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200-301 Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

Refer to the exhibit.

If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router 2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13/25 at Site A?

Options:

A.

It sends packets out of interface Fa0/2 only.

B.

It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1 only.

C.

It cannot send packets to 10.10.13 128/25

D.

It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2

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Questions 5

What is a function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in an environment?

Options:

A.

offer compression

B.

increase security by using a WEP connection

C.

provide authentication

D.

protect traffic on open networks

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Questions 6

Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?

Options:

A.

on

B.

auto

C.

active

D.

desirable

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Questions 7

What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?

Options:

A.

A TCP connection has been torn down

B.

An ICMP connection has been built

C.

An interface line has changed status

D.

A certificate has expired.

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Questions 8

What is a characteristic of a SOHO network?

Options:

A.

connects each switch to every other switch in the network

B.

enables multiple users to share a single broadband connection

C.

provides high throughput access for 1000 or more users

D.

includes at least three tiers of devices to provide load balancing and redundancy

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Questions 9

Aside from discarding, which two states does the switch port transition through while using RSTP (802.1w)? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

listening

B.

blocking

C.

forwarding

D.

learning

E.

speaking

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Questions 10

All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and

inaccessible. R4 ' s WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.

Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.

1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to

reach only PCI on R4 ' s LAN

2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take

an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along

the primary path

3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Options:

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Questions 11

which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-based networking architecture?

Options:

A.

communicates between the controller and the physical network hardware

B.

reports device errors to a controller

C.

generates statistics for network hardware and traffic

D.

facilitates communication between the controller and the applications

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Questions 12

Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right.

Options:

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Questions 13

Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address dhcp

B.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64

C.

ipv6 address autoconfig

D.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local

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Questions 14

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery?

Options:

A.

TCP uses checksum, acknowledgement, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only.

B.

TCP uses two-dimensional parity checks, checksums, and cyclic redundancy checks and UDP uses retransmissions only.

C.

TCP uses checksum, parity checks, and retransmissions, and UDP uses acknowledgements only.

D.

TCP uses retransmissions, acknowledgement and parity checks and UDP uses cyclic redundancy checks only.

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Questions 15

Refer to the exhibit.

Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0.4.0/24 network?

Options:

A.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

B.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

C.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)i=ip ospf priority 1

D.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 0

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Questions 16

What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?

Options:

A.

IPv6 anycast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the anycast address, but IPv6 unicast nodes require no special configuration

B.

IPv6 unicast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the unicast address, but IPv6 anycast nodes require no special configuration

C.

An individual IPv6 unicast address is supported on a single interface on one node but an IPv6 anycast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes.

D.

Unlike an IPv6 anycast address, an IPv6 unicast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes

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Questions 17

Which device tracks the state of active connections in order to make a decision to forward a packet through?

Options:

A.

wireless access point

B.

firewall

C.

wireless LAN controller

D.

router

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Questions 18

Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office/home office architecture?

Options:

A.

broadband cable access

B.

frame-relay packet switching

C.

dedicated point-to-point leased line

D.

Integrated Services Digital Network switching.

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Questions 19

What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management?

Options:

A.

It supports numerous extensibility options including cross-domain adapters and third-party SDKs.

B.

It supports high availability for management functions when operating in cluster mode.

C.

It enables easy autodiscovery of network elements m a brownfield deployment.

D.

It is designed primarily to provide network assurance.

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Questions 20

Refer to the exhibit.

Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 21

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.

1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.

2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.

3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.

4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.

5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

Options:

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Questions 22

Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?

Options:

A.

outside global

B.

outside local

C.

inside global

D.

inside local

E.

outside public

F.

inside public

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Questions 23

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.

Options:

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Questions 24

An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routers. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 25

Which WAN topology provides a combination of simplicity quality, and availability?

Options:

A.

partial mesh

B.

full mesh

C.

point-to-point

D.

hub-and-spoke

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Questions 26

What occurs when overlapping Wi-Fi channels are implemented?

Options:

A.

The wireless network becomes vulnerable to unauthorized access.

B.

Wireless devices are unable to distinguish between different SSIDs

C.

Users experience poor wireless network performance.

D.

Network communications are open to eavesdropping.

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Questions 27

What are two functions of an SDN controller? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Layer 2 forwarding

B.

coordinating VTNs

C.

tracking hosts

D.

managing the topology

E.

protecting against DDoS attacks

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Questions 28

A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacency Drag and drop the parameters from the left onto their required categories on the right. Not all parameters are used

Options:

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Questions 29

Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?

Options:

A.

autonomous

B.

lightweight

C.

bridge

D.

mobility express

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Questions 30

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge?

Options:

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

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Questions 31

What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?

Options:

A.

Layer 2 switch

B.

load balancer

C.

firewall

D.

LAN controller

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Questions 32

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the next hop address for traffic that is destined to host 10.0.1.5?

Options:

A.

10.0.1.3

B.

10.0.1.50

C.

10.0.1.4

D.

Loopback D

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Questions 33

An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the default VLAN on a switch.

Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Configure the ports in an EtherChannel.

B.

Administratively shut down the ports

C.

Configure the port type as access and place in VLAN 99

D.

Configure the ports as trunk ports

E.

Enable the Cisco Discovery Protocol

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Questions 34

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network. Which command will accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

access-list 2699 permit udp 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

B.

no access-list 2699 deny tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127 eq 22

C.

access-list 2699 permit tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq 22

D.

no access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

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Questions 35

Which switch technology establishes a network connection immediately when it is plugged in?

Options:

A.

PortFast

B.

BPDU guard

C.

UplinkFast

D.

BackboneFast

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Questions 36

What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name?

Options:

A.

SNMP

B.

DNS lookup

C.

syslog

D.

NTP

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Questions 37

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result if Gig1/11 receives an STP BPDU?

Options:

A.

The port transitions to STP blocking

B.

The port transitions to the root port

C.

The port immediately transitions to STP forwarding.

D.

The port goes into error-disable state

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Questions 38

If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?

Options:

A.

A network device has restarted

B.

An ARP inspection has failed

C.

A routing instance has flapped

D.

A debug operation is running

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Questions 39

Drag and drop the functions of AAA supporting protocols from the left onto the protocols on the right.

Options:

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Questions 40

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

Options:

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Questions 41

Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.

1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.

2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.

3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.

Options:

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Questions 42

Which two WAN architecture options help a business improve scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

asynchronous routing

B.

single-homed branches

C.

dual-homed branches

D.

static routing

E.

dynamic routing

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Questions 43

A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements

• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20

• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone

Which command set must the engineer apply?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 44

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands must be added to update the configuration of router R1 so that it accepts only encrypted connections? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

username CNAC secret R!41!4319115@

B.

ip ssh version 2

C.

line vty 0 4

D.

crypto key generate rsa 1024

E.

transport input ssh

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Questions 45

Drag and drop the SNMP manager and agent identifier commands from the left onto the functions on the right

Options:

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Questions 46

An engineer needs to add an old switch back into a network. To prevent the switch from corrupting the VLAN database which action must be taken?

Options:

A.

Add the switch in the VTP domain with a lower revision number

B.

Add the switch with DTP set to dynamic desirable

C.

Add the switch in the VTP domain with a higher revision number

D.

Add the switch with DTP set to desirable

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Questions 47

Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?

Options:

A.

CPU ACL

B.

TACACS

C.

Flex ACL

D.

RADIUS

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Questions 48

Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets

B.

It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity

C.

It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets

D.

It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up

E.

It supports protocol discovery

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Questions 49

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer configures the Cisco WLC to authenticate local wireless clients against a RADIUS server Which task must be performed to complete the process?

Options:

A.

Change the Server Status to Disabled

B.

Select Enable next to Management

C.

Select Enable next to Network User

D.

Change the Support for CoA to Enabled.

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Questions 50

Refer to the exhibit.

After the election process what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN?

Options:

A.

Switch 1

B.

Switch 2

C.

Switch 3

D.

Switch 4

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Questions 51

Which option about JSON is true?

Options:

A.

uses predefined tags or angle brackets () to delimit markup text

B.

used to describe structured data that includes arrays

C.

used for storing information

D.

similar to HTML, it is more verbose than XML

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Questions 52

How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?

Options:

A.

It load-balances traffic by assigning the same metric value to more than one route to the same destination m the IP routing table.

B.

It load-balances Layer 2 traffic along the path by flooding traffic out all interfaces configured with the same VLAN.

C.

It forwards multiple packets to the same destination over different routed links n the data path

D.

It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN

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Questions 53

Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?

Options:

A.

0000.5E00.010a

B.

0005.3711.0975

C.

0000.0C07.AC99

D.

0007.C070/AB01

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Questions 54

Which output displays a JSON data representation?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 55

How does Cisco DNA Center gather data from the network?

Options:

A.

Network devices use different services like SNMP, syslog, and streaming telemetry to send data to the controller

B.

Devices establish an IPsec tunnel to exchange data with the controller

C.

Devices use the call-home protocol to periodically send data to the controller.

D.

The Cisco CU Analyzer tool gathers data from each licensed network device and streams it to the controller.

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Questions 56

Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

asynchronous routing

B.

single-homed branches

C.

dual-homed branches

D.

static routing

E.

dynamic routing

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Questions 57

Drag the IPv6 DNS record types from the left onto the description on the right.

Options:

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Questions 58

Refer to the exhibit.

The ntp server 192.168.0.3 command has been configured on router 1 to make it an NTP client of router 2. Which command must be configured on router 2 so that it operates in server-only mode and relies only on its internal clock?

Options:

A.

Router2(config)#ntp passive

B.

Router2(config)#ntp server 172.17.0.1

C.

Router2(config)#ntp master 4

D.

Router2(config)#ntp server 192.168.0.2

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Questions 59

Refer to the exhibit.

If OSPF Is running on this network, how does Router2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?

Options:

A.

It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2.

B.

It is unreachable and discards the traffic.

C.

It sends packets out of interface Fa0/2.

D.

It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1.

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Questions 60

Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?

Options:

A.

172.9.0.0/16

B.

172.28.0.0/16

C.

192.0.0.0/8

D.

209.165.201.0/24

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Questions 61

Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.

1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.

2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.

3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.

4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.

Options:

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Questions 62

Which type of attack can be mitigated by dynamic ARP inspection?

Options:

A.

worm

B.

malware

C.

DDoS

D.

man-in-the-middle

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Questions 63

Which characteristic differentiates the concept of authentication from authorization and accounting?

Options:

A.

user-activity logging

B.

service limitations

C.

consumption-based billing

D.

identity verification

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Questions 64

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 65

Refer to the exhibit.

Host A sent a data frame destined for host D

What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?

Options:

A.

It drops the frame from the switch CAM table.

B.

It floods the frame out of all ports except port Fa0/1.

C.

It shuts down the port Fa0/1 and places it in err-disable mode.

D.

It experiences a broadcast storm.

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Questions 66

Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator must prevent the switch Cat9K-2 IP address from being visible in LLDP without disabling the protocol. Which action must be taken must be taken to complete the task?

Options:

A.

Configure the no lldp tlv-select-management-address command globally on Cat9K-2

B.

Configure the no lldp transmit command on interface G1/0/21 in Cat9K-1

C.

Configure the no lldp receive command on interface G1/0/21 on Cat9K-1

D.

Configure the no lldp mac-phy-cfg command globally on Cat9K-2

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Questions 67

What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?

Options:

A.

nothing plugged into the port

B.

link flapping

C.

shutdown command issued on the port

D.

latency

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Questions 68

Which WAN topology has the highest degree of reliability?

Options:

A.

full mesh

B.

Point-to-point

C.

hub-and-spoke

D.

router-on-a-stick

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Questions 69

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?

Options:

A.

GigabitEthernet0/0

B.

GigabltEthornet0/1

C.

GigabitEthernet0/2

D.

GigabitEthernet0/3

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Questions 70

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.30.2

B.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2 90

C.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2 111

D.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2

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Questions 71

A network engineer is replacing the switches that belong to a managed-services client with new Cisco Catalyst switches. The new switches will be configured for updated security standards, including replacing Telnet services with encrypted connections and doubling the modulus size from 1024. Which two commands must the engineer configure on the new switches? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

crypto key generate rsa general-keys modulus 1024

B.

transport input all

C.

crypto key generate rsa usage-keys

D.

crypto key generate rsa modulus 2048

E.

transport Input ssh

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Questions 72

Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?

Options:

A.

weighted random early detection

B.

traffic policing

C.

traffic shaping

D.

traffic prioritization

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Questions 73

R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS. OSPF, RIP. and Internal EIGRP Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table?

Options:

A.

IS-IS

B.

RIP

C.

Internal EIGRP

D.

OSPF

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Questions 74

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

Options:

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Questions 75

Which PoE mode enables powered-device detection and guarantees power when the device is detected?

Options:

A.

dynamic

B.

static

C.

active

D.

auto

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Questions 76

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernet0/1 on router R4?

Options:

A.

interface FastEthernet0/0ip helper-address 10.0.1.1iaccess-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

B.

interface FastEthernet0/1ip helper-address 10.0.1.1!access-list 100 permit tcp host 10.0.1.1 eq 67 host 10.148.2.1

C.

interface FastEthernet0/0ip helper-address 10.0.1.1Iaccess-list 100 permit host 10.0.1.1 host 10.148.2.1 eq bootps

D.

interface FastEthernet0/1ip helper-address 10.0.1.1!access-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

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Questions 77

What is a similarity between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards?

Options:

A.

Both use the same data-link header and trailer formats

B.

Both cable types support RJ-45 connectors

C.

Both cable types support Rj-45 connectors

D.

Both support up to 550 meters between nodes

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Questions 78

Which interface mode must be configured to connect the lightweight APs in a centralized architecture?

Options:

A.

WLAN dynamic

B.

management

C.

trunk

D.

access

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Questions 79

Which value is the unique identifier that an access point uses to establish and maintain wireless connectivity to wireless network devices?

Options:

A.

VLAN ID

B.

SSID

C.

RFID

D.

WLANID

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Questions 80

An engineer is configuring SSH version 2 exclusively on the R1 router. What is the minimum configuration required to permit remote management using the cryptographic protocol?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 81

What is a function of Cisco Advanced Malware Protection for a Next-Generation IPS?

Options:

A.

authorizing potentially compromised wireless traffic

B.

inspecting specific files and file types for malware

C.

authenticating end users

D.

URL filtering

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Questions 82

What is a function performed by a web server?

Options:

A.

provide an application that is transmitted over HTTP

B.

send and retrieve email from client devices

C.

authenticate and authorize a user ' s identity

D.

securely store files for FTP access

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Questions 83

An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP subnet 10.139.58.0/28. The domain name, crypto keys, and SSH have been configured. Which configuration enables the traffic on the destination router?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 84

Which command do you enter so that a switch configured with Rapid PVST + listens and learns for a specific time period?

Options:

A.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 max-age 6

B.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 hello-time 10

C.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096

D.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 forward-time 20

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Questions 85

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is asked to configure router R1 so that it forms an OSPF single-area neighbor relationship with R2. Which command sequence must be implemented to configure the router?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 86

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 87

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has been tasked with securing VTY access to a router. Which access-list entry accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq ssh

B.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq scp

C.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq telnet

D.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq https

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Questions 88

Which protocol does an IPv4 host use to obtain a dynamically assigned IP address?

Options:

A.

ARP

B.

DHCP

C.

CDP

D.

DNS

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Questions 89

All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.

The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.

1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

Using the second subnet

• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1

• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102

2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

c Using the second subnet

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on e0/0 on Sw101

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on eO/O on swi02

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Options:

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Questions 90

Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?

Options:

A.

Bronze

B.

Platinum

C.

Silver

D.

Gold

Buy Now
Questions 91

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?

Options:

A.

Switch 1 (config-if)#channel-group 1 mode onSwrtch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

B.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passiveSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

C.

Switch1{config-if)£channel-group 1 mode activeSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

D.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode onSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

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Questions 92

Refer to the exhibit.

Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 93

What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?

Options:

A.

A distributed management plane must be used.

B.

Software upgrades are performed from a central controller

C.

Complexity increases when new device configurations are added

D.

Custom applications are needed to configure network devices

Buy Now
Questions 94

Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.

The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:

VLAN 110: MARKETING

VLAN 210: FINANCE

1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.

2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

Options:

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Questions 95

Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.

1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.

2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.

3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.

4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.

5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.

Options:

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Questions 96

IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.

1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.

2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.

3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.

4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.

Options:

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Questions 97

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured

1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends

2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.

4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.

Options:

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Questions 98

Which protocol uses the SSL?

Options:

A.

HTTP

B.

SSH

C.

HTTPS

D.

Telnet

Buy Now
Questions 99

Refer to the exhibit. This ACL is configured to allow client access only to HTTP, HTTPS, and DNS services via UDP. The new administrator wants to add TCP access to the DNS service. Which configuration updates the ACL efficiently?

Options:

A.

ip access list extended Services35 permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 198.51.100.11 eq domain

B.

no ip access list extended Servicesip access list extended Services30 permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 198.51.100.11 eq domain

C.

ip access list extended Servicespermit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 198.51.100.11 eq domain

D.

no ip access list extended Servicesip access list extended Servicespermit udp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any eq 53permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 198.51.100.11 eq domaindeny ip any any log

Buy Now
Questions 100

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must connect SW_1 and the printer to the network. SW_2 requires DTP to be used for the connection to SW_1. The printer is configured as an access port with VLAN 5. Which set of commands completes the connectivity?

Options:

A.

switchport mode dynamic autoswitchport private-vlan association host 5

B.

switchport mode dynamic autoswitchport trunk encapsulation negotiate

C.

switchport mode dynamic desirableswitchport trunk allowed vlan add 5

D.

switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk pruning vlan add 5

Buy Now
Questions 101

Refer to the exhibit.

How many objects, keys and JSDN list values are present?

Options:

A.

three objects, two keys, and three JSDN list values

B.

three objects, three keys and two JSDN Ml values

C.

one object, three keys, and three JSDN list values

D.

one object, three keys and two JSDN list values

Buy Now
Questions 102

Why is UDP more suitable than TCP for applications that require low latency, such as VoIP?

Options:

A.

TCP uses congestion control for efficient packet delivery, and UDP uses flow control mechanisms for the delivery of packets.

B.

TCP sends an acknowledgment for every packet that is received, and UDP operates without acknowledgments.

C.

UDP reliably guarantees delivery of all packets, and TCP drops packets under heavy load.

D.

UDP uses sequencing data for packets to arrive in order, and TCP offers the capability to receive packets in random order.

Buy Now
Questions 103

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

10.174.208.210/28 [110/2708] via G0/21

10.174.208.210/28 [110/25445] via G0/20

10.174.208.210/28 [120/1] via G0/12

10.174.208.210/28 [120/4] via G0/16

Options:

A.

G0/12

B.

G0/20

C.

G0/21

D.

G0/16

Buy Now
Questions 104

An engineer must configure neighbor discovery between the company router and an ISP

What is the next step to complete the configuration if the ISP uses a third-party router?

Options:

A.

Enable LLDP globally.

B.

Disable CDP on gi0/0.

C.

Enable LLDP TLVs on the ISP router.

D.

Disable auto-negotiation.

Buy Now
Questions 105

Refer to the exhibit.

The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?

Options:

A.

There is a duplex mismatch on the interface

B.

There is an issue with the fiber on the switch interface.

C.

There is a speed mismatch on the interface.

D.

There is an interface type mismatch

Buy Now
Questions 106

What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again

B.

when the cable length limits are exceeded

C.

when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex

D.

when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used

E.

when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted

Buy Now
Questions 107

What is one reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?

Options:

A.

to increase security and encrypt management frames

B.

to provide link redundancy and load balancing

C.

to allow for stateful and link-state failover

D.

to enable connected switch ports to failover and use different VLANs

Buy Now
Questions 108

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the prefix length for the route that router1 will use to reach host A?

Options:

A.

/25

B.

/27

C.

/28

D.

/29

Buy Now
Questions 109

Refer to the exhibit.

How must OSPF be configured on the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface of the neighbor device to achieve.

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 110

Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right. Not all statements are used.

Options:

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Questions 111

What is a purpose of traffic shaping?

Options:

A.

It enables dynamic flow identification.

B.

It enables policy-based routing.

C.

It provide best-effort service.

D.

It limits bandwidth usage.

Buy Now
Questions 112

To improve corporate security, an organization is planning to implement badge authentication to limit access to the data center. Which element of a security program is being deployed?

Options:

A.

user training

B.

user awareness

C.

vulnerability verification

D.

physical access control

Buy Now
Questions 113

Which functionality is provided by the console connection on a Cisco WLC?

Options:

A.

out-of-band management

B.

secure in-band connectivity for device administration

C.

unencrypted in-band connectivity for file transfers

D.

HTTP-based GUI connectivity

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Questions 114

Drag and drop the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the IP traffic types on the right.

Options:

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Questions 115

A network engineer must configure an interface with IIP address 10.10.10.145 and a subnet mask equivalent to 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111000. Which subnet mask must the engineer use?

Options:

A.

/29

B.

/30

C.

/27

D.

/28

Buy Now
Questions 116

Which IPsec transport mode encrypts the IP header and the payload?

Options:

A.

pipe

B.

control

C.

transport

D.

tunnel

Buy Now
Questions 117

A Cisco engineer notices thai two OSPF neighbors are connected using a crossover Ethernet cable. The neighbors are taking too long to become fully adjacent. Which command must be issued under the interface configuration on each router to reduce the time required for the adjacency to reach the FULL state?

Options:

A.

ip ospf network broadcast

B.

ip ospf dead-interval 40

C.

ip ospf network point-to-point

D.

ip ospf priority 0

Buy Now
Questions 118

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,

and the network connectivity between them must be configured.

I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it

between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and

Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.

2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.

4. Configure VLAN ' MONITORING ' as the untagged VLAN of the

EtherChannel.

==================

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Options:

Buy Now
Questions 119

Which two command sequences must you configure on switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode on

B.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode active

C.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode auto

D.

interface port-channel 10switchportswitchport mode trunk

E.

interface port-channel 10no switchportip address 172.16.0.1.255.255.255.0

Buy Now
Questions 120

Where does the configuration reside when a helper address Is configured lo support DHCP?

Options:

A.

on the router closest to the server

B.

on the router closest to the client

C.

on every router along the path

D.

on the switch trunk interface

Buy Now
Questions 121

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

Options:

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Questions 122

When a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination MAC address, how is the frame handled?

Options:

A.

broadcast to all ports on the switch

B.

flooded to all ports except the origination port

C.

forwarded to the first available port

D.

inspected and dropped by the switch

Buy Now
Questions 123

What is an advantage of using auto mode versus static mode for power allocation when an access point is connected to a PoE switch port?

Options:

A.

All four pairs of the cable are used

B.

It detects the device is a powered device

C.

The default level is used for the access point

D.

Power policing is enabled at the same time

Buy Now
Questions 124

Which cipher is supported for wireless encryption only with the WPA2 standard?

Options:

A.

AES256

B.

AES

C.

RC4

D.

SHA

Buy Now
Questions 125

Drag and drop the DNS commands from the left onto their effects on the right.

Options:

Buy Now
Questions 126

Refer the exhibit.

What is the cause of poor performance on router R19?

Options:

A.

excessive collisions

B.

speed and duplex mismatch

C.

port oversubscription

D.

excessive CRC errors

Buy Now
Questions 127

Why is a first-hop redundancy protocol implemented?

Options:

A.

to protect against default gateway failures

B.

to prevent loops in a network

C.

to enable multiple switches to operate as a single unit

D.

to provide load-sharing for a multilink segment

Buy Now
Questions 128

Refer to the exhibit. The router R1 is in the process of being configured. Routers R2 and R3 are configured correctly for the new environment. Which two commands must be configuredd on R1 for PC1 to communicate to all PCs on the 10.10.10.0/24 network? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

ip route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.3

B.

ip route 10.10.10.10 255.255.255.255 192.168.2.2

C.

ip route 10.10.10.10 255.255.255.255 g0/1

D.

ip route 10.10.10.8 255.255.255.248 g0/1

E.

ip route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.248 192.168.2.2

Buy Now
Questions 129

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the subnet mask of the route to the 10.10.13.160 prefix?

Options:

A.

255.255.255.240

B.

255.255.255.128

C.

255.255.248.

D.

255.255.255.248

Buy Now
Questions 130

Refer to the exhibit.

User traffic originating within site 0 is failing to reach an application hosted on IIP address 192.168.0.10. Which is located within site A What is determined by the routing table?

Options:

A.

The default gateway for site B is configured incorrectly

B.

The lack of a default route prevents delivery of the traffic

C.

The traffic is blocked by an implicit deny in an ACL on router2

D.

The traffic to 192.168.0.10 requires a static route to be configured in router 1.

Buy Now
Questions 131

How do TCP and UDP fit into a query-response model?

Options:

A.

TCP establishes a connection prior to sending data, and UDP sends immediately.

B.

TCP uses error detection for packets, and UDP uses error recovery.

C.

TCP avoids using sequencing, and UDP avoids using acknowledgments.

D.

TCP encourages out-of-order packet delivery, and UDP prevents re-ordering.

Buy Now
Questions 132

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two values does router R1 use to identify valid routes for the R3 loopback address 1.1.1.3/32? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

lowest cost to reach the next hop

B.

highest metric

C.

highest administrative distance

D.

lowest metric

E.

lowest administrative distance

Buy Now
Questions 133

Which command configures the Cisco WLC to prevent a serial session with the WLC CLI from being automatical togged out?

Options:

A.

config sessions maxsessions 0

B.

config sessions timeout 0

C.

config serial timeout 0

D.

config serial timeout 9600

Buy Now
Questions 134

Refer to the exhibit.

A newly configured PC fails to connect to the internet using TCP port 80 to www cisco com Which setting must be modified for the connection to work?

Options:

A.

Subnet Mask

B.

DNS Servers

C.

Default Gateway

D.

DHCP Server

Buy Now
Questions 135

Drag and drop the Ansible features from the left to the right Not all features are used.

Options:

Buy Now
Questions 136

Which advantage does the network assurance capability of Cisco DNA Center provide over traditional campus management?

Options:

A.

Cisco DNA Center correlates information from different management protocols to obtain insights, and traditional campus management requires manual analysis.

B.

Cisco DNA Center handles management tasks at the controller to reduce the load on infrastructure devices, and traditional campus management uses the data backbone.

C.

Cisco DNA Center leverages YANG and NETCONF to assess the status of fabric and nonfabric devices, and traditional campus management uses CLI exclusively.

D.

Cisco DNA Center automatically compares security postures among network devices, and traditional campus management needs manual comparisons.

Buy Now
Questions 137

What is a benefit of VRRP?

Options:

A.

It provides traffic load balancing to destinations that are more than two hops from the source.

B.

It provides the default gateway redundancy on a LAN using two or more routers.

C.

It allows neighbors to share routing table information between each other.

D.

It prevents lloops in a Layer 2 LAN by forwarding all traffic to a root bridge, which then makes the final forwarding decision.

Buy Now
Questions 138

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure router R2 so it is elected as the DR on the WAN subnet. Which command sequence must be configured?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Buy Now
Questions 139

Refer to the exhibit.

A packet sourced from 172.18.33.2 is destined for 172.18.32.38. Where does the router forward the packet?

Options:

A.

GigabitEthernet0/0

B.

Loopback0

C.

10.1.1.1

D.

10.1.1.3

Buy Now
Questions 140

SIP-based Call Admission Control must be configuredd in the Cisco WLC GUI. SIP call-snooping ports are configured. Which two actions must be completed next? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Set the QoS level to silver or greater for voice traffic.

B.

Set the QoS level to platinum for voice traffic.

C.

Enable Media Session Snooping on re WLAN.

D.

Enable traffic shaping for the LAN interface of the WLC.

E.

configure two different QoS rotes tor data and voice traffic.

Buy Now
Questions 141

Drag and drop the statement about AAA services from the left to the corresponding AAA services on the right.

Options:

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Questions 142

Which cable type must be used to interconnect one switch using 1000 BASE-SX GBIC modules and another switch using 1000 BASE-SX SFP modules?

Options:

A.

LC to SC

B.

SC t ST

C.

SC to SC

D.

LC to LC

Buy Now
Questions 143

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets.

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 144

NO: 346

What must a network administrator consider when deciding whether to configure a new wireless network with APs in autonomous mode or APs running in cloud-based mode?

Autonomous mode APs are less dependent on an underlay but more complex to maintain than APs in cloud-based mode.

Cloud-based mode APs rely on underlays and are more complex to maintain than APs in autonomous mode.

Options:

A.

Cloud-based mode APs are easy to deploy but harder to automate than APs in autonomous mode.

B.

Autonomous mode APs are easy to deploy and automate than APs in cloud-based mode.

Buy Now
Questions 145

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration for RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 146

Refer to the exhibit.

What is represented by " R1 " and " SW1 " within the JSON output?

Options:

A.

key

B.

array

C.

value

D.

object

Buy Now
Questions 147

What is a benefit of using private IPv4 addressing?

Options:

A.

Multiple companies can use the same addresses without conflicts.

B.

Direct connectivity is provided to internal hosts from outside an enterprise network.

C.

Communication to the internet Is reachable without the use of NAT.

D.

All external hosts are provided with secure communication to the Internet.

Buy Now
Questions 148

Refer to the exhibit. Local access for R4 must be established and these requirements must be met:

• Only Telnet access is allowed.

• The enable password must be stored securely.

• The enable password must be applied in plain text.

• Full access to R4 must be permitted upon successful login.

Which configuration script meets the requirements?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Buy Now
Questions 149

Under which condition is TCP preferred over UDP?

Options:

A.

UDP is used when low latency is optimal, and TCP is used when latency is tolerable.

B.

TCP is used when dropped data is more acceptable, and UDP is used when data is accepted out- of-order.

C.

TCP is used when data reliability is critical, and UDP is used when missing packets are acceptable.

D.

UDP is used when data is highly interactive, and TCP is used when data is time-sensitive.

Buy Now
Questions 150

Which IP header field is changed by a Cisco device when QoS marking is enabled?

Options:

A.

Header Checksum

B.

Type of service

C.

DSCP

D.

ECN

Buy Now
Questions 151

Which protocol is used in Software Defined Access (SDA) to provide a tunnel between two edge nodes in different fabrics?

Options:

A.

Generic Router Encapsulation (GRE)

B.

Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)

C.

Virtual Extensible LAN (VXLAN)

D.

Point-to-Point Protocol

Buy Now
Questions 152

What is a reason to implement IPv4 private addressing?

Options:

A.

Reduce the risk of a network security breach

B.

Comply with PCI regulations

C.

Comply with local law

D.

Reduce the size of the forwarding table on network routers

Buy Now
Questions 153

What is a reason to configure a trunk port that connects to a WLC distribution port?

Options:

A.

Eliminate redundancy with a link failure in the data path.

B.

Allow multiple VLAN to be used in the data path.

C.

Provide redundancy if there is a link failure for out-of-band management.

D.

Permit multiple VLANs to provide out-of-band management.

Buy Now
Questions 154

What is the functionality of the Cisco DNA Center?

Options:

A.

data center network policy control

B.

console server that permits secure access to all network devices

C.

IP address pool distribution scheduler

D.

software-defined controller for automation of devices and services

Buy Now
Questions 155

Which two server types support domain name to IP address resolution? (Choose two >

Options:

A.

ESX host

B.

resolver

C.

web

D.

file transfer

E.

authentication

Buy Now
Questions 156

What is a function of an endpoint?

Options:

A.

It is used directly by an individual user to access network services

B.

It passes unicast communication between hosts in a network

C.

It transmits broadcast traffic between devices in the same VLAN

D.

It provide security between trusted and untrusted sections of the network.

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Questions 157

Drag and drop the Ansible terms from the left onto the right.

Options:

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Questions 158

Which device segregates a network into separate zones that have their own security policies?

Options:

A.

IPS

B.

firewall

C.

access point

D.

switch

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Questions 159

A network engineer is upgrading a small data center to host several new applications, including server backups that are expected to account for up to 90% of the bandwidth during peak times. The data center connects to the MPLS network provider via a primary circuit and a secondary circuit. How does the engineer inexpensively update the data center to avoid saturation of the primary circuit by traffic associated with the backups?

Options:

A.

Assign traffic from the backup servers to a dedicated switch.

B.

configure a dedicated circuit for the backup traffic.

C.

Place the backup servers in a dedicated VLAN.

D.

Advertise a more specific route for the backup traffic via the secondary circuit.

Buy Now
Questions 160

What provides connection redundancy increased bandwidth and load sharing between a wireless LAN controller and a Layer 2 switch?

Options:

A.

VLAN trunking

B.

tunneling

C.

first hop redundancy

D.

link aggregation

Buy Now
Questions 161

What is the function of northbound API?

Options:

A.

It upgrades software and restores files.

B.

It relies on global provisioning and configuration.

C.

It supports distributed processing for configuration.

D.

It provide a path between an SDN controller and network applications.

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Questions 162

Refer to the exhibit.

The network engineer is configuring a new WLAN and is told to use a preshared key for authentication instead of the RADIUS servers. Which additional set of tasks must the engineer perform to complete the configuration?

Options:

A.

Disable PMF Enable PSK Enable 802.1x

B.

Select WPA Policy Enable CCKM Enable PSK

C.

Select WPA Policy Select WPA2 Policy Enable FT PSK

D.

Select WPA2 Policy Disable PMF Enable PSK

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Questions 163

Refer to the exhibit.

How many objects are present in the given JSON-encoded data?

Options:

A.

one

B.

four

C.

seven

D.

nine

Buy Now
Questions 164

A packet from a company s branch office is destined to host 172.31.0.1 at headquarters. The sending router has three possible matches in its routing table for the packet prefixes: 172.31.0.0/16, 172.31.0.0/24, and 172.31.0.0/25. How does the router handle the packet?

Options:

A.

It sends the traffic via prefix 172.31.0.0/16

B.

It sends the traffic via the default gateway 0.0.0.0/0.

C.

It sends the traffic via prefix 172.31.0.0/24

D.

It sends the traffic via prefix 172.31.0.0/25

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Questions 165

Which two IPv6 addresses are used to provide connectivity between two routers on a shared link? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

::ffff:1014:1011/96

B.

2001:701:1046:1111::1/64

C.

;jff06bb43cd4dd111bbff02 4545234d

D.

2002:5121:204b:1111::1/64

E.

FF02::0WlFF00:0l)00/104

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Questions 166

Refer to the exhibit.

The primary route across Gi0/0 is configured on both routers. A secondary route must be configuredd to establish connectivity between the workstation networks. Which command set must be configuredd to complete this task?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 167

Refer to the exhibit.

A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 10.10.8.14. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?

Options:

A.

255.255.254.0

B.

255.255.255.240

C.

255.255.255.248

D.

255.255.255.252

Buy Now
Questions 168

Refer to the exhibit.

How does router R1 handle traffic to the 172.16.1.4/30 subnet?

Options:

A.

It sends all traffic over the path via 172.16.9.5 using 172.16.4.4 as a backup.

B.

It sends all traffic over the path via 10.0.1.100.

C.

It load-balances traffic over 172.16.9.5 and 172.16.4.4.

D.

It sends all traffic over the path via 172.16.4.4.

Buy Now
Questions 169

What is the purpose of the Cisco DNA Center controller?

Options:

A.

to secure physical access to a data center

B.

to scan a network and generate a Layer 2 network diagram

C.

to securely manage and deploy network devices

D.

to provide Layer 3 services to autonomous access points

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Questions 170

Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and drop the destination IPs from the left onto the paths to reach those destinations on the right.

Options:

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Questions 171

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer assigns IP addressing to the current VLAN with three PCs. The configuration must also account for the expansion of 30 additional VLANS using the same Class C subnet for subnetting and host count. Which command set fulfills the request while reserving address space for the expected growth?

Options:

A.

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.252

B.

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.248

C.

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.0

D.

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.128

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Questions 172

An engineer is configuring a switch port that is connected to a VoIP handset. Which command must the engineer configure to enable port security with a manually assigned MAC address of abcd.abcd.abcd on voice VLAN 4?

Options:

A.

switchport port-security mac-address abcd.abcd.abcd

B.

switchport port-security mac-address abed.abed.abed vlan 4

C.

switchport port-security mac-address sticky abcd.abcd.abcd vlan 4

D.

switchport port-security mac-address abcd.abcd.abcd vlan voice

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Questions 173

What are two reasons a switch experiences frame flooding? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

A defective patch cable is connected to the switch port

B.

Topology changes are occurring within spanning-tree

C.

An aged MAC table entry is causing excessive updates

D.

Port-security is configured globally

E.

The forwarding table has overflowed

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Questions 174

Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding state actions from the left to the right. Not all actions are used.

Options:

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Questions 175

After a recent security breach and a RADIUS failure, an engineer must secure the console port of each enterprise router with a local username and password. Which configuration must the engineer apply to accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 176

What is the collapsed layer in collapsed core architectures?

Options:

A.

core and WAN

B.

access and WAN

C.

distribution and access

D.

core and distribution

Buy Now
Questions 177

An engineer is installing a new wireless printer with a static IP address on the Wi-Fi network. Which feature must be enabled and configured to prevent connection issues with the printer?

Options:

A.

client exclusion

B.

passive client

C.

DHCP address assignment

D.

static IP tunneling

Buy Now
Questions 178

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode active

B.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode desirable

C.

int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode passive

D.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode auto

E.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode on

Buy Now
Questions 179

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?

Options:

A.

configuring a password for the console port

B.

backing up syslogs at a remote location

C.

configuring enable passwords on network devices

D.

setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure

Buy Now
Questions 180

What is the role of disaggregation in controller-based networking?

Options:

A.

It divides the control-plane and data-plane functions.

B.

It summarizes the routes between the core and distribution layers of the network topology.

C.

It enables a network topology to quickly adjust from a ring network to a star network

D.

It streamlines traffic handling by assigning individual devices to perform either Layer 2 or Layer 3 functions.

Buy Now
Questions 181

Refer to the exhibit.

Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?

Options:

A.

As traffic traverses MLS1 remark the traffic, but trust all markings at the access layer.

B.

Trust the IP phone markings on SW1 and mark traffic entering SW2 at SW2.

C.

Remark traffic as it traverses R1 and trust all markings at the access layer.

D.

As traffic enters from the access layer on SW1 and SW2. trust all traffic markings.

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Questions 182

Which two practices are recommended for an acceptable security posture in a network? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Backup device configurations to encrypted USB drives for secure retrieval

B.

maintain network equipment in a secure location

C.

Use a cryptographic keychain to authenticate to network devices

D.

Place internal email and file servers in a designated DMZ

E.

Disable unused or unnecessary ports, interfaces and services

Buy Now
Questions 183

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer built a new Layer 2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 and executed these show commands to verify the work. Which additional task allows the two switches to establish an LACP port channel?

Options:

A.

Change the channel-group mode on SW2 to auto

B.

Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to desirable.

C.

Configure the interface port-channel 1 command on both switches.

D.

Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to active or passive.

Buy Now
Questions 184

Refer to the exhibit.

Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 185

An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The account must meet these requirements:

* It must be configured in the local database.

* The username is engineer.

* It must use the strongest password configurable. Which command must the engineer configure on the router?

Options:

A.

R1 (config)# username engineer2 algorithm-type scrypt secret test2021

B.

R1(config)# username engineer2 secret 5 password S1$b1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

C.

R1(config)# username engineer2 privilege 1 password 7 test2021

D.

R1(config)# username englneer2 secret 4 S1Sb1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

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Questions 186

Drag and drop the IPv6 address details from the left onto the corresponding types on the right.

Options:

Buy Now
Questions 187

What is the default port-security behavior on a trunk link?

Options:

A.

It causes a network loop when a violation occurs.

B.

It disables the native VLAN configuration as soon as port security is enabled.

C.

It places the port in the err-disabled state if it learns more than one MAC address.

D.

It places the port in the err-disabled state after 10 MAC addresses are statically configured.

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Questions 188

Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward Secrecy?

Options:

A.

WPA3

B.

WPA

C.

WEP

D.

WPA2

Buy Now
Questions 189

Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding state actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.

Options:

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Questions 190

Refer to the exhibit.

For security reasons, automatic Neighbor Discovery must be disabled on the R5 Gi0/1 interface. These tasks must be completed:

• Disable all Neighbor Discovery methods on R5 interface GiO/1.

• Permit Neighbor Discovery on R5 interface GiO/2.

• Verify there are no dynamically learned neighbors on R5 interface Gi0/1.

• Display the IP address of R6*s interface Gi0/2.

Which configuration must be used?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 191

An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.

Options:

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Questions 192

What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?

Options:

A.

tracks the number of active TCP connections

B.

transmits exclusively at half duplex

C.

offers link bundling to servers

D.

uses routers to create collision domains

Buy Now
Questions 193

Which Windows command is used instead of the route print command to display the contents of the IP routing table?

Options:

A.

netstat-n

B.

ipconfig

C.

ifconfig

D.

netstat-r

Buy Now
Questions 194

What is the purpose of the service-set identifier?

Options:

A.

It identifies the wired network to which a network device is connected.

B.

It identifies a wirelesss network for a mobile device to connect.

C.

It identifies the wirelesss network to which an application must connect.

D.

It identifies the wired network to which a user device is connected.

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Questions 195

Which cable type must be used when connecting a router and switch together using these criteria?

• Pins 1 and 2 are receivers and pins 3 and 6 are transmitters

• Auto detection MDi-X is unavailable

Options:

A.

straight-through

B.

rollover

C.

crossover

D.

console

Buy Now
Questions 196

Which mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote sites and supports encryption?

Options:

A.

GRE over IPsec

B.

IPsec over ISATAP

C.

GRE

D.

ISATAP

Buy Now
Questions 197

What is a reason why an administrator would choose to implement an automated network management approach?

Options:

A.

Reduce inconsistencies in the network configuration.

B.

Enable " box by box " configuration and deployment.

C.

Decipher simple password policies.

D.

Increase recurrent management costs.

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Questions 198

Drag and drop the device behaviors from the left onto the matching HSRP state on the right.

Options:

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Questions 199

Why would a network administrator choose to implement RFC 1918 addresss space?

Options:

A.

to route traffic on the internet

B.

to provide flexibility in the IP network design

C.

to provide overlapping addresss space with another network

D.

to limit the number of hosts on the network

Buy Now
Questions 200

Refer to the exhibit. Which functionalities will this SSID have while being used by wirelesss clients?

Options:

A.

decreases network security against offline dictionary attacks and encourages easy access to the network

B.

increases network security against offline dictionary attacks and discourages time-consuming brute force attacks

C.

increases network security against man in the middle attacks and discourages denial of service attacks

D.

decreases network security against air sniffing attacks and discourages the use of complex passwords

Buy Now
Questions 201

Refer to the exhibit. What is the cause of the issue?

Options:

A.

STP

B.

port security

C.

wrong cable type

D.

shutdown command

Buy Now
Questions 202

What is the role of SNMP in the network?

Options:

A.

to monitor network devices and functions using a TCP underlay that operates on the presentation layer

B.

to collect data directly from network devices using an SSL underlay that operates on the transport layer

C.

to monitor and manage network devices using a UDP underlay that operates on the application layer

D.

to collect telemetry and critical information from network devices using an SSH underlay that operates on the network layer

Buy Now
Questions 203

Refer to the exhibit. The static routes were implemented on the border router. What is the next hop IP addressss for a ping sent to 172.16.153.154 froin the border router?

Options:

A.

10.56.65.56

B.

10.56.65.65

C.

10.65.56.56

D.

10.65.65.65

Buy Now
Questions 204

Refer to the exhibit.

What does the host do when using the IPv4 Preferred function?

Options:

A.

It continues to use a statically assigned IPv4 addresss

B.

It forces the DNS server to provide the same IPv4 addresss at each renewal.

C.

It requests the same IPv4 addresss when it renews its lease with the DHCP server.

D.

It prefers a pool of addressses when renewing the IPv4 host IP addressss

Buy Now
Questions 205

A network engineer is configuring a new router at a branch office. The router is connected to an upstream WAN network that allows the branch to communicate with the head office. The central time server with IP addressss 172.24.54.8 is located behind a firewall at the head office. Which command must the engineer configure so that the software clock of the new router synchronizes with the time server?

Options:

A.

ntp master 172.24.54.8

B.

ntp client 172.24.54.8

C.

ntp peer 172.24.54.8

D.

ntp server 172.24.54.8

Buy Now
Questions 206

What is the main difference between traditional networks and controller-based networking?

Options:

A.

Controller-based networks increase TCO for the company, and traditional networks require less investment.

B.

Controller-based networks provide a framework for Innovation, and traditional networks create efficiency.

C.

Controller-based networks are open for application requests, and traditional networks operate manually.

D.

Controller-based networks are a closed ecosystem, and traditional networks take advantage of programmability.

Buy Now
Questions 207

How are API keys used to enforce rate limiting?

Options:

A.

To define the network path the API request should take

B.

To uniquely identify each client application

C.

To specify the type of data format the client prefers to receive

D.

To encrypt data sent in the API request

Buy Now
Questions 208

Refer to the exhibit.

What does route 10.0.1.3/32 represent in the routing table?

Options:

A.

a single destination addresss

B.

the source 10.0.1.100

C.

all hosts in the 10.0.1.0 subnet

D.

the 10.0.0.0 network

Buy Now
Questions 209

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configure the CPE router to allow computers in the 172.20.1.0/24 network to obtain their IP configurations froin the central DHCP server. Which configuration must the engineer apply to the CPE?

Options:

A.

interface GigabitEthernet0/1ip helper-addresss 172.20.254.1

B.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0ip helper-addresss 172.20.1.1

C.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0ip helper-addresss 172.20.255.1

D.

interface GigabitEthernet0/ip helper-addresss 172.20.255.11

Buy Now
Questions 210

Which command enables HTTP access to the Cisco WLC?

Options:

A.

config network secureweb enable

B.

config certificate generate web admin

C.

config network webmode enable

D.

config network telnet enable

Buy Now
Questions 211

Which two HTTP methods are suitable for actions performed by REST-based APIs? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

REMOVE

B.

REDIRECT

C.

POST

D.

GET

E.

PUT

Buy Now
Questions 212

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the learned prefixes from the left onto the preferred route methods from which they were learned on the right.

Options:

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Questions 213

Refer to the exhibit.

Switch AccSw2 has just been added to the network along with PC2. All VLANs have been implemented on AccSw2. How must the ports on AccSw2 be configured to establish Layer 2 connectivity between PC1 and PC2?

Options:

A.

B.

B.

C.

C.

D.

D.

Buy Now
Questions 214

What is a reason to implement HSRP on a network?

Options:

A.

to Identify the closest hop to the default gateway In a LAN network

B.

to provide load balancing over multiple gateways in a LAN network

C.

to optimally route traffic based on the forwarding capacity of the edge routing devices in the LAN network

D.

to ensure that user traffic in a LAN rapidly recovers froin the failure of an edge routing device

Buy Now
Questions 215

What is a characteristic of an SSID in wirelesss networks?

Options:

A.

provides protection against spyware

B.

eliminates network piggybacking

C.

associates a name to a wirelesss network

D.

allows easy file sharing between endpoints

Buy Now
Questions 216

Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP addressss 192.168.20.1?

Options:

A.

0

B.

192.168.10.2

C.

24

D.

1

Buy Now
Questions 217

How does automation affect network management processes?

Options:

A.

It interoperates with ISE to define and manage patch and update schedules.

B.

It performs configuration updates based on user profiles.

C.

It improves the efficiency of system lifecycle management.

D.

It provides a reactive support model.

Buy Now
Questions 218

What are two differences between WPA2 and WPA3 wireless security? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

WPA3 uses AES for stronger protection than WPA2 which uses SAE

B.

WPA2 uses 128-bit key encryption and WPA3 requires 256-bit key encryption

C.

WPA3 uses AES for stronger protection than WPA2 which uses TKIP WPA3 uses

D.

SAE for stronger protection than WPA2 which uses AES

E.

WPA2 uses 128-bit key encryption and WPA3 supports 128 bit and 192 bit key encryption

Buy Now
Questions 219

Drag and drop the TCP and UDP characteristics froin the left onto the supporting protocols on the right. Not all options are used.

Options:

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Questions 220

Refer to the exhibit. Which routes are configured with their default administrative distances?

Options:

A.

EIGRP

B.

OSPF

C.

RIP

D.

Local

Buy Now
Questions 221

Refer to the exhibit. After a recent internal security audit, the network administrator decided to block all P2P-capable devices froin the selected SSID. Which configuration setting must the administrator apply?

Options:

A.

Set the P2P Block Action to Drop.

B.

Select a correctly configured Layer 2 ACL.

C.

Set the Wi-Fi Direct Client Policy to Not-Allow.

D.

Set the MFP Client Protection to Required.

Buy Now
Questions 222

Refer to the exhibit. How will the device handle a packet destined to IP addressss 100.100.100.100?

Options:

A.

If will choose the route with the longest match.O 100.100.100.100 ' 32 (110/21) via 192.168.1.1. 00:05:57. EmernetO/1.

B.

It will always prefer the static route over dynamic routes and choose the routeS 100.100.0.0/16(1/0] via 192.168.4.1.

C.

It will choose the route with the highest metric.D 100.100.100.0/24 (90/435200) via 192.168.2.1. 00:00:13. EthernetO/2.

D.

It will choose the route with the lowest metric,R 100.0.0.0/8 [120/2] via 192.168.3.1. 00:00:13. EthernetO/3.

Buy Now
Questions 223

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Options:

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Questions 224

Which key function is provided by the data plane?

Options:

A.

Making routing decisions

B.

Originating packets

C.

Forwarding traffic to the next hop

D.

Exchanging routing table data

Buy Now
Questions 225

Which components are contained within a virtual machine?

Options:

A.

physical resources, including the NIC, RAM, disk, and CPU

B.

configuration files backed by physical resources froin the Hypervisor

C.

applications running on the Hypervisor

D.

processes running on the Hypervisor and a guest OS

Buy Now
Questions 226

What are two benefits of private IPv4 addresssing? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

provides external internet network connectivity

B.

provides unlimited addresss ranges

C.

propagates routing information to WAN links

D.

reuses addressses at multiple sites

E.

conserves globally unique addresss space

Buy Now
Questions 227

Refer to the exhibit.

Packets are flowing from 192.168 10.1 to the destination at IP addressss 192.168.20 75. Which next hop will the router select for the packet?

Options:

A.

10.10101

B.

10.10.10.11

C.

10.10.10.12

D.

10.101014

Buy Now
Questions 228

What is represented by the word " switch " within this JSDN schema?

Options:

A.

array

B.

value

C.

key

D.

object

Buy Now
Questions 229

Refer to the exhibit. Company A wants to use a RADIUS server to service all user and device authentication attempts with a more secure and granular authentication approach. Not all client devices support dot1x authentication. Which two configuration changes must be made to accomplish the task? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Enable AutoConfig IPSK under the Layer 2 tab.

B.

Select Authentication server under the AAA servers tab.

C.

Configure Enterprise Security type under the Layer 2 tab.

D.

Set Authentication under the Layer 3 tab.

E.

Enable WPA2 Policy under the Layer 2 tab.

Buy Now
Questions 230

Which feature of Digest Authentication prevents credentials from being sent in plaintext?

Options:

A.

SSL/TLS encryption

B.

Challenge-response mechanism

C.

Token-based authorization

D.

Public key infrastructure

Buy Now
Questions 231

Which protocol is implemented when an organization must verify network performance, troubleshoot issues, and use an agent to communicate between monitoring tools and end devices?

Options:

A.

SNMP

B.

FTP

C.

NTP

D.

NFS

Buy Now
Questions 232

Which type of IPv4 address must be assigned to a server to protect it from external access and allow only internal users access while restricting internet access?

Options:

A.

global unicast

B.

public

C.

private

D.

multicast

Buy Now
Questions 233

Drag and drop the TCP and UDP characteristics froin the lett onto the corresponding protocols on the right.

Options:

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Questions 234

Which two transport layer protocols carry syslog messages? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

UDP

B.

RTP

C.

TCP

D.

IP

E.

ARP

Buy Now
Questions 235

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

10.249.210.56/25 [90/6144] via G0/15

10.249.210.56/25 [90/45053] via G0/13

10.249.210.56/25 [110/3693] via G0/16

10.249.210.56/25 [110/360] via G0/12

Options:

A.

G0/16

B.

G0/15

C.

G0/13

D.

G0/12

Buy Now
Questions 236

Refer to the exhibit. How does router R1 handle traffic to the 172.16.1.4/30 subnet?

Options:

A.

It sends all traffic over the path via 172.16.9.5 using 172.16.4.4 as a backup.

B.

It sends all traffic over the path via 172.16.4.4.

C.

It load-balances traffic over 172.16.9.5 and 172.16.4.4.

D.

It sends all traffic over the path via 10.0.1.100

Buy Now
Questions 237

Which QoS feature drops traffic that exceeds the committed access rate?

Options:

A.

Shaping

B.

Policing

C.

Weighted fair queuing

D.

FIFO

Buy Now
Questions 238

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer started to change default settings on SW1 to allow remote access and has entered the following in the configuration mode:

SW1(config)#line vty 0 15

SW1(config-line)#password Labtest32!

Which set of commands are needed to allow only SSH access and hide passwords in the running configuration?

Options:

A.

SW1(config-line)#exitSW1(config)#aaa new-model

B.

SW1(config-line)#login localSW1(config-line)#exitSW1(config)#enable secret test!2E

C.

SW1(config-line)#transport input sshSW1(config-line)#exitSW1(config)#service password-encryption

D.

SW1(config-line)#login localSW1(config-line)#exitSW1(config)#crypto key generate rsa

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Questions 239

What is the purpose of the URI string in a REST request?

Options:

A.

To identify a resource on a target server.

B.

To transport data or payload to a remote resource.

C.

To specify the way in which a remote resource is modified.

D.

To respond with the data content encoding for a request.

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Questions 240

How does IPsec provide secure networking for applications within an organization?

Options:

A.

It takes advantage of FTP to secure file transfers between nodes on the network.

B.

It provides GRE tunnels to transmit traffic securely between network nodes.

C.

It enables sets of security associations between peers.

D.

It leverages TFTP providing secure file transfers among peers on the network.

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Questions 241

Refer to the exhibit.

Which interface is chosen to forward traffic to the host at 192.168.0.55?

Options:

A.

GigabitEthernet0

B.

GigabitEthernet0/1

C.

Null0

D.

GigabitEthernet0/3

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Questions 242

What is the function of a controller in a software-defined network?

Options:

A.

multicast replication at the hardware level

B.

forwarding packets

C.

fragmenting and reassembling packets

D.

setting packet-handling policies

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Questions 243

Refer to the exhibit. Which interface does a packet take to reach the destination addresss of 10.10.10.147?

Options:

A.

FastEthemet 0/0

B.

Senal0/0

C.

FastEthemet 0/1

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Questions 244

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration enables SW2 to establish an LACP EtherChannel?

Options:

A.

SW2(config)#interface gigabitEthernet0/1

SW2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

SW2(config-if)#interface gigabitEthernet0/2

SW2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

B.

SW2(config)#interface gigabitEthernet0/1

SW2(config-if)#channel-group 2 mode desirable

SW2(config-if)#interface gigabitEthernet0/2

SW2(config-if)#channel-group 2 mode desirable

C.

SW2(config)#interface gigabitEthernet0/1

SW2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode on

SW2(config-if)#interface gigabitEthernet0/2

SW2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode on

D.

SW2(config)#interface gigabitEthernet0/1

SW2(config-if)#channel-group 2 mode auto

SW2(config-if)#interface gigabitEthernet0/2

SW2(config-if)#channel-group 2 mode auto

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Questions 245

A network architect is deciding whether to implement Cisco autonomous access points or lightweight access points. Which fact about firmware updates must the architect consider? Unlike lightweight access points, which require

Options:

A.

Unlike lightweight access points, which require redundant WLCs to support firmware upgrades, autonomous access points require only one WLC.

B.

Unlike autonomous access points, lightweight access points store a complete copy of the current firmware for backup.

C.

Unlike lightweight access points, autonomous access points can recover automatically from a corrupt firmware update.

D.

Unlike autonomous access points, lightweight access points require a WLC to implement remote firmware updates.

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Questions 246

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

O 10.18.75.113/27 [110/6906] via GO/6

O 10.18.75.113/27 [110/23018] via GO/3

R 10.18.75.113/27 [120/16] via GO/16

R 10.18.75.113/27 [120/14] via GO/23

Options:

A.

G0/23

B.

G0/3

C.

G0/16

D.

G0/6

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Questions 247

In which circumstance would a network architect decide to implement a global unicast subnet instead of a unique local unicast subnet?

Options:

A.

when the subnet must be available only within an organization

B.

when the subnet does not need to be routable

C.

when the addressses on the subnet must be equivalent to private IPv4 addressses

D.

when the subnet must be routable over the internet

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Questions 248

Which interface or port on the WLC is the default for in-band device administration and communications between the controller and access points?

Options:

A.

virtual interface

B.

management interface

C.

console port

D.

service port

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Questions 249

Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?

Options:

A.

20

B.

90

C.

110

D.

115

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Questions 250

Which mode must be set for APs to communicate to a Wireless LAN Controller using the Control and Provisioning of Wireless Access Points (CAPWAP) protocol?

Options:

A.

bridge

B.

route

C.

autonomous

D.

lightweight

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Questions 251

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the metric of the route to the 192.168.10.33/28 subnet?

Options:

A.

84

B.

110

C.

128

D.

192

E.

193

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Questions 252

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is required to verify that the network parameters are valid for the user wireless LAN connectivity on a /24 subnet. Drag and drop the values from the left onto the network parameters on the right. Not all values are used.

Options:

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Questions 253

Which networking function occurs on the data plane?

Options:

A.

forwarding remote client/server traffic

B.

facilitates spanning-tree elections

C.

processing inbound SSH management traffic

D.

sending and receiving OSPF Helto packets

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Questions 254

Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?

Options:

A.

Configure the version of SSH

B.

Configure VTY access.

C.

Create a user with a password.

D.

Assign a DNS domain name

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Questions 255

What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?

Options:

A.

Authentication verifies a username and password, and authorization handles the communication between the authentication agent and the user database.

B.

Authentication identifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization validates the users password

C.

Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform.

D.

Authentication controls the system processes a user can access and authorization logs the activities the user initiates

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Questions 256

Which virtual MAC address is used by VRRP group 1?

Options:

A.

0050.0c05.ad81

B.

0007.c061.bc01

C.

0000.5E00.0101

D.

0500.3976.6401

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Questions 257

What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration?

Options:

A.

No router ID is set, and the OSPF protocol does not run.

B.

The highest up/up physical interface IP address is selected as the router ID.

C.

The lowest IP address is incremented by 1 and selected as the router ID.

D.

The router ID 0.0.0.0 is selected and placed in the OSPF process.

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Questions 258

R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?

Options:

A.

route with the lowest cost

B.

route with the next hop that has the highest IP

C.

route with the shortest prefix length

D.

route with the lowest administrative distance

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Questions 259

An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three addresses 192.168.30.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3 Which configuration should be used?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 260

How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

Options:

A.

Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management

B.

Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale more quickly than with Cisco DNA Center device management

C.

Cisco DNA Center device management can be implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options

D.

Traditional campus device management schemes can typically deploy patches and updates more quickly than Cisco DNA Center device management

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Questions 261

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1 The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path What s the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?

Options:

A.

Traffic to 10.10.13.0.25 is load balanced out of multiple interfaces

B.

Route 10.10.13.0/25 is updated in the routing table as being learned from interface Gi0/1.

C.

Traffic to 10.10.13.0/25 is asymmetrical

D.

Route 10.10.13.0/25 learned via the GiO/0 interface remains in the routing table

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Questions 262

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route type is configured to reach the internet?

Options:

A.

host route

B.

default route

C.

floating static route

D.

network route

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Questions 263

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192 168.16.2?

Options:

A.

192.168.16.0/21

B.

192.168.16.0/24

C.

192.168 26.0/26

D.

192.168.16.0/27

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Questions 264

What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

reduced operational costs

B.

reduced hardware footprint

C.

faster changes with more reliable results

D.

fewer network failures

E.

increased network security

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Questions 265

Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network?

Options:

A.

TKiP encryption

B.

AES encryption

C.

scrambled encryption key

D.

SAE encryption

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Questions 266

What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The core and distribution layers perform the same functions

B.

The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains

C.

The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail.

D.

The core layer maintains wired connections for each host

E.

The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies

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Questions 267

Which level of severity must be set to get informational syslogs?

Options:

A.

alert

B.

critical

C.

notice

D.

debug

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Questions 268

Refer to the exhibit.

Which change to the configuration on Switch?

allows the two switches to establish an EtherChannel?

Options:

A.

Change the protocol to EtherChannel mode on.

B.

Change the LACP mode to active

C.

Change the LACP mode to desirable

D.

Change the protocol to PAqP and use auto mode

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Questions 269

Refer to Exhibit.

Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 270

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R2 is configured with multiple routes to reach network 10 1.1 0/24 from router R1. What protocol is chosen by router R2 to reach the destination network 10.1 1 0/24?

Options:

A.

eBGP

B.

static

C.

OSPF

D.

EIGRP

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Questions 271

On workstations running Microsoft Windows, which protocol provides the default gateway for the device?

Options:

A.

DHCP

B.

STP

C.

SNMP

D.

DNS

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Questions 272

Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?

Options:

A.

IP SLA

B.

syslog

C.

NetFlow

D.

SNMPv3

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Questions 273

Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image

B.

The IP domain-name command must be configured on the switch

C.

IP routing must be enabled on the switch

D.

A console password must be configured on the switch

E.

Telnet must be disabled on the switch

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Questions 274

How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control?

Options:

A.

Authorization provides access control and authentication tracks user services

B.

Authentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services

C.

Accounting tracks user services, and authentication provides access control

D.

Authorization identifies users and authentication provides access control

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Questions 275

Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions?

Options:

A.

1,6,11

B.

1,5,10

C.

1,2,3

D.

5,6,7

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Questions 276

Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Eliminating training needs

B.

Increasing reliance on self-diagnostic and self-healing

C.

Policy-derived provisioning of resources

D.

Providing a ship entry point for resource provisioning

E.

Reducing hardware footprint

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Questions 277

Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security for management connections to a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Telnet

B.

SSH

C.

HTTP

D.

HTTPS

E.

TFTP

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Questions 278

Refer to the exhibit.

If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.161.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?

Options:

A.

192.168.12.2

B.

192.168.13.3

C.

192.168.14.4

D.

192.168.15.5

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Questions 279

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?

Options:

A.

passive

B.

mode on

C.

auto

D.

active

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Questions 280

A network administrator is asked to configure VLANs 2, 3 and 4 for a new implementation. Some ports must be assigned to the new VLANs with unused remaining. Which action should be taken for the unused ports?

Options:

A.

configure port in the native VLAN

B.

configure ports in a black hole VLAN

C.

configure in a nondefault native VLAN

D.

configure ports as access ports

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Questions 281

Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?

Options:

A.

in the MAC address table

B.

in the CAM table

C.

in the binding database

D.

in the frame forwarding database

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Questions 282

Where does wireless authentication happen?

Options:

A.

SSID

B.

radio

C.

band

D.

Layer 2

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Questions 283

After installing a new Cisco ISE server, which task must the engineer perform on the Cisco WLC to connect wireless clients on a specific VLAN based on their credentials?

Options:

A.

Enable the allow AAA Override

B.

Enable the Event Driven RRM.

C.

Disable the LAG Mode or Next Reboot.

D.

Enable the Authorized MIC APs against auth-list or AAA.

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Questions 284

What is the function of a server?

Options:

A.

It transmits packets between hosts in the same broadcast domain.

B.

It provides shared applications to end users.

C.

It routes traffic between Layer 3 devices.

D.

It Creates security zones between trusted and untrusted networks

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Questions 285

Which port type supports the spanning-tree portfast command without additional configuration?

Options:

A.

access ports

B.

Layer 3 main Interfaces

C.

Layer 3 suninterfaces

D.

trunk ports

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Questions 286

Which function does an SNMP agent perform?

Options:

A.

it sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS

B.

it requests information from remote network nodes about catastrophic system events.

C.

it manages routing between Layer 3 devices in a network

D.

it coordinates user authentication between a network device and a TACACS+ or RADIUS server

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Questions 287

Which action does the router take as it forwards a packet through the network?

Options:

A.

The router replaces the source and destination labels with the sending router interface label as a source and the next hop router label as a desbnabon

B.

The router encapsulates the source and destination IP addresses with the sending router P address as the source and the neighbor IP address as the destination

C.

The router replaces the original source and destination MAC addresses with the sending router MAC address as the source and neighbor MAC address as the destination

D.

The router encapsulates the original packet and then includes a tag that identifies the source router MAC address and transmit transparently to the destination

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Questions 288

An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). What command sequence must be implemented?

Options:

A.

switch(config-line)#IIdp port-description

B.

switch(config)#IIdp port-description

C.

switch(config-if)#IIdp port-description

D.

switch#IIdp port-description

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Questions 289

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable ping router R3 Fa0/1.

Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?

Options:

A.

set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24

B.

set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2

C.

configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

D.

configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

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Questions 290

Drag the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the IP traffic types on the right.

Options:

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Questions 291

What is the function of a controller in controller-based networking?

Options:

A.

It serves as the centralized management point of an SDN architecture.

B.

It centralizes the data plane for the network.

C.

It is the card on a core router that maintains all routing decisions for a campus.

D.

It is a pair of core routers that maintain all routing decisions for a campus

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Questions 292

Refer to the exhibit.

With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?

Options:

A.

0

B.

110

C.

38443

D.

3184439

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Questions 293

An engineer must establish a trunk link between two switches. The neighboring switch is set to trunk or desirable mode. What action should be taken?

Options:

A.

configure switchport nonegotiate

B.

configure switchport mode dynamic desirable

C.

configure switchport mode dynamic auto

D.

configure switchport trunk dynamic desirable

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Questions 294

An engineer must configure an OSPF neighbor relationship between router R1 and R3 The authentication configuration has been configured and the connecting interfaces are in the same 192.168 1.0/30 sublet. What are the next two steps to complete the configuration? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

configure the helto and dead timers to match on both sides

B.

configure the same process ID for the router OSPF process

C.

configure the same router ID on both routing processes

D.

Configure the interfaces as OSPF active on both sides.

E.

configure both interfaces with the same area ID

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Questions 295

The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?

Options:

A.

restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration

B.

encrypts the password exchange when a VPN tunnel is established

C.

prevents network administrators from configuring clear-text passwords

D.

protects the VLAN database from unauthorized PC connections on the switch

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Questions 296

Which two QoS tools provides congestion management? ( Choose two )

Options:

A.

CAR

B.

CBWFQ

C.

PQ

D.

PBR

E.

FRTS

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Questions 297

A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.10.1.0 255.255.255.240 10.10.255.1

B.

ip route 10.10.1.16 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

C.

ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

D.

ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.254 10.10.255.1

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Questions 298

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator is tasked with configuring a voice VLAN. What is the expected outcome when a Cisco phone is connected to the GigabitEthernet3/1/4 port on a switch?

Options:

A.

The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone do not have VLAN connectivity

B.

The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone send and receive data in VLAN 50.

C.

The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone has no VLAN connectivity

D.

The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone sends and receives data in VLAN 1

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Questions 299

Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting interface by 256.

B.

The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.

C.

The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route

D.

The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the link

E.

The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route

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Questions 300

Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.

Options:

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Questions 301

How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?

Options:

A.

It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points

B.

It allows the administrator to assign channels on a per-device or per-interface basis.

C.

It segregates devices from different manufacturers onto different channels.

D.

It analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a channel.

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Questions 302

Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?

Options:

A.

disabling TPC so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices.

B.

setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller

C.

allocating nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another

D.

configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps

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Questions 303

Refer to Exhibit.

Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?

Options:

A.

The trunk does not form and the ports go into an err-disabled status.

B.

The trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain.

C.

The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link.

D.

The trunk forms but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state.

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Questions 304

Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?

Options:

A.

To pass client traffic two or more ports must be configured.

B.

The EtherChannel must be configured in " mode active "

C.

When enabled the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps

D.

One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic

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Questions 305

Which HTTP status code is returned after a successful REST API request?

Options:

A.

200

B.

301

C.

404

D.

500

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Questions 306

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They prevent (loops in the Layer 2 network.

B.

They allow encrypted traffic.

C.

They are able to bundle multiple ports to increase bandwidth

D.

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

E.

They allow multiple devices to serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network

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Questions 307

Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP trap from an agent?

Options:

A.

The NMS software must be loaded with the MIB associated with the trap.

B.

The NMS must be configured on the same router as the SNMP agent

C.

The NMS must receive a trap and an inform message from the SNMP agent within a configured interval

D.

The NMS must receive the same trap from two different SNMP agents to verify that it is reliable.

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Questions 308

What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating static route? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

to automatically route traffic on a secondary path when the primary path goes down

B.

to route traffic differently based on the source IP of the packet

C.

to enable fallback static routing when the dynamic routing protocol fails

D.

to support load balancing via static routing

E.

to control the return path of traffic that is sent from the router

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Questions 309

Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request?

Options:

A.

action

B.

management

C.

control

D.

data

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Questions 310

What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber

B.

A BNC connector is used for fiber connections

C.

The glass core component is encased in a cladding

D.

Fiber connects to physical interfaces using Rj-45 connections

E.

The data can pass through the cladding

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Exam Code: 200-301
Exam Name: Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1
Last Update: Jun 13, 2026
Questions: 1240
$64.4  $183.99
$49.35  $140.99
$44.8  $127.99
buy now 200-301