPRID

D.

FWD

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Questions 63

MegaCorps' disaster recovery plan is past due for an update to the backup and restore section to enjoy the benefits of the new distributed R77 installation. You must propose a plan that meets the following required and desired objectives:

Required: Security Policy repository must be backed up no less frequently than every 24 hours.

Desired: Back up R77 components enforcing the Security Policies at least once a week.

Desired: Back up R77 logs at least once a week.

You develop a disaster recovery plan proposing the following:

The corporate IT change review committee decides your plan:

Options:

A.

meets the required objective and only one desired objective.

B.

meets the required objective and both desired objectives.

C.

meets the rquired objective but does not meet either deisred objective.

D.

does not meet the required objective.

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Questions 64

David wants to manage hundreds of gateways using a central management tool. What tool would David use to accomplish his goal?

Options:

A.

SmartDashboard

B.

SmartBlade

C.

SmartLSM

D.

SmartProvisioning

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Questions 65

How do you enable SecureXL (command line) on GAiA?

Options:

A.

fwaccel on

B.

fw securexl on

C.

fw accel on

D.

fwsecurexl on

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Questions 66

What process manages the dynamic routing protocols (OSPF, RIP, etc.) on GAiA?

Options:

A.

routed

B.

There's no separate process, but the Linux default router can take care of that.

C.

routerd

D.

arouted

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Questions 67

The process _____ is responsible for GUI Client communication with the SmartCenter.

Options:

A.

CPGUI

B.

CPD

C.

FWD

D.

FWM

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Questions 68

The process _____ is responsible for Policy compilation.

Options:

A.

FWM

B.

CPD

C.

FWCMP

D.

CPLMD

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Questions 69

Choose the ClusterXL process that is defined be default as a critical device?

Options:

A.

cpp

B.

fwm

C.

assld

D.

fwd

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Questions 70

You configure a Check Point QoS Rule Base with two rules: an HTTP rule with a weight of 40, and the Default Rule with a weight of 10. If the only traffic passing through your QoS Module is HTTP traffic, what percent of bandwidth will be allocated to the HTTP traffic?

Options:

A.

80%

B.

50%

C.

40%

D.

100%

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Questions 71

How do you verify the Check Point kernel running on a firewall?

Options:

A.

fw ver -k

B.

fw ctl pstat

C.

fw ctl get kernel

D.

fw kernel

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Questions 72

In GAiA, if one is unsure about a possible command, what command lists all possible commands.

Options:

A.

show all |grep commands

B.

show configuration

C.

show commands

D.

get all commands

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Questions 73

A Threat Prevention profile is a set of configurations based on the following. Select the right answer.

Options:

A.

Anti-Virus settings, Anti-Bot settings, Threat Emulation settings.

B.

Anti-Virus settings, Anti-Bot settings, Threat Emulation settings, Intrusion-prevention settings.

C.

Anti-Virus settings, Anti-Bot settings, Threat Emulation settings, Intrusion-prevention settings, HTTPS inspection settings.

D.

Anti-Bot settings, Threat Emulation settings, Intrusion-prevention settings, HTTPS inspection settings

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Questions 74

You have pushed a policy to your firewall and you are not able to access the firewall. What command will allow you to remove the current policy from the machine?

Options:

A.

fw purge active

B.

fw purge policy

C.

fw fetch policy

D.

fw unloadlocal

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Questions 75

MicroCorp experienced a security appliance failure. (LEDs of all NICs are off.) The age of the unit required that the RMA-unit be a different model. Will a revert to an existing snapshot bring the new unit up and running?

Options:

A.

There is no dynamic update at reboot.

B.

No. The revert will most probably not match to hard disk.

C.

Yes. Everything is dynamically updated at reboot.

D.

No. At installation the necessary hardware support is selected. The snapshot saves this state.

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Questions 76

Which graded parameters help determine the protections to activate for security and which can be safely deactivated? Select the most correct answer.

Options:

A.

Type, Severity, Confidence level, Performance impact, Geo information.

B.

Severity, Confidence level, Performance impact, Protection type.

C.

Type, Severity, Confidence level, Performance impact.

D.

Type, Severity, Confidence level, Performance impact, Protection type.

Questions 77

Katie has enabled User Directory and applied the license to Security Management Server, Green. Her supervisor has asked her to configure the Password Strength options of the least one digit, one symbol, 8 characters long and include an uppercase character. How should she accomplish this?

Options:

A.

Open the SmartDashboard, Select Global properties, select Identity Awareness; check the boxes for Password must include an upper character, Password must include a digit, Password must include a symbol and change the password length to 8 characters.

B.

Open the SmartDashboard, Select Global properties, select User Authority; check the boxes for Password must include an upper character, Password must include a digit and Password must include a symbol.

C.

Open the SmartDashboard, Select Global Properties, select User Directory, check the boxes for Password must include an uppercase character, Password must include a digit, and Password must include a symbol.

D.

Open the SmartDashboard, Select Global Properties, select User Directory, check the boxes for Password must include an uppercase character, Password must include a digit, Password must include a symbol and change the password length to 8 characters.

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Questions 78

In Gaia, the operating system can be changed to 32-bit or 64-bit, provided the processor supports 64-bit. What command toggles to 64-bit.

Options:

A.

set bitrate 64

B.

set edition default 64

C.

configure edition 64-bit

D.

set edition default 64-bit

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Questions 79

Which statement defines Public Key Infrastructure? Security is provided:

Options:

A.

by authentication.

B.

via both private and public keys, without the use of digital Certificates.

C.

by Certificate Authorities, digital certificates, and public key encryption.

D.

by Certificate Authorities, digital certificates, and two-way symmetric-key encryption.

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Questions 80

There are times when you want to use Link Selection to manage high-traffic VPN connections. With Link Selection you can:

Options:

A.

Assign links to specific VPN communities.

B.

Assign links to use Dynamic DNS.

C.

Set up links for Remote Access.

D.

Use links based on Day/Time.

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Questions 81

You are trying to configure Directional VPN Rule Match in the Rule Base. But the Match column does not have the option to see the Directional Match. You see the following window. What must you enable to see the Directional Match?

Exhibit:

Options:

A.

directional_match (true) in the objects_5_0.C file on Security Management Server

B.

VPN Directional Match on the Gateway object’s VPN tab

C.

VPN Directional Match on the VPN advanced window, in Global Properties

D.

Advanced Routing on each Security Gateway

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Questions 82

There are times when you want to use Link Selection to manage high-traffic VPN connections. With Link Selection you can:

Options:

A.

Assign links to use Dynamic DNS.

B.

Use Load Sharing to distribute VPN traffic.

C.

Use links based on Day/Time.

D.

Use links based on authentication method.

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Questions 83

You want VPN traffic to match packets from internal interfaces. You also want the traffic to exit the Security Gateway bound for all site-to-site VPN Communities, including Remote Access Communities. How should you configure the VPN match rule?

Options:

A.

internal_clear > All_communities

B.

Internal_clear > External_Clear

C.

Communities > Communities

D.

internal_clear > All_GwToGw

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Questions 84

You have three Gateways in a mesh community. Each gateway’s VPN Domain is their internal network as defined on the Topology tab setting All IP Addresses behind Gateway based on Topology information.

You want to test the route-based VPN, so you created VTIs among the Gateways and created static route entries for the VTIs. However, when you test the VPN, you find out the VPN still go through the regular domain IPsec tunnels instead of the routed VTI tunnels.

What is the problem and how do you make the VPN use the VTI tunnels?

Options:

A.

Domain VPN takes precedence over the route-based VTI. To make the VPN go through VTI, remove the Gateways out of the mesh community and replace with a star community

B.

Domain VPN takes precedence over the route-based VTI. To make the VPN go through VTI, use an empty group object as each Gateway’s VPN Domain

C.

Route-based VTI takes precedence over the Domain VPN. To make the VPN go through VTI, use dynamic-routing protocol like OSPF or BGP to route the VTI address to the peer instead of static routes

D.

Route-based VTI takes precedence over the Domain VPN. Troubleshoot the static route entries to insure that they are correctly pointing to the VTI gateway IP.

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Questions 85

Due to some recent performance issues, you are asked to add additional processors to your firewall. If you already have CoreXL enabled, how are you able to increase Kernel instances?

Options:

A.

Once CoreXL is installed you cannot enable additional Kernel instances without reinstalling R76.

B.

In Smart Update, right-click on Firewall Object and choose Add Kernel Instances.

C.

Use cpconfig to reconfigure CoreXL.

D.

Kernel instances are automatically added after process installed and no additional configuration is needed.

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Questions 86

One profile in SmartProvisioning can update:

Options:

A.

Potentially hundreds and thousands of gateways.

B.

Only Clustered Gateways.

C.

Specific gateways.

D.

Profiles are not used for updating, just reporting.

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Questions 87

You want to verify that your Check Point cluster is working correctly.

Which command line tool can you use?

Options:

A.

cphastart -status

B.

cphainfo -s

C.

cphaprob state

D.

cphaconf state

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Questions 88

Which of the following commands shows full synchronization status?

Options:

A.

fw hastat

B.

cphaprob -i list

C.

cphaprob -a if

D.

fw ctl iflist

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Questions 89

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding OSPF configuration on Secure Platform Pro?

Options:

A.

router ospf 1 creates the Router ID for the Security Gateway and should be the same ID for all Gateways.

B.

router ospf 1 creates the Router ID for the Security Gateway and should be different for all Gateways.

C.

router ospf 1 creates an OSPF routing instance and this process ID should be different for each Security Gateway.

D.

router ospf 1 creates an OSPF routing instance and this process ID should be the same on all Gateways.

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Questions 90

You need to publish GaiA routes using the OSPF routing protocol. What is the correct command structure, once entering the route command, to implement OSPF successfully?

Options:

A.

Run cpconfig utility to enable ospf routing

B.

ip route ospfospf network1ospf network2

C.

EnableConfigure terminalRouter ospf [id]Network [network] [wildmask] area [id]

D.

Use DBedit utility to either the objects_5_0.c file

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Questions 91

MultiCorp is running Smartcenter R71 on an IPSO platform and wants to upgrade to a new Appliance with R77. Which migration tool is recommended?

Options:

A.

Download Migration Tool R77 for IPSO and Splat/Linux from Check Point website.

B.

Use already installed Migration Tool.

C.

Use Migration Tool from CD/ISO

D.

Fetch Migration Tool R71 for IPSO and Migration Tool R77 for Splat/Linux from CheckPoint website

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Questions 92

MegaCorp is running Smartcenter R70, some Gateways at R65 and some other Gateways with R60. Management wants to upgrade to the most comprehensive IPv6 support. What should the administrator do first?

Options:

A.

Upgrade Smartcenter to R77 first.

B.

Upgrade R60-Gateways to R65.

C.

Upgrade every unit directly to R77.

D.

Check the ReleaseNotes to verify that every step is supported.

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Questions 93

Paul has just joined the MegaCorp security administration team. Natalie, the administrator, creates a new administrator account for Paul in SmartDashboard and installs the policy. When Paul tries to login it fails. How can Natalie verify whether Paul’s IP address is predefined on the security management server?

Options:

A.

Login to Smart Dashboard, access Properties of the SMS, and verify whether Paul’s IP address is listed.

B.

Type cpconfig on the Management Server and select the option “GUI client List” to see if Paul’s IP address is listed.

C.

Login in to Smart Dashboard, access Global Properties, and select Security Management, to verify whether Paul’s IP address is listed.

D.

Access the WEBUI on the Security Gateway, and verify whether Paul’s IP address is listed as a GUI client.

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Status:
Expired
Exam Code: 156-315.77
Exam Name: Check Point Certified Security Expert
Last Update: Apr 14, 2023
Questions: 754
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