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156-215.81 Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

Bob and Joe both have Administrator Roles on their Gaia Platform. Bob logs in on the WebUI and then Joe logs in through CLI. Choose what BEST describes the following scenario, where Bob and Joe are both logged in:

Options:

A.

Since they both are logged in on different interfaces, they will both be able to make changes.

B.

When Joe logs in. Bob will be logged out automatically.

C.

The database will be locked by Bob and Joe will not be able to make any changes.

D.

Bob will receive a prompt that Joe has logged in.

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Questions 5

URL Filtering cannot be used to:

Options:

A.

Control Bandwidth issues

B.

Control Data Security

C.

Improve organizational security

D.

Decrease legal liability

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Questions 6

What is the purpose of the Clean-up Rule?

Options:

A.

To log all traffic that is not explicitly allowed or denied in the Rule Base

B.

To clean up policies found inconsistent with the compliance blade reports

C.

To remove all rules that could have a conflict with other rules in the database

D.

To eliminate duplicate log entries in the Security Gateway

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Questions 7

When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?

Options:

A.

None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself.

B.

SmartConsole

C.

SecureClient

D.

SmartEvent

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Questions 8

Which one of the following is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Ordered policy is a sub-policy within another policy

B.

One policy can be either inline or ordered, but not both

C.

Inline layer can be defined as a rule action

D.

Pre-R80 Gateways do not support ordered layers

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Questions 9

Fill in the blank: By default, the SIC certificates issued by R80 Management Server are based on the ____________ algorithm.

Options:

A.

SHA-256

B.

SHA-200

C.

MD5

D.

SHA-128

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Questions 10

Fill in the blank: When LDAP is integrated with Check Point Security Management, it is then referred to as _______.

Options:

A.

User Center

B.

User Administration

C.

User Directory

D.

UserCheck

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Questions 11

Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members in CLI?

Options:

A.

show cluster state

B.

show active cluster

C.

show clusters

D.

show running cluster

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Questions 12

When configuring Anti-Spoofing, which tracking options can an Administrator select?

Options:

A.

Log, Alert, None

B.

Log, Allow Packets, Email

C.

Drop Packet, Alert, None

D.

Log, Send SNMP Trap, Email

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Questions 13

After the initial installation on Check Point appliance, you notice that the Management interface and default gateway are incorrect. Which commands could you use to set the IP to 192.168.80.200/24 and default gateway to 192.168.80.1.

Options:

A.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24set static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config

B.

add interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0add static-route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config

C.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0add static-route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config

D.

add interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24add static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config

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Questions 14

What is the default shell for the command line interface?

Options:

A.

Clish

B.

Admin

C.

Normal

D.

Expert

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Questions 15

Fill in the blank: ____________ is the Gaia command that turns the server off.

Options:

A.

sysdown

B.

exit

C.

halt

D.

shut-down

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Questions 16

Which command shows the installed licenses in Expert mode?

Options:

A.

print cplic

B.

show licenses

C.

fwlic print

D.

cplic print

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Questions 17

How can the changes made by an administrator before publishing the session be seen by a superuser administrator?

Options:

A.

By impersonating the administrator with the ‘Login as…’ option

B.

They cannot be seen

C.

From the SmartView Tracker audit log

D.

From Manage and Settings > Sessions, right click on the session and click ‘View Changes…’

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Questions 18

Check Point ClusterXL Active/Active deployment is used when:

Options:

A.

Only when there is Multicast solution set up

B.

There is Load Sharing solution set up

C.

Only when there is Unicast solution set up

D.

There is High Availability solution set up

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Questions 19

Which of the following is considered a "Subscription Blade", requiring renewal every 1-3 years?

Options:

A.

IPS blade

B.

IPSEC VPN Blade

C.

Identity Awareness Blade

D.

Firewall Blade

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Questions 20

An administrator wishes to use Application objects in a rule in their policy but there are no Application objects listed as options to add when clicking the"+" to add new items to the "Services & Applications" column of a rule. What should be done to fix this?

Options:

A.

The administrator should drag-and-drop the needed Application objects from the Object Explorer into the new rule

B.

The "Application Control" blade should be enabled on a gateway

C.

"Applications & URL Filtering" should first be enabled on the policy layer where the rule is being created.

D.

The administrator should first create some applications to add to the rule.

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Questions 21

From SecureXL perspective, what are the tree paths of traffic flow:

Options:

A.

Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path

B.

Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path

C.

Firewall Path; Accept Path; Drop Path

D.

Firewall Path; Accelerated Path; Medium Path

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Questions 22

When comparing Stateful Inspection and Packet Filtering, what is a benefit that Stateful Inspection offers over Packer Filtering?

Options:

A.

Stateful Inspection offers unlimited connections because of virtual memory usage.

B.

Stateful Inspection offers no benefits over Packet Filtering.

C.

Stateful Inspection does not use memory to record the protocol used by the connection.

D.

Only one rule is required for each connection.

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Questions 23

Fill in the bank: In Office mode, a Security Gateway assigns a remote client to an IP address once___________.

Options:

A.

the user connects and authenticates

B.

office mode is initiated

C.

the user requests a connection

D.

the user connects

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Questions 24

Please choose correct command syntax to add an “emailserver1” host with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA management CLI?

Options:

A.

hostname myHost12 ip-address 10.50.23.90

B.

mgmt add host name ip-address 10.50.23.90

C.

add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

D.

mgmt add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

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Questions 25

While enabling the Identity Awareness blade the Identity Awareness wizard does not automatically detect the windows domain Why does it not detect the windows domain?

Options:

A.

SmartConsole machine is not part of the domain

B.

Security Gateway is not part of the Domain

C.

Identity Awareness is not enabled on Global properties

D.

Security Management Server is not part of the domain

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Questions 26

When configuring LDAP User Directory integration, Changes applied to a User Directory template are:

Options:

A.

Reflected immediately for all users who are using template.

B.

Not reflected for any users unless the local user template is changed.

C.

Reflected for all users who are using that template and if the local user template is changed as well.

D.

Not reflected for any users who are using that template.

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Questions 27

Using R80 Smart Console, what does a “pencil icon” in a rule mean?

Options:

A.

I have changed this rule

B.

Someone else has changed this rule

C.

This rule is managed by check point’s SOC

D.

This rule can’t be changed as it’s an implied rule

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Questions 28

Which one of the following is a way that the objects can be manipulated using the new API integration in R80 Management?

Options:

A.

Microsoft Publisher

B.

JSON

C.

Microsoft Word

D.

RC4 Encryption

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Questions 29

What is the main difference between Static NAT and Hide NAT?

Options:

A.

Static NAT only allows incoming connections to protect your network.

B.

Static NAT allow incoming and outgoing connections. Hide NAT only allows outgoing connections.

C.

Static NAT only allows outgoing connections. Hide NAT allows incoming and outgoing connections.

D.

Hide NAT only allows incoming connections to protect your network.

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Questions 30

What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation?

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete

B.

Threat Extraction always delivers a file and takes less than a second to complete

C.

Threat Emulation never delivers a file that takes less than a second to complete

D.

Threat Extraction never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete

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Questions 31

Which type of attack can a firewall NOT prevent?

Options:

A.

Network Bandwidth Saturation

B.

Buffer Overflow

C.

SYN Flood

D.

SQL Injection

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Questions 32

After trust has been established between the Check Point components, what is TRUE about name and IP-address changes?

Options:

A.

Security Gateway IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust

B.

The Security Gateway name cannot be changed in command line without re-establishing trust

C.

The Security Management Server name cannot be changed in SmartConsole without re-establishing trust

D.

The Security Management Server IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust

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Questions 33

Which option, when applied to a rule, allows traffic to VPN gateways in specific VPN communities?

Options:

A.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

Specific VPN Communities

D.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

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Questions 34

Fill in the blanks: The _______ collects logs and sends them to the _______.

Options:

A.

Log server; Security Gateway

B.

Log server; security management server

C.

Security management server; Security Gateway

D.

Security Gateways; log server

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Questions 35

Which information is included in the “Extended Log” tracking option, but is not included in the “Log” tracking option?

Options:

A.

file attributes

B.

application information

C.

destination port

D.

data type information

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Questions 36

At what point is the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) created?

Options:

A.

During the primary Security Management Server installation process.

B.

Upon creation of a certificate

C.

When an administrator decides to create one

D.

When an administrator initially logs into SmartConsole.

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Questions 37

Fill in the blank: An identity server uses a ___________ for user authentication.

Options:

A.

Shared secret

B.

Certificate

C.

One-time password

D.

Token

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Questions 38

Is it possible to have more than one administrator connected to a Security Management Server at once?

Options:

A.

Yes, but only if all connected administrators connect with read-only permissions.

B.

Yes, but objects edited by one administrator will be locked for editing by others until the session is published.

C.

No, only one administrator at a time can connect to a Security Management Server

D.

Yes, but only one of those administrators will have write-permissions. All others will have read-only permission.

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Questions 39

Fill in the blanks: In _____ NAT, Only the ________ is translated.

Options:

A.

Static; source

B.

Simple; source

C.

Hide; destination

D.

Hide; source

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Questions 40

How are the backups stored in Check Point appliances?

Options:

A.

Saved as*.tar under /var/log/CPbackup/backups

B.

Saved as*tgz under /var/CPbackup

C.

Saved as*tar under /var/CPbackup

D.

Saved as*tgz under /var/log/CPbackup/backups

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Questions 41

You are going to perform a major upgrade. Which back up solution should you use to ensure your database can be restored on that device?

Options:

A.

backup

B.

logswitch

C.

Database Revision

D.

snapshot

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Questions 42

When connected to the Check Point R80 Management Server using the SmartConsole the first administrator to connect has a lock on:

Options:

A.

Only the objects being modified in the Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes using a special session as long as they all connect from the same LAN network.

B.

The entire Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes only if the first administrator switches to Read-only.

C.

The entire Management Database and all sessions and other administrators can connect only as Read-only.

D.

Only the objects being modified in his session of the Management Database and other administrators can connect to make changes using different sessions.

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Questions 43

Fill in the blank: In order to install a license, it must first be added to the ____________.

Options:

A.

User Center

B.

Package repository

C.

Download Center Web site

D.

License and Contract repository

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Questions 44

What are the three deployment options available for a security gateway?

Options:

A.

Standalone, Distributed, and Bridge Mode

B.

Bridge Mode, Remote, and Standalone

C.

Remote, Standalone, and Distributed

D.

Distributed, Bridge Mode, and Remote

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Questions 45

Fill in the blank: An LDAP server holds one or more ______________.

Options:

A.

Server Units

B.

Administrator Units

C.

Account Units

D.

Account Servers

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Questions 46

Fill in the blank: SmartConsole, SmartEvent GUI client, and ___________ allow viewing of billions of consolidated logs and shows them as prioritized security events.

Options:

A.

SmartView Web Application

B.

SmartTracker

C.

SmartMonitor

D.

SmartReporter

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Questions 47

True or False: More than one administrator can log into the Security Management Server with SmartConsole with write permission at the same time.

Options:

A.

True, every administrator works on a different database that Is independent of the other administrators

B.

False, this feature has to be enabled in the Global Properties.

C.

True, every administrator works in a session that is independent of the other administrators

D.

False, only one administrator can login with write permission

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Questions 48

What is the order of NAT priorities?

Options:

A.

IP pool NAT static NAT. hide NAT

B.

Static NAT hide NAT, IP pool NAT

C.

Static NAT, IP pool NAT hide NAT

D.

Static NAT automatic NAT hide NAT

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Questions 49

What is the main objective when using Application Control?

Options:

A.

To filter out specific content.

B.

To assist the firewall blade with handling traffic.

C.

To see what users are doing.

D.

Ensure security and privacy of information.

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Questions 50

Gaia includes Check Point Upgrade Service Engine (CPUSE), which can directly receive updates for what components?

Options:

A.

The Security Gateway (SG) and Security Management Server (SMS) software and the CPUSE engine.

B.

Licensed Check Point products for the Gala operating system and the Gaia operating system itself.

C.

The CPUSE engine and the Gaia operating system.

D.

The Gaia operating system only.

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Questions 51

What is the BEST command to view configuration details of all interfaces in Gaia CLISH?

Options:

A.

ifconfig -a

B.

show interfaces

C.

show interfaces detail

D.

show configuration interface

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Questions 52

Which Identity Source(s) should be selected in Identity Awareness for when there is a requirement for a higher level of security for sensitive servers?

Options:

A.

AD Query

B.

Terminal Servers Endpoint Identity Agent

C.

Endpoint Identity Agent and Browser-Based Authentication

D.

RADIUS and Account Logon

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Questions 53

What are the advantages of a “shared policy” in R80?

Options:

A.

Allows the administrator to share a policy between all the users identified by the Security Gateway

B.

Allows the administrator to share a policy between all the administrators managing the Security Management Server

C.

Allows the administrator to share a policy so that it is available to use in another Policy Package

D.

Allows the administrator to install a policy on one Security Gateway and it gets installed on another managed Security Gateway

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Questions 54

Which of the following is NOT a role of the SmartCenter:

Options:

A.

Status monitoring

B.

Policy configuration

C.

Certificate authority

D.

Address translation

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Questions 55

Fill in the blank: A(n)_____rule is created by an administrator and configured to allow or block traffic based on specified criteria.

Options:

A.

Inline

B.

Explicit

C.

Implicit drop

D.

Implicit accept

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Questions 56

You have enabled "Extended Log" as a tracking option to a security rule. However, you are still not seeing any data type information. What is the MOST likely reason?

Options:

A.

Identity Awareness is not enabled.

B.

Log Trimming is enabled.

C.

Logging has disk space issues

D.

Content Awareness is not enabled.

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Questions 57

Log query results can be exported to what file format?

Options:

A.

Word Document (docx)

B.

Comma Separated Value (csv)

C.

Portable Document Format (pdf)

D.

Text (txt)

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Questions 58

Which icon in the WebUI indicates that read/write access is enabled?

Options:

A.

Pencil

B.

Padlock

C.

Book

D.

Eyeglasses

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Questions 59

An administrator is creating an IPsec site-to-site VPN between his corporate office and branch office. Both offices are protected by Check Point Security Gateway managed by the same Security Management Server (SMS). While configuring the VPN community to specify the pre-shared secret, the administrator did not find a box to input the pre-shared secret. Why does it not allow him to specify the pre-shared secret?

Options:

A.

The Gateway is an SMB device

B.

The checkbox “Use only Shared Secret for all external members” is not checked

C.

Certificate based Authentication is the only authentication method available between two Security Gateway managed by the same SMS

D.

Pre-shared secret is already configured in Global Properties

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Questions 60

What protocol is specifically used for clustered environments?

Options:

A.

Clustered Protocol

B.

Synchronized Cluster Protocol

C.

Control Cluster Protocol

D.

Cluster Control Protocol

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Questions 61

In which deployment is the security management server and Security Gateway installed on the same appliance?

Options:

A.

Standalone

B.

Remote

C.

Distributed

D.

Bridge Mode

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Questions 62

Which configuration element determines which traffic should be encrypted into a VPN tunnel vs. sent in the clear?

Options:

A.

The firewall topologies

B.

NAT Rules

C.

The Rule Base

D.

The VPN Domains

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Questions 63

If the Active Security Management Server fails or if it becomes necessary to change the Active to Standby, the following steps must be taken to prevent data loss. Providing the Active Security Management Server is responsible, which of these steps should NOT be performed:

Options:

A.

Rename the hostname of the Standby member to match exactly the hostname of the Active member.

B.

Change the Standby Security Management Server to Active.

C.

Change the Active Security Management Server to Standby.

D.

Manually synchronize the Active and Standby Security Management Servers.

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Questions 64

What is the purpose of a Clean-up Rule?

Options:

A.

Clean-up Rules do not server any purpose.

B.

Provide a metric for determining unnecessary rules.

C.

To drop any traffic that is not explicitly allowed.

D.

Used to better optimize a policy.

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Questions 65

What is the default tracking option of a rule?

Options:

A.

Tracking

B.

Log

C.

None

D.

Alert

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Questions 66

When you upload a package or license to the appropriate repository in SmartUpdate. where is the package or license stored?

Options:

A.

SmartConsole installed device

B.

Check Point user center

C.

Security Management Server

D.

Security Gateway

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Questions 67

In SmartConsole, objects are used to represent physical and virtual network components and also some logical components. These objects are divided into several categories. Which of the following is NOT an objects category?

Options:

A.

Limit

B.

Resource

C.

Custom Application / Site

D.

Network Object

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Questions 68

Which policy type is used to enforce bandwidth and traffic control rules?

Options:

A.

Access Control

B.

Threat Emulation

C.

Threat Prevention

D.

QoS

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Questions 69

The default shell of the Gaia CLI is cli.sh. How do you change from the cli.sh shell to the advanced shell to run Linux commands?

Options:

A.

Execute the command 'enable' in the cli.sh shell

B.

Execute the 'conf t' command in the cli.sh shell

C.

Execute the command 'expert' in the cli.sh shell

D.

Execute the 'exit' command in the cli.sh shell

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Questions 70

Which SmartConsole tab shows logs and detects security threats, providing a centralized display of potential attack patterns from all network devices?

Options:

A.

Gateway and Servers

B.

Logs and Monitor

C.

Manage Seeting

D.

Security Policies

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Questions 71

Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the traffic direction?

Options:

A.

Incoming

B.

Internal

C.

External

D.

Outgoing

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Questions 72

What is the RFC number that act as a best practice guide for NAT?

Options:

A.

RFC 1939

B.

RFC 1950

C.

RFC 1918

D.

RFC 793

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Questions 73

R80 is supported by which of the following operating systems:

Options:

A.

Windows only

B.

Gaia only

C.

Gaia, SecurePlatform, and Windows

D.

SecurePlatform only

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Questions 74

John is using Management HA. Which Smartcenter should be connected to for making changes?

Options:

A.

secondary Smartcenter

B.

active Smartcenter

C.

connect virtual IP of Smartcenter HA

D.

primary Smartcenter

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Questions 75

True or False: The destination server for Security Gateway logs depends on a Security Management Server configuration.

Options:

A.

False, log servers are configured on the Log Server General Properties

B.

True, all Security Gateways will only forward logs with a SmartCenter Server configuration

C.

True, all Security Gateways forward logs automatically to the Security Management Server

D.

False, log servers are enabled on the Security Gateway General Properties

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Questions 76

Which GUI tool can be used to view and apply Check Point licenses?

Options:

A.

cpconfig

B.

Management Command Line

C.

SmartConsole

D.

SmartUpdate

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Questions 77

Which option, when applied to a rule, allows all encrypted and non-VPN traffic that matches the rule?

Options:

A.

All Site-to-Site VPN Communities

B.

Accept all encrypted traffic

C.

All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)

D.

Specific VPN Communities

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Questions 78

Using ClusterXL, what statement is true about the Sticky Decision Function?

Options:

A.

Can only be changed for Load Sharing implementations

B.

All connections are processed and synchronized by the pivot

C.

Is configured using cpconfig

D.

Is only relevant when using SecureXL

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Questions 79

Which Check Point software blade monitors Check Point devices and provides a picture of network and security performance?

Options:

A.

Application Control

B.

Threat Emulation

C.

Logging and Status

D.

Monitoring

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Questions 80

You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp. You received a call that one of the users is unable to browse the Internet on their new tablet which is connected to the company wireless, which goes through a Check Point Gateway. How would you review the logs to see what is blocking this traffic?

Options:

A.

Open SmartLog and connect remotely to the wireless controller

B.

Open SmartEvent to see why they are being blocked

C.

Open SmartDashboard and review the logs tab

D.

From SmartConsole, go to the Log & Monitor and filter for the IP address of the tablet.

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Questions 81

When configuring LDAP with User Directory integration, changes applied to a User Directory template are:

Options:

A.

Not reflected for any users unless the local user template is changed.

B.

Not reflected for any users who are using that template.

C.

Reflected for ail users who are using that template and if the local user template is changed as well.

D.

Reflected immediately for all users who are using that template.

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Questions 82

Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Capsule?

Options:

A.

Capsule Docs

B.

Capsule Cloud

C.

Capsule Enterprise

D.

Capsule Workspace

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Questions 83

Which of the following is used to enforce changes made to a Rule Base?

Options:

A.

Publish database

B.

Save changes

C.

Install policy

D.

Activate policy

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Questions 84

Which two of these Check Point Protocols are used by ?

Options:

A.

ELA and CPD

B.

FWD and LEA

C.

FWD and CPLOG

D.

ELA and CPLOG

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Questions 85

What is the BEST method to deploy Identity Awareness for roaming users?

Options:

A.

Use Office Mode

B.

Use identity agents

C.

Share user identities between gateways

D.

Use captive portal

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Questions 86

Which tool is used to enable cluster membership on a Gateway?

Options:

A.

SmartUpdate

B.

cpconfig

C.

SmartConsole

D.

sysconfig

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Questions 87

What is required for a certificate-based VPN tunnel between two gateways with separate management systems?

Options:

A.

Shared Secret Passwords

B.

Unique Passwords

C.

Shared User Certificates

D.

Mutually Trusted Certificate Authorities

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Questions 88

Which tool is used to enable ClusterXL?

Options:

A.

SmartUpdate

B.

cpconfig

C.

SmartConsole

D.

sysconfig

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Questions 89

Vanessa is attempting to log into the Gaia Web Portal. She is able to login successfully. Then she tries the same username and password for SmartConsole but gets the message in the screenshot image below. She has checked that the IP address of the Server is correct and the username and password she used to login into Gaia is also correct.

What is the most likely reason?

Options:

A.

Check Point R80 SmartConsole authentication is more secure than in previous versions and Vanessa requires a special authentication key for R80 SmartConsole. Check that the correct key details are used.

B.

Check Point Management software authentication details are not automatically the same as the Operating System authentication details. Check that she is using the correct details.

C.

SmartConsole Authentication is not allowed for Vanessa until a Super administrator has logged in first and cleared any other administrator sessions.

D.

Authentication failed because Vanessa’s username is not allowed in the new Threat Prevention console update checks even though these checks passed with Gaia.

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Questions 90

Which is a suitable command to check whether Drop Templates are activated or not?

Options:

A.

fw ctl get int activate_drop_templates

B.

fwaccel stat

C.

fwaccel stats

D.

fw ctl templates –d

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Questions 91

What kind of NAT enables Source Port Address Translation by default?

Options:

A.

Automatic Static NAT

B.

Manual Hide NAT

C.

Automatic Hide NAT

D.

Manual Static NAT

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Questions 92

Most Check Point deployments use Gaia but which product deployment utilizes special Check Point code (with unification in R81.10)?

Options:

A.

Enterprise Network Security Appliances

B.

Rugged Appliances

C.

Scalable Platforms

D.

Small Business and Branch Office Appliances

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Questions 93

What is the difference between SSL VPN and IPSec VPN?

Options:

A.

IPSec VPN does not require installation of a resident VPN client

B.

SSL VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client

C.

SSL VPN and IPSec VPN are the same

D.

IPSec VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client and SSL VPN requires only an installed Browser

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Questions 94

Consider the Global Properties following settings:

The selected option “Accept Domain Name over UDP (Queries)” means:

Options:

A.

UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed only through interfaces with external anti-spoofing topology and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

B.

All UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed through all interfaces and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

C.

No UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed through all interfaces and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

D.

All UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed by first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.

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Questions 95

Which Security Blade needs to be enabled in order to sanitize and remove potentially malicious content from files, before those files enter the network?

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

Anti-Malware

C.

Anti-Virus

D.

Threat Extraction

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Questions 96

What needs to be configured if the NAT property ‘Translate destination on client side’ is not enabled in Global properties?

Options:

A.

A host route to route to the destination IP

B.

Use the file local.arp to add the ARP entries for NAT to work

C.

Nothing, the Gateway takes care of all details necessary

D.

Enabling ‘Allow bi-directional NAT’ for NAT to work correctly

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Questions 97

Application Control/URL filtering database library is known as:

Options:

A.

Application database

B.

AppWiki

C.

Application-Forensic Database

D.

Application Library

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Questions 98

Which of these is NOT a feature or benefit of Application Control?

Options:

A.

Eliminate unknown and unwanted applications in your network to reduce IT complexity and application risk.

B.

Identify and control which applications are in your IT environment and which to add to the IT environment.

C.

Scans the content of files being downloaded by users in order to make policy decisions.

D.

Automatically identify trusted software that has authorization to run

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Questions 99

Which Check Point supported authentication scheme typically requires a user to possess a token?

Options:

A.

RADIUS

B.

Check Point password

C.

TACACS

D.

SecurlD

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Questions 100

Identity Awareness lets an administrator easily configure network access and auditing based on three items Choose the correct statement.

Options:

A.

Network location, the identity of a user and the active directory membership.

B.

Network location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine.

C.

Network location, the telephone number of a user and the UID of a machine

D.

Geographical location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine

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Questions 101

Which is NOT an encryption algorithm that can be used in an IPSEC Security Association (Phase 2)?

Options:

A.

AES-GCM-256

B.

AES-CBC-256

C.

AES-GCM-128

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Questions 102

Customer’s R80 management server needs to be upgraded to R80.10. What is the best upgrade method when the management server is not connected to the Internet?

Options:

A.

Export R80 configuration, clean install R80.10 and import the configuration

B.

CPUSE online upgrade

C.

CPUSE offline upgrade

D.

SmartUpdate upgrade

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Questions 103

There are four policy types available for each policy package. What are those policy types?

Options:

A.

Access Control, Threat Prevention, Mobile Access and HTTPS Inspection

B.

Access Control, Custom Threat Prevention, Autonomous Threat Prevention and HTTPS Inspection

C.

There are only three policy types: Access Control, Threat Prevention and NAT.

D.

Access Control, Threat Prevention, NAT and HTTPS Inspection

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Questions 104

What is the default shell of Gaia CLI?

Options:

A.

clish

B.

Monitor

C.

Read-only

D.

Bash

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Questions 105

In order to modify Security Policies, the administrator can use which of the following tools? (Choose the best answer.)

Options:

A.

SmartConsole and WebUI on the Security Management Server.

B.

SmartConsole or mgmt_cli (API) on any computer where SmartConsole is installed.

C.

Command line of the Security Management Server or mgmt_cli.exe on any Windows computer.

D.

mgmt_cli (API) or WebUI on Security Gateway and SmartConsole on the Security Management Server.

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Questions 106

Which back up method uses the command line to create an image of the OS?

Options:

A.

System backup

B.

Save Configuration

C.

Migrate

D.

snapshot

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Questions 107

You want to set up a VPN tunnel to a external gateway. You had to make sure that the IKE P2 SA will only be established between two subnets and not all subnets defined in the default VPN domain of your gateway.

Options:

A.

In the SmartConsole create a dedicated VPN Community for both Gateways. On the Management add the following line to the $FWDIR/conf/user.def.FWI file subnet_for_range_and_peer = { );

B.

In the SmartConsole create a dedicated VPN Community for both Gateways. Selecting the local gateway in the Community you can set the VPN Domain to 'User defined' and put in the local network.

C.

In the SmartConsole create a dedicated VPN Community for both Gateways. On the Gateway add the following line to the $FWDlR/cont/user.def.FW1 file subnet_for_range_and_peer = { };

D.

In the SmartConsole create a dedicated VPN Community for both Gateways. Go to Security Policies / Access Control and create an in-line layer rule with source and destination containing the two networks used for the IKE P2 SA. Put the name of the Community in the VPN column.

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Questions 108

How many users can have read/write access in Gaia Operating System at one time?

Options:

A.

One

B.

Three

C.

Two

D.

Infinite

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Questions 109

Which firewall daemon is responsible for the FW CLI commands?

Options:

A.

fwd

B.

fwm

C.

cpm

D.

cpd

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Questions 110

Which of the following is NOT an authentication scheme used for accounts created through SmartConsole?

Options:

A.

RADIUS

B.

Check Point password

C.

Security questions

D.

SecurID

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Questions 111

What object type would you use to grant network access to an LDAP user group?

Options:

A.

Access Role

B.

User Group

C.

SmartDirectory Group

D.

Group Template

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Questions 112

Security Zones do no work with what type of defined rule?

Options:

A.

Application Control rule

B.

Manual NAT rule

C.

IPS bypass rule

D.

Firewall rule

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Questions 113

To quickly review when Threat Prevention signatures were last updated, which Threat Tool would an administrator use?

Options:

A.

Protections

B.

IPS Protections

C.

Profiles

D.

ThreatWiki

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Questions 114

Fill in the blank: The_____is used to obtain identification and security information about network users.

Options:

A.

User index

B.

UserCheck

C.

User Directory

D.

User server

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Questions 115

Secure Internal Communication (SIC) is handled by what process?

Options:

A.

CPM

B.

HTTPS

C.

FWD

D.

CPD

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Questions 116

Which default Gaia user has full read/write access?

Options:

A.

admin

B.

superuser

C.

monitor

D.

altuser

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Questions 117

Fill in the blank: Browser-based Authentication sends users to a web page to acquire identities using ___________.

Options:

A.

Captive Portal and Transparent Kerberos Authentication

B.

UserCheck

C.

User Directory

D.

Captive Portal

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Questions 118

Fill in the blank RADIUS protocol uses_____to communicate with the gateway

Options:

A.

UDP

B.

CCP

C.

TDP

D.

HTTP

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Questions 119

Where is the “Hit Count” feature enabled or disabled in SmartConsole?

Options:

A.

On the Policy Package

B.

On each Security Gateway

C.

On the Policy layer

D.

In Global Properties for the Security Management Server

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Questions 120

What default layers are included when creating a new policy layer?

Options:

A.

Application Control, URL Filtering and Threat Prevention

B.

Access Control, Threat Prevention and HTTPS Inspection

C.

Firewall, Application Control and IPSec VPN

D.

Firewall, Application Control and IPS

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Exam Code: 156-215.81
Exam Name: Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20
Last Update: Apr 19, 2024
Questions: 400
$64  $159.99
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