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200-201 Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

Refer to the exhibit.

An analyst received this alert from the Cisco ASA device, and numerous activity logs were produced. How should this type of evidence be categorized?

Options:

A.

indirect

B.

circumstantial

C.

corroborative

D.

best

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Questions 5

What does an attacker use to determine which network ports are listening on a potential target device?

Options:

A.

man-in-the-middle

B.

port scanning

C.

SQL injection

D.

ping sweep

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Questions 6

What is the key difference between mandatory access control (MAC) and discretionary access control (DAC)?

Options:

A.

DAC is controlled by the OS, and MAC is controlled by the owner of the access list.

B.

DAC is the most strict access control, and MAC is object-based access.

C.

MAC is controlled by the OS, and DAC is controlled by the owner of the access list.

D.

MAC is the most strict access control, and DAC is object-based access.

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Questions 7

Which tool provides a full packet capture from network traffic?

Options:

A.

Nagios

B.

CAINE

C.

Hydra

D.

Wireshark

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Questions 8

An analyst is investigating an incident in a SOC environment. Which method is used to identify a session from a group of logs?

Options:

A.

sequence numbers

B.

IP identifier

C.

5-tuple

D.

timestamps

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Questions 9

What is the practice of giving employees only those permissions necessary to perform their specific role within an organization?

Options:

A.

least privilege

B.

need to know

C.

integrity validation

D.

due diligence

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Questions 10

How is SQL injection prevented?

Options:

A.

Address space layout randomization

B.

Validate and sanitize user input

C.

...in the web server as a nonprivileged user

D.

...cost profiling

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Questions 11

Refer to the exhibit.

A company employee is connecting to mail google.com from an endpoint device. The website is loaded but with an error. What is occurring?

Options:

A.

DNS hijacking attack

B.

Endpoint local time is invalid.

C.

Certificate is not in trusted roots.

D.

man-m-the-middle attack

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Questions 12

Refer to the exhibit. A SOC engineer is analyzing Cuckoo Sandbox report for a file that has been identified as suspicious by the endpoint security system. What is the state of the file?

Options:

A.

The file was identified as PE32 executable with a high level of entropy to bypass AV via encryption.

B.

The file was detected as an executable binary file, but no suspicious activity was detected and it is false positive.

C.

The file was detected as executable and was marked by the SSDeep hashing algorithm as suspicious.

D.

The file identified as an executable binary for Microsoft Word with macros creating hidden process via PowerShell.

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Questions 13

Which of these describes volatile evidence?

Options:

A.

registers and cache

B.

logs

C.

usernames

D.

disk and removable drives

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Questions 14

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the potential threat identified in this Stealthwatch dashboard?

Options:

A.

Host 10.201.3.149 is sending data to 152.46.6.91 using TCP/443.

B.

Host 152.46.6.91 is being identified as a watchlist country for data transfer.

C.

Traffic to 152.46.6.149 is being denied by an Advanced Network Control policy.

D.

Host 10.201.3.149 is receiving almost 19 times more data than is being sent to host 152.46.6.91.

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Questions 15

Syslog collecting software is installed on the server For the log containment, a disk with FAT type partition is used An engineer determined that log files are being corrupted when the 4 GB tile size is exceeded. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Add space to the existing partition and lower the retention period.

B.

Use FAT32 to exceed the limit of 4 GB.

C.

Use the Ext4 partition because it can hold files up to 16 TB.

D.

Use NTFS partition for log file containment

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Questions 16

How does a certificate authority impact security?

Options:

A.

It validates client identity when communicating with the server.

B.

It authenticates client identity when requesting an SSL certificate.

C.

It authenticates domain identity when requesting an SSL certificate.

D.

It validates the domain identity of the SSL certificate.

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Questions 17

Which type of evidence supports a theory or an assumption that results from initial evidence?

Options:

A.

probabilistic

B.

indirect

C.

best

D.

corroborative

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Questions 18

Which items is an end-point application greylist used?

Options:

A.

Items that have been established as malicious

B.

Items that have been established as authorized

C.

Items that have been installed with a baseline

D.

Items before being established as harmful or malicious

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Questions 19

How is NetFlow different from traffic mirroring?

Options:

A.

NetFlow collects metadata and traffic mirroring clones data.

B.

Traffic mirroring impacts switch performance and NetFlow does not.

C.

Traffic mirroring costs less to operate than NetFlow.

D.

NetFlow generates more data than traffic mirroring.

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Questions 20

An automotive company provides new types of engines and special brakes for rally sports cars. The company has a database of inventions and patents for their engines and technical information Customers can access the database through the company's website after they register and identify themselves. Which type of protected data is accessed by customers?

Options:

A.

IP data

B.

PII data

C.

PSI data

D.

PHI data

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Questions 21

What describes the difference when comparing attack surface and vulnerability in practice?

Options:

A.

Updating the OS reduces the attack surface, and installing separate optional patches remediates and solves vulnerabilities within the system.

B.

Patching SMB vulnerability is an attack surface reduction, and the open unused ports are the vulnerabilities within the system.

C.

A SMB server that can allow remote code execution is a vulnerability, and closing port 139 is an attack surface reduction.

D.

The attack surface is the SQL injection targeted on the database, and the database tables are the vulnerabilities that might be exploited.

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Questions 22

Drag and drop the security concept from the left onto the example of that concept on the right.

Options:

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Questions 23

A security engineer deploys an enterprise-wide host/endpoint technology for all of the company's corporate PCs. Management requests the engineer to block a selected set of applications on all PCs.

Which technology should be used to accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

application whitelisting/blacklisting

B.

network NGFW

C.

host-based IDS

D.

antivirus/antispyware software

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Questions 24

What is vulnerability management?

Options:

A.

A security practice focused on clarifying and narrowing intrusion points.

B.

A security practice of performing actions rather than acknowledging the threats.

C.

A process to identify and remediate existing weaknesses.

D.

A process to recover from service interruptions and restore business-critical applications

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Questions 25

What is a difference between tampered and untampered disk images?

Options:

A.

Tampered images have the same stored and computed hash.

B.

Untampered images are deliberately altered to preserve as evidence.

C.

Tampered images are used as evidence.

D.

Untampered images are used for forensic investigations.

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Questions 26

What is an evasion technique?

Options:

A.

injecting insecure malicious code into an application or a system

B.

blocking digital data using one or more mathematical methods

C.

building a payload that constructs a nonexistent signature in the antivirus database

D.

deleting update sources from an intrusion prevention system database

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Questions 27

An analyst is using the SIEM platform and must extract a custom property from a Cisco device and capture the phrase, "File: Clean." Which regex must the analyst import?

Options:

A.

File: Clean

B.

^Parent File Clean$

C.

File: Clean (.*)

D.

^File: Clean$

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Questions 28

Refer to the exhibit

An engineer is analyzing DNS response packets that are larger than expected The engineer looks closer and notices a lack of appropriate DNS queries What is occurring?

Options:

A.

DNS hijack attack

B.

DNS amplification attack

C.

DNS tunneling

D.

DNS cache poisoning

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Questions 29

What makes HTTPS traffic difficult to monitor?

Options:

A.

SSL interception

B.

packet header size

C.

signature detection time

D.

encryption

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Questions 30

What is a difference between inline traffic interrogation and traffic mirroring?

Options:

A.

Inline inspection acts on the original traffic data flow

B.

Traffic mirroring passes live traffic to a tool for blocking

C.

Traffic mirroring inspects live traffic for analysis and mitigation

D.

Inline traffic copies packets for analysis and security

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Questions 31

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer received a ticket about a slowed-down web application. The engineer runs the #netstat -an command. How must the engineer interpret the results?

Options:

A.

The web application is receiving a common, legitimate traffic

B.

The engineer must gather more data.

C.

The web application server is under a denial-of-service attack.

D.

The server is under a man-in-the-middle attack between the web application and itsdatabase

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Questions 32

Which tool gives the ability to see session data in real time?

Options:

A.

tcpdstat

B.

trafdump

C.

tcptrace

D.

trafshow

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Questions 33

According to CVSS, what is a description of the attack vector score?

Options:

A.

The metric score will be larger when it is easier to physically touch or manipulate the vulnerable component

B.

It depends on how many physical and logical manipulations are possible on a vulnerable component

C.

The metric score will be larger when a remote attack is more likely.

D.

It depends on how far away the attacker is located and the vulnerable component

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Questions 34

Refer to the exhibit. A SOC analyst is examining the Windows security logs of one of the endpoints. What is the possible reason for this event log?

Options:

A.

Brute force attack

B.

Windows failed to audit logs

C.

Malware Attack

D.

System maintenance logs

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Questions 35

An engineer needs to fetch logs from a proxy server and generate actual events according to the data received. Which technology should the engineer use to accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

Firepower

B.

Email Security Appliance

C.

Web Security Appliance

D.

Stealthwatch

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Questions 36

What is the difference between discretionary access control (DAC) and role-based access control (RBAC)?

Options:

A.

DAC requires explicit authorization for a given user on a given object, and RBAC requires specific conditions.

B.

RBAC access is granted when a user meets specific conditions, and in DAC, permissions are applied on user and group levels.

C.

RBAC is an extended version of DAC where you can add an extra level of authorization based on time.

D.

DAC administrators pass privileges to users and groups, and in RBAC, permissions are applied to specific groups

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Questions 37

An organization has recently adjusted its security stance in response to online threats made by a known hacktivist group.

What is the initial event called in the NIST SP800-61?

Options:

A.

online assault

B.

precursor

C.

trigger

D.

instigator

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Questions 38

An analyst received a ticket about degraded processing capability for one of the HR department's servers. On the same day, an engineer noticed disabled antivirus software and could not determine when or why it occurred. According to the NIST Incident Handling Guide, what is the next phase of this investigation?

Options:

A.

Detection

B.

Analysis

C.

Eradication

D.

Recovery

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Questions 39

An engineer runs a suspicious file in a sandbox analysis tool to see the outcome. The analysis report shows that outbound callouts were made post infection.

Which two pieces of information from the analysis report are needed to investigate the callouts? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

signatures

B.

host IP addresses

C.

file size

D.

dropped files

E.

domain names

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Questions 40

Refer to the exhibit.

Which event is occurring?

Options:

A.

A binary named "submit" is running on VM cuckoo1.

B.

A binary is being submitted to run on VM cuckoo1

C.

A binary on VM cuckoo1 is being submitted for evaluation

D.

A URL is being evaluated to see if it has a malicious binary

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Questions 41

What is a benefit of using asymmetric cryptography?

Options:

A.

decrypts data with one key

B.

fast data transfer

C.

secure data transfer

D.

encrypts data with one key

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Questions 42

The SOC team detected an ongoing port scan. After investigation, the team concluded that the scan was targeting the company servers. According to the Cyber Kill Chain model, which step must be assigned to this type of event?

Options:

A.

actions on objectives

B.

delivery

C.

reconnaissance

D.

exploitation

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Questions 43

Refer to the exhibit.

What is occurring in this network?

Options:

A.

ARP cache poisoning

B.

DNS cache poisoning

C.

MAC address table overflow

D.

MAC flooding attack

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Questions 44

Which two protocols are used for DDoS amplification attacks? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

ICMPv6

B.

DNS

C.

NTP

D.

TCP

E.

HTTP

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Questions 45

What is a difference between rule-based and role-based access control mechanisms?

Options:

A.

Rule-based are simple and easy to execute, and role-based are well-defined.

B.

Role-based are an appropriate choice in geographically diverse workgroups, and rule-based are for simply structured workgroups.

C.

Rule-based are less granular, and role-based have time constraints.

D.

Role-based are efficient in small workgroups, and rule-based are preferred in time-defined workgroups.

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Questions 46

Which technology should be used to implement a solution that makes routing decisions based on HTTP header, uniform resource identifier, and SSL session ID attributes?

Options:

A.

AWS

B.

IIS

C.

Load balancer

D.

Proxy server

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Questions 47

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer received a ticket to analyze unusual network traffic. What is occurring?

Options:

A.

denial-of-service attack

B.

data exfiltration

C.

regular network traffic; no suspicious activity

D.

cookie poisoning

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Questions 48

Which two elements are used for profiling a network? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

session duration

B.

total throughput

C.

running processes

D.

listening ports

E.

OS fingerprint

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Questions 49

Which security model assumes an attacker within and outside of the network and enforces strict verification before connecting to any system or resource within the organization?

Options:

A.

Biba

B.

Object-capability

C.

Take-Grant

D.

Zero Trust

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Questions 50

A company recently encountered a breach. Critical services went through a disturbance and the integrity of the data was altered. An engineer is investigating the issue and searching through the logs in the SIEM. Which phase of the incident response is an engineer working on?

Options:

A.

post-incident and lessons learned

B.

recovery and restoration

C.

detection and analysis

D.

containment and eradication

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Questions 51

What is the difference between the rule-based detection when compared to behavioral detection?

Options:

A.

Rule-Based detection is searching for patterns linked to specific types of attacks, while behavioral is identifying per signature.

B.

Rule-Based systems have established patterns that do not change with new data, while behavioral changes.

C.

Behavioral systems are predefined patterns from hundreds of users, while Rule-Based only flags potentially abnormal patterns using signatures.

D.

Behavioral systems find sequences that match a particular attack signature, while Rule-Based identifies potential attacks.

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Questions 52

Refer to exhibit.

An analyst performs the analysis of the pcap file to detect the suspicious activity. What challenges did the analyst face in terms of data visibility?

Options:

A.

data encapsulation

B.

IP fragmentation

C.

code obfuscation

D.

data encryption

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Questions 53

Which two components reduce the attack surface on an endpoint? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

secure boot

B.

load balancing

C.

increased audit log levels

D.

restricting USB ports

E.

full packet captures at the endpoint

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Questions 54

Refer to the exhibit.

What is occurring?

Options:

A.

Identifying possible malware communications and botnet activity

B.

Monitoring of encrypted and unencrypted web sessions for diagnostics.

C.

Analysis of traffic flows during network capacity testing

D.

Review of session logs for performance optimization in a distributed application environment

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Questions 55

How does agentless monitoring differ from agent-based monitoring?

Options:

A.

Agentless can access the data via API. While agent-base uses a less efficient method and accesses log data through WMI.

B.

Agent-based monitoring is less intrusive in gathering log data, while agentless requires open ports to fetch the logs

C.

Agent-based monitoring has a lower initial cost for deployment, while agentless monitoring requires resource-intensive deployment.

D.

Agent-based has a possibility to locally filter and transmit only valuable data, while agentless has much higher network utilization

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Questions 56

Refer to the exhibit.

Which kind of attack method is depicted in this string?

Options:

A.

cross-site scripting

B.

man-in-the-middle

C.

SQL injection

D.

denial of service

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Questions 57

An engineer needs to have visibility on TCP bandwidth usage, response time, and latency, combined with deep packet inspection to identify unknown software by its network traffic flow. Which two features of Cisco Application Visibility and Control should the engineer use to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

management and reporting

B.

traffic filtering

C.

adaptive AVC

D.

metrics collection and exporting

E.

application recognition

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Questions 58

An investigator is examining a copy of an ISO file that is stored in CDFS format. What type of evidence is this file?

Options:

A.

data from a CD copied using Mac-based system

B.

data from a CD copied using Linux system

C.

data from a DVD copied using Windows system

D.

data from a CD copied using Windows

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Questions 59

Which classification of cross-site scripting attack executes the payload without storing it for repeated use?

Options:

A.

stored

B.

reflective

C.

DOM

D.

CSRF

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Questions 60

Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and drop the element name from the left onto the correct piece of the PCAP file on the right.

Options:

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Questions 61

At a company party a guest asks questions about the company’s user account format and password complexity. How is this type of conversation classified?

Options:

A.

Phishing attack

B.

Password Revelation Strategy

C.

Piggybacking

D.

Social Engineering

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Questions 62

Refer to the exhibit. A security engineer receives several alerts from the SNORT IPS/IDS reporting malicious traffic. What should the engineer understand by examining the SNORT logs?

Options:

A.

A remote threat performs an EternalBlue attack on a Windows system on several ports.

B.

An inside threat performs an EternalBlue attack on hosts 192.168.2.101 and 192.168.200.10 on port 445.

C.

A remote threat performs an EternalBlue attack on several hosts and different ports.

D.

An inside threat performs an EternalBlue attack on a Windows system on port 445.

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Questions 63

Which regular expression matches "color" and "colour"?

Options:

A.

colo?ur

B.

col[0−8]+our

C.

colou?r

D.

col[0−9]+our

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Questions 64

What is a description of a social engineering attack?

Options:

A.

fake offer for free music download to trick the user into providing sensitive data

B.

package deliberately sent to the wrong receiver to advertise a new product

C.

mistakenly received valuable order destined for another person and hidden on purpose

D.

email offering last-minute deals on various vacations around the world with a due date and a counter

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Questions 65

A security expert is working on a copy of the evidence, an ISO file that is saved in CDFS format. Which type of evidence is this file?

Options:

A.

CD data copy prepared in Windows

B.

CD data copy prepared in Mac-based system

C.

CD data copy prepared in Linux system

D.

CD data copy prepared in Android-based system

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Questions 66

Drag and drop the uses on the left onto the type of security system on the right.

Options:

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Questions 67

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the expected result when the "Allow subdissector to reassemble TCP streams" feature is enabled?

Options:

A.

insert TCP subdissectors

B.

extract a file from a packet capture

C.

disable TCP streams

D.

unfragment TCP

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Questions 68

A compliance analyst receives a complaint from a customer regarding personal data being unlawfully retained despite a deletion request. The company is based in Europe and must comply with GDPR. The only data collected is the email address 0524l9i75@gmail.com. How should the compliance analyst act?

Options:

A.

Do not delete the data — the email address is not considered PII

B.

Delete the data regardless of where the customer is from

C.

Delete the data if the customer is from the EU

D.

Notify the legal team about a data compliance breach

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Questions 69

Which event is user interaction?

Options:

A.

gaining root access

B.

executing remote code

C.

reading and writing file permission

D.

opening a malicious file

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Questions 70

What are two differences between tampered disk images and untampered disk images'? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Tampered Images are used in a security investigation process

B.

Untampered images can be used as law enforcement evidence.

C.

The image is untampered if the existing stored hash matches the computed one

D.

The image is tampered if the stored hash and the computed hash are identical

E.

Tampered images are used as an element for the root cause analysis report

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Questions 71

Refer to the exhibit.

A company's user HTTP connection to a malicious site was blocked according to configured policy What is the source technology used for this measure'?

Options:

A.

network application control

B.

firewall

C.

IPS

D.

web proxy

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Questions 72

Which two elements are assets in the role of attribution in an investigation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

context

B.

session

C.

laptop

D.

firewall logs

E.

threat actor

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Questions 73

An engineer received an alert affecting the degraded performance of a critical server Analysis showed a heavy CPU and memory load. What is the next step the engineer should take to investigate this resource usage?

Options:

A.

Run "ps -ef to understand which processes are taking a high amount of resources

B.

Run "ps -u" to find out who executed additional processes that caused a high load on a server

C.

Run "ps -m" to capture the existing state of daemons and map the required processes to find the gap

D.

Run "ps -d" to decrease the priority state of high-load processes to avoid resource exhaustion

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Questions 74

Which security principle is violated by running all processes as root or administrator?

Options:

A.

principle of least privilege

B.

role-based access control

C.

separation of duties

D.

trusted computing base

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Questions 75

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer received a report that a host is communicating with unknown domains on the internet. The network engineer collected packet capture but could not determine the technique or the payload used. What technique is the attacker using?

Options:

A.

amplification

B.

teardrop

C.

session hijacking

D.

tunneling

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Questions 76

What is a difference between authorization and authentication from an access control perspective?

Options:

A.

Authorization defines the author of a specific resource and authentication gives access to the resource itself

B.

Authentication is when the system validates if the user is valid, and authorization enforces and provides resources assigned and required.

C.

Authentication is responsible for accounting access on system resources and the authorization process defines if a user is allowed to author the resource

D.

Authorization tracks if a certain user is authenticated within the system, and authentication is responsible for identifying the authorization method

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Questions 77

Refer to the exhibit. What is occurring?

Options:

A.

denial-of-service attack

B.

man-in-the-middle attack

C.

brute-force attack

D.

ARP spoofing attack

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Questions 78

What describes the impact of false-positive alerts compared to false-negative alerts?

Options:

A.

A false negative is alerting for an XSS attack. An engineer investigates the alert and discovers that an XSS attack happened A false positive is when an XSS attack happens and no alert is raised

B.

A false negative is a legitimate attack triggering a brute-force alert. An engineer investigates the alert and finds out someone intended to break into the system A false positive is when no alert and no attack is occurring

C.

A false positive is an event alerting for a brute-force attack An engineer investigates the alert and discovers that a legitimate user entered the wrong credential several times A false negative is when a threat actor tries to brute-force attack a system and no alert is raised.

D.

A false positive is an event alerting for an SQL injection attack An engineer investigates the alert and discovers that an attack attempt was blocked by IPS A false negative is when the attack gets detected but succeeds and results in a breach.

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Questions 79

Refer to the exhibit.

Which frame numbers contain a file that is extractable via TCP stream within Wireshark?

Options:

A.

7,14, and 21

B.

7 and 21

C.

14,16,18, and 19

D.

7 to 21

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Questions 80

What is a benefit of agent-based protection when compared to agentless protection?

Options:

A.

It lowers maintenance costs

B.

It provides a centralized platform

C.

It collects and detects all traffic locally

D.

It manages numerous devices simultaneously

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Questions 81

When communicating via TLS, the client initiates the handshake to the server and the server responds back with its certificate for identification.

Which information is available on the server certificate?

Options:

A.

server name, trusted subordinate CA, and private key

B.

trusted subordinate CA, public key, and cipher suites

C.

trusted CA name, cipher suites, and private key

D.

server name, trusted CA, and public key

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Questions 82

How does an attacker observe network traffic exchanged between two users?

Options:

A.

port scanning

B.

man-in-the-middle

C.

command injection

D.

denial of service

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Questions 83

Which category relates to improper use or disclosure of PII data?

Options:

A.

legal

B.

compliance

C.

regulated

D.

contractual

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Questions 84

What is the difference between statistical detection and rule-based detection models?

Options:

A.

Rule-based detection involves the collection of data in relation to the behavior of legitimate users over a period of time

B.

Statistical detection defines legitimate data of users over a period of time and rule-based detection defines it on an IF/THEN basis

C.

Statistical detection involves the evaluation of an object on its intended actions before it executes that behavior

D.

Rule-based detection defines legitimate data of users over a period of time and statistical detection defines it on an IF/THEN basis

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Questions 85

Refer to the exhibit.

What is occurring in this network traffic?

Options:

A.

High rate of SYN packets being sent from a multiple source towards a single destination IP.

B.

High rate of ACK packets being sent from a single source IP towards multiple destination IPs.

C.

Flood of ACK packets coming from a single source IP to multiple destination IPs.

D.

Flood of SYN packets coming from a single source IP to a single destination IP.

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Questions 86

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of evidence is this file?

Options:

A.

corroborating evidence

B.

circumstantial evidence

C.

best evidence

D.

direct evidence

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Questions 87

Refer to the exhibit.

What does this output indicate?

Options:

A.

HTTPS ports are open on the server.

B.

SMB ports are closed on the server.

C.

FTP ports are open on the server.

D.

Email ports are closed on the server.

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Questions 88

A data privacy officer at a marketing firm has received a request from a former client to delete all personally sensitive information held by the company. The firm operates globally and follows international data protection standards. The only information retained about the client is a unique customer ID, "051473912", which is not directly tied to the name, address, or any other identifiable details. Which action should the data privacy officer take?

Options:

A.

Delete the data immediately to comply with all global privacy regulations.

B.

Retain the data, as a customer ID by itself does not qualify as PSI under international standards.

C.

Consult the legal team, as customer IDs are always considered PSI and cannot be retained.

D.

Delete the data if the customer ID is stored alongside additional information that can identify the client.

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Questions 89

What is obtained using NetFlow?

Options:

A.

session data

B.

application logs

C.

network downtime report

D.

full packet capture

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Questions 90

An organization recently experienced a major incident in which servers were attacked and data integrity was compromised. The attacker exploited a vulnerability in TLS 1.2 and performed a man-in-the-middle attack by downgrading the connection. Which action should a security specialist take to prevent similar attacks in the future?

Options:

A.

Upgrade to TLS 1.3 or a higher version

B.

Deploy a network monitoring solution

C.

Update IIS server versions

D.

Install a lower version of TLS such as 1.1

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Questions 91

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is analyzing this Cuckoo Sandbox report for a PDF file that has been downloaded from an email. What is the state of this file?

Options:

A.

The file has an embedded executable and was matched by PEiD threat signatures for further analysis.

B.

The file has an embedded non-Windows executable but no suspicious features are identified.

C.

The file has an embedded Windows 32 executable and the Yara field lists suspicious features for further analysis.

D.

The file was matched by PEiD threat signatures but no suspicious features are identified since the signature list is up to date.

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Questions 92

What is the difference between the ACK flag and the RST flag in the NetFlow log session?

Options:

A.

The RST flag confirms the beginning of the TCP connection, and the ACK flag responds when the data for the payload is complete

B.

The ACK flag confirms the beginning of the TCP connection, and the RST flag responds when the data for the payload is complete

C.

The RST flag confirms the receipt of the prior segment, and the ACK flag allows for the spontaneous termination of a connection

D.

The ACK flag confirms the receipt of the prior segment, and the RST flag allows for the spontaneous termination of a connection

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Questions 93

What is the definition of threat intelligence in the context of cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

Update and hardening of IT infrastructure

B.

Design and implementation of advanced defense mechanisms

C.

Information and analysis related to potential security threats

D.

Design and delivery of sophisticated cyberattacks

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Questions 94

A company had a recent breach and lost confidential data to a competitor. An internal investigation found out that a new junior accounting specialist logged in to the accounting server with their user ID and stole confidential data. The junior accounting specialist denies the action and claims that the attempt was done by someone else. During court proceedings, the company presents logs and CCTV camera recordings that show the malicious insider in action. Which type of evidence has the company presented?

Options:

A.

indirect and corroborative

B.

direct and corroborative

C.

circumstantial and direct

D.

corroborative and substantive

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Questions 95

Which evasion technique is a function of ransomware?

Options:

A.

extended sleep calls

B.

encryption

C.

resource exhaustion

D.

encoding

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Questions 96

Refer to the exhibit.

What is occurring within the exhibit?

Options:

A.

regular GET requests

B.

XML External Entities attack

C.

insecure deserialization

D.

cross-site scripting attack

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Questions 97

If a web server accepts input from the user and passes it to a bash shell, to which attack method is it vulnerable?

Options:

A.

input validation

B.

hash collision

C.

integer overflow

D.

command injection

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Questions 98

Which are two denial-of-service attacks? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

TCP connections

B.

ping of death

C.

man-in-the-middle

D.

code-red

E.

UDP flooding

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Questions 99

Which regular expression is needed to capture the IP address 192.168.20.232?

Options:

A.

^(?:[0-9]{1,3}\.){3}[0-9]{1,3}

B.

^(?:[0-9]f1,3}\.){1,4}

C.

^(?:[0-9]{1,3}\.)'

D.

^([0-9]-{3})

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Questions 100

When an event is investigated, which type of data provides the investigate capability to determine if data exfiltration has occurred?

Options:

A.

full packet capture

B.

NetFlow data

C.

session data

D.

firewall logs

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Questions 101

Refer to the exhibit.

During the analysis of a suspicious scanning activity incident, an analyst discovered multiple local TCP connection events Which technology provided these logs?

Options:

A.

antivirus

B.

proxy

C.

IDS/IPS

D.

firewall

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Questions 102

What is the difference between mandatory access control (MAC) and discretionary access control (DAC)?

Options:

A.

MAC is controlled by the discretion of the owner and DAC is controlled by an administrator

B.

MAC is the strictest of all levels of control and DAC is object-based access

C.

DAC is controlled by the operating system and MAC is controlled by an administrator

D.

DAC is the strictest of all levels of control and MAC is object-based access

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Questions 103

A user reports difficulties accessing certain external web pages. When an engineer examines traffic to and from the external domain in full packet captures, they notice that many SYNs have the same sequence number, source, and destination IP address, but they have different payloads. What is causing this situation?

Options:

A.

TCP injection

B.

misconfiguration of a web filter

C.

Failure of the full packet capture solution

D.

insufficient network resources

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Questions 104

After a large influx of network traffic to externally facing devices, a security engineer begins investigating what appears to be a denial of service attack When the packet capture data is reviewed, the engineer notices that the traffic is a single SYN packet to each port Which type of attack is occurring?

Options:

A.

traffic fragmentation

B.

port scanning

C.

host profiling

D.

SYN flood

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Questions 105

Which two elements of the incident response process are stated in NIST Special Publication 800-61 r2? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

detection and analysis

B.

post-incident activity

C.

vulnerability management

D.

risk assessment

E.

vulnerability scoring

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Questions 106

A member of the SOC team is checking the dashboard provided by the Cisco Firepower Manager for further Isolation actions. According to NIST SP800-61, in which phase of incident response is this action?

Options:

A.

Cost-incident activity phase

B.

Preparation phase

C.

Selection and analyze phase

D.

The radiation and recovery phase

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Questions 107

Refer to the exhibit.

A SOC analyst received a message from SIEM about abnormal activity on the Windows server The analyst checked the Windows event log and saw numerous Audit Failures logs. What is occurring?

Options:

A.

Windows failed to audit the logs

B.

regular Windows log

C.

brute-force attack

D.

DoS attack

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Questions 108

What is the principle of defense-in-depth?

Options:

A.

Agentless and agent-based protection for security are used.

B.

Several distinct protective layers are involved.

C.

Access control models are involved.

D.

Authentication, authorization, and accounting mechanisms are used.

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Questions 109

What is session data used for in network security?

Options:

A.

It is the transaction log between monitoring software.

B.

It contains the set of parameters used for fetching logs.

C.

It is the summary of the transmission between two network devices.

D.

It tracks cookies within each session initiated from a user.

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Questions 110

An engineer must configure network systems to detect command-and-control communications by decrypting ingress and egress perimeter traffic and allowing network security devices to detect malicious outbound communications. Which technology must be used to accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

static IP addresses

B.

signatures

C.

digital certificates

D.

cipher suite

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Questions 111

A large load of data is being transferred to an external destination via UDP 53 port. Which obfuscation technique is used?

Options:

A.

proxied traffic

B.

C&C connection

C.

data masking

D.

DNS tunneling

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Questions 112

What is the relationship between a vulnerability and a threat?

Options:

A.

A threat exploits a vulnerability

B.

A vulnerability is a calculation of the potential loss caused by a threat

C.

A vulnerability exploits a threat

D.

A threat is a calculation of the potential loss caused by a vulnerability

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Questions 113

What describes a buffer overflow attack?

Options:

A.

injecting new commands into existing buffers

B.

fetching data from memory buffer registers

C.

overloading a predefined amount of memory

D.

suppressing the buffers in a process

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Questions 114

What is the benefit of processing statistical data for security systems?

Options:

A.

detects suspicious behavior based on traffic baselining trends

B.

uses less CPU and RAM resources than metadata-based monitoring

C.

provides fewer false negative events than full packet capture

D.

provides full visibility based on capture of packet traffic data

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Questions 115

The Cisco Zero Trust Architecture simplifies the zero trust journey into three critical areas. Drag and drop the definitions onto the graphic to describe zero trust from the Cisco perspective.

Options:

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Questions 116

An engineer is addressing a connectivity issue between two servers where the remote server is unable to establish a successful session. Initial checks show that the remote server is not receiving an SYN-ACK while establishing a session by sending the first SYN. What is causing this issue?

Options:

A.

incorrect TCP handshake

B.

incorrect UDP handshake

C.

incorrect OSI configuration

D.

incorrect snaplen configuration

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Questions 117

What is the difference between a threat and a risk?

Options:

A.

Threat represents a potential danger that could take advantage of a weakness in a system

B.

Risk represents the known and identified loss or danger in the system

C.

Risk represents the nonintentional interaction with uncertainty in the system

D.

Threat represents a state of being exposed to an attack or a compromise, either physically or logically.

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Questions 118

Which access control should a chief information security officer select to protect extremely sensitive data categorized at various levels of confidentiality?

Options:

A.

MAC; each object owner is responsible to provide access only to authorized users.

B.

MAC; access control decisions are centrally managed and minimize the human error probability.

C.

DAC; access control decisions are centrally managed and minimize the human error probability.

D.

DAC; each object owner is responsible to provide access only to authorized users.

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Questions 119

A company is using several network applications that require high availability and responsiveness, such that milliseconds of latency on network traffic is not acceptable. An engineer needs to analyze the network and identify ways to improve traffic movement to minimize delays. Which information must the engineer obtain for this analysis?

Options:

A.

total throughput on the interface of the router and NetFlow records

B.

output of routing protocol authentication failures and ports used

C.

running processes on the applications and their total network usage

D.

deep packet captures of each application flow and duration

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Questions 120

Refer to the exhibit.

What does the message indicate?

Options:

A.

an access attempt was made from the Mosaic web browser

B.

a successful access attempt was made to retrieve the password file

C.

a successful access attempt was made to retrieve the root of the website

D.

a denied access attempt was made to retrieve the password file

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Questions 121

A security incident occurred with the potential of impacting business services. Who performs the attack?

Options:

A.

malware author

B.

threat actor

C.

bug bounty hunter

D.

direct competitor

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Questions 122

A security engineer must determine why a new core application does not work as desired The client can send requests toward the application server but receives no response One of the requirements is to gather all packets Data needs to be reliable without any delay or packet drops Which solution best meets this need?

Options:

A.

3 device logs

B.

span port

C.

port mirroring

D.

tap device

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Questions 123

A network engineer noticed in the NetFlow report that internal hosts are sending many DNS requests to external DNS servers A SOC analyst checked the endpoints and discovered that they are infected and became part of the botnet Endpoints are sending multiple DNS requests but with spoofed IP addresses of valid external sources What kind of attack are infected endpoints involved in1?

Options:

A.

DNS hijacking

B.

DNS tunneling

C.

DNS flooding

D.

DNS amplification

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Questions 124

Refer to the exhibit. What occurred on this system based on this output?

Options:

A.

A user connected to the system using remote access VPN.

B.

A user created a new HTTP session using the SHA256 hashing algorithm.

C.

A user connected to the system after 450 attempts.

D.

A user connected to the system using SSH using source port 55796.

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Questions 125

Which technique is a low-bandwidth attack?

Options:

A.

social engineering

B.

session hijacking

C.

evasion

D.

phishing

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Questions 126

What is sliding window anomaly detection?

Options:

A.

Detect changes in operations and management processes.

B.

Identify uncommon patterns that do not fit usual behavior.

C.

Define response times for requests for owned applications.

D.

Apply lowest privilege/permission level to software

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Questions 127

A security engineer must protect the company from known issues that trigger adware. Recently new incident has been raised that could harm the system. Which security concepts are present in this scenario?

Options:

A.

exploit and patching

B.

risk and evidence

C.

analysis and remediation

D.

vulnerability and threat

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Questions 128

Refer to the exhibit.

Which tool was used to generate this data?

Options:

A.

NetFlow

B.

dnstools

C.

firewall

D.

tcpdump

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Questions 129

What is the difference between vulnerability and risk?

Options:

A.

A vulnerability is a weakness that can be exploited and the risk is the potential for loss or damage

B.

A vulnerability is an attack surface, and the risk is the vector of the attack

C.

A risk is a possible danger that an exploit applies to and a vulnerability represents the threat actor

D.

Risk is the assessment of possible weaknesses and vulnerability is a reconfiguration of an asset

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Questions 130

Which evasion method involves performing actions slower than normal to prevent detection?

Options:

A.

timing attack

B.

traffic fragmentation

C.

resource exhaustion

D.

tunneling

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Questions 131

An engineer is analyzing a recent breach where confidential documents were altered and stolen by the receptionist. Further analysis shows that the threat actor connected an externa USB device to bypass security restrictions and steal data. The engineer could not find an external USB device Which piece of information must an engineer use for attribution in an investigation?

Options:

A.

list of security restrictions and privileges boundaries bypassed

B.

external USB device

C.

receptionist and the actions performed

D.

stolen data and its criticality assessment

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Questions 132

Drag and drop the data source from the left onto the data type on the right.

Options:

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Questions 133

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of data filtering is provided?

Options:

A.

Web

B.

Firewall

C.

Mail

D.

Application

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Questions 134

What are two differences in how tampered and untampered disk images affect a security incident? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Untampered images are used in the security investigation process

B.

Tampered images are used in the security investigation process

C.

The image is tampered if the stored hash and the computed hash match

D.

Tampered images are used in the incident recovery process

E.

The image is untampered if the stored hash and the computed hash match

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Questions 135

Refer to the exhibit.

Which alert is identified from this packet capture?

Options:

A.

man-in-the-middle attack

B.

ARP poisoning

C.

brute-force attack

D.

SQL injection

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Questions 136

Drag and drop the access control models from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Options:

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Questions 137

Refer to the exhibit.

Which stakeholders must be involved when a company workstation is compromised?

Options:

A.

Employee 1 Employee 2, Employee 3, Employee 4, Employee 5, Employee 7

B.

Employee 1, Employee 2, Employee 4, Employee 5

C.

Employee 4, Employee 6, Employee 7

D.

Employee 2, Employee 3, Employee 4, Employee 5

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Questions 138

Which type of attack involves sending input commands to a web server to access data?

Options:

A.

SQL injection

B.

Denial of service

C.

Cross-site scripting

D.

DNS poisoning

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Questions 139

A software development company develops high-end technology for the customer that will go through the HIPAA audit program. The technology will be hosted in the cloud, and the healthcare, employee names, and contact information will be stored on two separate logically isolated private cloud services. The patents and inventions will be hosted on a separate encrypted database. A compliance team is asked to analyze the cloud infrastructure and architecture to identify the protected data. Which two types of protected data should be identified? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Federated Identity ID (FII)

B.

Protected Health Information (PHI)

C.

Personally Identifiable Information (PII)

D.

Payment Card Industry (PCI)

E.

Self-sovereign Identity (SSI)

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Questions 140

During which phase of the forensic process is data that is related to a specific event labeled and recorded to preserve its integrity?

Options:

A.

examination

B.

investigation

C.

collection

D.

reporting

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Questions 141

What is the difference between an attack vector and attack surface?

Options:

A.

An attack surface identifies vulnerabilities that require user input or validation; and an attack vector identifies vulnerabilities that are independent of user actions.

B.

An attack vector identifies components that can be exploited, and an attack surface identifies the potential path an attack can take to penetrate the network.

C.

An attack surface recognizes which network parts are vulnerable to an attack; and an attack vector identifies which attacks are possible with these vulnerabilities.

D.

An attack vector identifies the potential outcomes of an attack; and an attack surface launches an attack using several methods against the identified vulnerabilities.

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Questions 142

A company receptionist received a threatening call referencing stealing assets and did not take any action assuming it was a social engineering attempt. Within 48 hours, multiple assets were breached, affecting the confidentiality of sensitive information. What is the threat actor in this incident?

Options:

A.

companyassets that are threatened

B.

customer assets that are threatened

C.

perpetrators of the attack

D.

victims of the attack

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Exam Code: 200-201
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS)
Last Update: Mar 17, 2026
Questions: 476
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buy now 200-201