A technician is monitoring all outbound traffic in a SOHO. Which of the following is the MOST cost-effective solution to monitor the traffic?
A network tap is used to intercept the signals passing over a cable and send them to a packet or protocol analyzer. Taps are either powered or unpowered:
A system administrator has been tasked with allowing SMTP traffic through the system’s host-based firewall. Which of the following ports should the administrator enabled?
SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) uses port 25 to send email messages between servers12.
SMTP uses port 25 to send email messages between mail servers. Therefore, the system administrator should enable port 25 to allow SMTP traffic through the host-based firewall. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Study Guide, Tenth Edition, pg. 282
A technician is configuring a workstation to be used as a VM host. After installing the necessary software, the technician is unable to create any VMs. Which of the following actions should be performed?
If you want to install Windows 11 on a virtual machine using Hyper-V, you will have to use a “Generation 2” VM and enable the “trusted platform module” (TPM) and Secure Boot options. Otherwise, the OS won’t install.
Starting with Windows 11, Microsoft is changing the system requirement and making TPM 2.0 and Secure Boot a prerequisite to perform an in-place upgrade or clean install the new version on any device. This is in addition to the new 4GB of RAM and at least 64GB of storage.
quoted from here:
Furthermore, Multithreading is not a requirement for hyper-v hosting.
To create virtual machines on a workstation, the technician needs to enable Trusted Platform Module (TPM) in the system BIOS. TPM is a hardware-based security feature that helps protect the system from unauthorized access and tampering. It is required for many virtualization technologies, including Hyper-V, VirtualBox, and VMware. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives - 220-1002: 2.7 Explain the basics of virtualization.
An online retailer wants to save money and is considering migrating to the public cloud so peak is over. Which of the following BEST describes this aspect of cloud computing?
Rapid elasticity is only suitable for a domain whose resource requirements suddenly up and down for a specific time interval. Referring to the question the online retailer wants to migrate to public cloud services during peak season, then wants it to be removed "automatically" when the peak is over.
Recently, an organization received a number of spam emails that passed through the spam gateway. The emails contained generally the same information, but the sending domains were different. Which of the following solutions would BEST help mitigate the issue?
DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting and Conformance) is an email authentication protocol. It is designed to give email domain owners the ability to protect their domain from unauthorized use, commonly known as email spoofing.
An office manager reports that a printer is experiencing performance issues. Printouts are smudging when they are handled, and. recently, whenever the manager tries to print oversized documents, the paper jams before anything is printed on it.
A picture containing text, electronics, printer Description automatically generated
A user reports issues with a smartphone after dropping it. The icons on the screen all look normal, but when the user touches the email icon, for example, nothing happens. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?
Dropping a smartphone can damage the digitizer, which is the component responsible for sensing touch input. This can cause issues with tapping and swiping on the screen, as well as other touchscreen-related issues. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Exam Objectives - 3.3 Given a scenario, troubleshoot mobile device issues
Which of the following concepts would be used by an online retailer to quickly add more web servers during peak sales times?
Rapid elasticity would be used by an online retailer to quickly add more web servers during peak sales times. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Exam 220-1001, Page 405
An online retailer would like to add capacity to support increased sales. Additional servers have been installed. Which of the following should be used to ensure each new server is being properly utilized?
A load balancer distributes network traffic evenly across multiple servers, ensuring each server is being properly utilized. This helps to prevent overloading of any individual server, which can cause downtime or slow response times for users. In this scenario, adding a load balancer would be the best way to ensure the new servers are being properly utilized. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 - Page 181
In which of the following places is a laptop's wireless antenna MOST likely located?
According to Dell Community, the Wi-Fi antenna is located in the top of the LCD display housing. It consists of two elements, fed by two cables, a white main designated on the Wi-Fi card by a white triangle, and a black auxiliary designated on the Wi-Fi card by a black triangle1.
An organization maintains various record types, including health and criminal justice records. Which of the following cloud environments is the organization MOST likely to use to limit the attack surface?
Private cloud environments are designed for use by a single organization and offer the greatest control over security and access to data. They are typically used for sensitive or confidential data, such as health and criminal justice records. Public cloud environments are shared by multiple organizations and offer less control over security and access to data. Hybrid cloud environments combine public and private clouds, while community clouds are shared by multiple organizations with similar needs. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 - Page 234
A technician replaced a motherboard on a server, and now the 64-bit hypervisor is not loading correctly. Which of the following needs to be enabled for the hypervisor to run?
Enabling VT-d (Virtualization Technology for Directed I/O) in the server's BIOS settings is required for the hypervisor to run properly. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Ninth Edition, Chapter 11
A technician is setting up a new desktop computer and will be installing the hard drive directly on the motherboard without using cables to connect it. Which of the following will the technician be installing?
M.2 is a form factor for solid-state drives (SSDs) that enables direct attachment to the motherboard without the need for cables. Thunderbolt is a high-speed interface that supports data transfer, video output, and charging. eSATA is an external interface for connecting SATA devices. SCSI is an older interface standard for connecting hard drives, printers, and other peripherals.
Installing a hard drive directly on the motherboard without using cables is usually done with an M.2 slot. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Ninth Edition, Chapter 5
An IT manager discovered that hundreds of pages of printed materials are being recycled each day because the materials are left on the printer tray instead of being picked up by users. Which of the following would BEST prevent this waste?
By requiring a code or badge before releasing a print job, it ensures that only authorized personnel can collect the printouts. This method is effective in preventing waste and in keeping sensitive documents confidential. Sending reminders, enabling duplex printing, and billing departments are useful strategies for reducing paper utilization but may not necessarily prevent waste caused by uncollected printouts.
Requiring a code or badge before releasing a print job is the best solution to prevent the waste of printed materials, as it ensures that only the user who initiated the print job is able to pick up the printed materials. This can be achieved by implementing print release software or requiring users to enter a PIN code at the printer. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives 1001, 2.10
A technician receives several error alerts on a server after an unexpected reboot. A message states that one or more disks are in a degraded state. When the technician advances to the next error message, it indicates the OS is missing. Which of the following are the MOST likely causes of these errors? (Choose two.)
The message stating that one or more disks are in a degraded state is a clear indication of a RAID failure. RAID stands for Redundant Array of Independent Disks, and it is a technology used to provide fault tolerance and improve performance by combining multiple hard drives into a single logical unit.
The message indicating that the OS is missing is most likely caused by a bootable device not found. This means that the server is unable to boot from the designated boot device, which could be the hard drive, a CD/DVD drive, or a USB flash drive. This could be caused by a faulty boot device, a loose cable, or a misconfiguration in the BIOS or UEFI settings.
An organization is looking to upgrade the processing ability for its computers. Most users report that whenever multiple applications are being utilized, the system's response time slows down drastically. When only one application is open, the response time is acceptable. Which of the following should be upgraded FIRST?
The component that should be upgraded first is the RAM. When multiple applications are being utilized, the system’s response time slows down drastically. This is because the computer is running out of memory. Upgrading the RAM will allow the computer to store more data in memory, which will improve performance when multiple applications are being used123.
While implementing a non-carrier-grade wireless backhaul, a technician notices the current channel selection is extremely polluted with various RF signals. Upon performing a spectral analysis, the technician discovers a channel containing almost no RF pollution. Unfortunately, the technician is unable to select that channel. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this issue?
The most likely reason that the technician is unable to select the channel with almost no RF pollution is that it is reserved for licensed band use. Some channels are reserved for specific purposes and require a license to use. These licensed bands are typically used for critical infrastructure, public safety, or military operations, and unlicensed devices are not allowed to use them. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives - 220-1001: 3.3 Compare and contrast common networking hardware devices.
A customer is using a satellite internet connection that is experiencing slowness. A technician notices high latency while pinging, but the download test is performing perfectly with very good download speeds. Which of the following represents the NEXT action the technician should perform?
The technician should restart the modem and run an online internet connection and speed diagnostic tool1. High latency is a common issue with satellite internet connections, and it can cause slow internet speeds2. Restarting the modem can help to resolve the issue1. The technician should also run an online internet connection and speed diagnostic tool to check the connection and speed1. Guiding the customer on how to upgrade the internet plan with the provider in order to improve latency is not likely to be the correct option2.
High latency while pinging can indicate a problem with the modem or the connection between the modem and the satellite. Restarting the modem can often resolve connectivity issues. Running an online internet connection and speed diagnostic tool can help identify any other issues with the connection. Upgrading the internet plan may not resolve latency issues and may not be necessary if the download test is performing perfectly with very good download speeds. High latency is not normal for satellite internet connections, so replacing the modem based on this one test result is premature. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 - Page 102
A user working in the field reported the GPS stopped working on a phone. The user’s older, in-car GPS continued to function. Later, the user reported that the phone’s GPS started working again. Which of the following MOST likely caused the phone’s GPS to fail?
The phone's GPS may fail due to a loss of service from the carrier, which provides the phone with GPS location data. The fact that the in-car GPS continued to function suggests that the issue was related to the phone, not the GPS satellites. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Study Guide, Tenth Edition, pg. 372
Client-side virtualization guest machines have security requirements similar to physical machines, but they also need to ensure separation from other guest machines. Which of the following BEST describes this client-side guest security requirement?
Client-side virtualization guest machines require isolation from other guest machines to maintain their security. Isolation ensures that each virtual machine is separated from others and runs its own operating system and applications, making it less vulnerable to attacks from other guest machines. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives 220-1002 - Virtualization and cloud computing - 4.1
A laptop's external webcam software is running, but it shows no image or video. Which of the following should a technician perform FIRST?
If a laptop's external webcam software is running, but it shows no image or video, the first step the technician should perform is to reseat the webcam. Reseating the webcam involves disconnecting it from the motherboard and then reconnecting it. If this doesn't work, the technician should then check the webcam drivers or software. References: CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide, Tenth Edition by Mike Meyers (Page 502)
A user acquired a new workstation and is attempting to open multiple targe Excel files simultaneously. The user is not experiencing the expected performance when executing such large requests. Which of the following should a technician do FIRST?
Opening multiple large Excel files simultaneously requires a large amount of RAM. Upgrading the RAM in the workstation should improve performance. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Ninth Edition, Chapter 9
Which of the following BEST describes the main function of a web server?
A web server is a software application that serves HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) requests by delivering web pages and other files to users' web browsers. The main function of a web server is to host home pages and business portals, making them accessible to users via the internet. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives 220-1001 - Networking - 1.6
Which of the following should the data center hardware technician implement to ensure maximum uptime for customers' virtual machines?
An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) can help ensure maximum uptime for customers' virtual machines by providing a backup power source in case of a power outage or other power-related issues. A line conditioner and AC voltage regulator are designed to stabilize the power supply, but do not provide backup power. Cloud storage backup is a way to backup data, but does not directly impact uptime. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 - Page 159
A computer that contains critical data has not been backed up and will not boot past a S. M. A. R. T, error that indicates imminent hard disk failure. Which of the following actions should the technician take FIRST?
The technician should run diagnostics on the faulty hard drive using a boot disk first when a computer that contains critical data has not been backed up and will not boot past a S.M.A.R.T. error that indicates imminent hard disk failure. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Exam 220-1001, Page 376
A user submitted a ticket to report an issue with a new printer that is no longer accepting new print jobs. The technician verifies the printer is on and notices the printer LCD screen has the following error message:
Paper Jam, Jam in fuser.
Which of the following is the MOST efficient next step the technician should complete?
The MOST efficient next step the technician should complete is to check the printer paper path to locate any obstructions1. The error message “Paper Jam, Jam in fuser” indicates that there is a paper jam in the fuser2. The fuser is one of the parts of a laser printer most likely to fail without giving any explicit message2.
The printer LCD screen indicates a paper jam in the fuser. The most efficient next step the technician should complete is to check the printer paper path to locate any obstructions. Applying a maintenance kit or replacing the fuser may not be necessary if the issue is caused by a paper jam.
A customer reports that a computer is never able to reach more than a 100Mbps transfer data rate, even when using a Gigabit LAN card. While troubleshooting, the technician notices the network cable needs to be replaced. Which of the following cable categories is limiting the transfer speed?
Cat 5 cable is limited to a maximum data transfer rate of 100Mbps, while Cat 5e, Cat 6, and Cat 6a cables support Gigabit Ethernet (1000Mbps) and higher speeds. Even though the LAN card is capable of Gigabit speeds, it cannot achieve that speed when using a Cat 5 cable. Upgrading to a Cat 5e or higher cable would allow the computer to achieve Gigabit speeds. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 - Page 196
A technician powers on a PC and its monitor and sees the following error message:
No input signal detected
The display lights on the computer are on. Which of the following is a possible solution?
Changing the connector setting on the monitor is a possible solution for a PC and its monitor that display the error message "No input signal detected". This error can be caused by an incorrect input selected on the monitor, so changing the connector setting to the correct input should resolve the issue. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives 1001, 1.10
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Which of the following network devices is used to separate broadcast domains?
A router (option C) is a network device that is used to separate broadcast domains. A broadcast domain is a logical division of a computer network in which all nodes can reach each other by broadcast at the data link layer. Routers operate at the network layer of the OSI model and use routing tables to determine the best path for forwarding packets between different networks.
By separating broadcast domains, routers can help to reduce network congestion and improve performance. When a router receives a broadcast packet on one of its interfaces, it does not forward the packet to any other interfaces. This means that only devices within the same broadcast domain as the sender will receive the broadcast packet.
A user on a SOHO network is unable to watch online videos, even at 240 pixels. The technician runs ipconfig from the user's computer and records the following:
The technician then connects a test laptop to the router via the user's Cat 5 cable and records the following information:
Which of the following is MOST likely causing the user's issue?
Based on the information recorded by the technician, the network connection appears to be functioning normally. The user's computer is properly configured with an IPv4 address, subnet mask, and default gateway, which should allow the user to access the internet and online videos. The high download and upload speeds and low ping time recorded from the test laptop also indicate that the network is working well. However, the user's inability to watch online videos suggests that there might be an issue with the network card (NIC) on the user's computer. The NIC might be faulty or malfunctioning, which is preventing the computer from receiving and processing the video data. The technician should try replacing the NIC to resolve the issue.
Several users who share a multifunction printer in an office have reported unintended, thin, vertical lines that cover the entire height of every page printed from the printer. Which of the following steps should a technician complete in order to MOST likely resolve this issue?
Thin, vertical lines on every printed page are usually caused by a dirty drum or toner cartridge. Performing the drum-cleaning procedure will likely resolve the issue. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Ninth Edition, Chapter 18
A drive failed on a server that was leveraging a RAID disk configuration. The server administrator would like to rebuild the array so it can withstand a potential multidrive failure in the future. Which of the following RAID configurations will the administrator MOST likely select?
RAID stands for Redundant Array of Independent Disks, which is a technology that combines multiple disks into a logical unit to improve performance, reliability, or both. There are different types of RAID levels that use different methods of data distribution and redundancy.
RAID 0 is a level that stripes data across multiple disks without any redundancy. It offers the highest performance but no fault tolerance. If any disk fails, the entire array is lost.
RAID 1 is a level that mirrors data across two disks. It offers the lowest performance but the highest fault tolerance. It can survive the failure of one disk.
RAID 5 is a level that stripes data across multiple disks with parity information. It offers a balance between performance and fault tolerance. It can survive the failure of one disk, but not two or more disks.
RAID 10 is a level that combines RAID 1 and RAID 0. It creates a striped array of mirrored pairs. It offers high performance and high fault tolerance. It can survive the failure of one disk in each pair, or multiple disks in different pairs.
Therefore, if the server administrator wants to rebuild the array to withstand a potential multidrive failure in the future, RAID 10 is the most likely choice.
An IT technician is inspecting the internal components of a desktop computer to assess a suspected power issue with the motherboard. Which of the following connectors should the IT technician inspect further?
The connector that the IT technician should inspect further is Molex. The Molex connector is used to provide power to the motherboard and other components in the computer. If there is a suspected power issue with the motherboard, the IT technician should inspect the Molex connector to ensure that it is properly connected and providing power to the motherboard1
A technician verifies the slow boot time and slow OS performance of a tower server with a RAID 5 on a PCIe RAID card that does not support hot swapping. Which of the following steps should the technician take NEXT to verify RAID health?
Since the RAID card does not support hot swapping, the technician needs to shut down the server and check the RAID controller’s status to verify RAID health. S.M.A.R.T. is a feature of hard drives, not RAID cards. Replacing the failed drive while users are connected could cause data loss or corruption. Physically cleaning the HDDs and connectors is unlikely to solve the slow boot time and performance issues.
A user receives the following error when trying to reboot a computer:
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this error message?
The error message "Reboot and Select Proper Boot Device" indicates that the computer cannot find the boot device that contains the operating system12. This can happen if the hard drive that stores the operating system is damaged or failed, and the BIOS cannot detect it or read from it23. A failed hard drive can also cause other symptoms such as clicking noises, corrupted files, or slow performance4.
A customer has contacted you about building two new desktops. The first desktop will be a gaming workstation. The customer requirements include:
Playing the newest games at a high frame rate
Fast game load times
Enough storage to have several games installed at once
No concern about cost
Running the current Windows OS
The second workstation will be a family workstation. The requirements include:
Capability for word processing, videoconferencing, and basic web surfing
Minimal cost, as long as it meets the requirements
Running the current Windows OS
A user's laptop is running out of disk space and requires a new hard drive. The user wants to replace the existing hard drive with the fastest possible I TB HDD. A technician assesses the user's hardware and determines the connections that are available. Which of the following drive types should the technician recommend as the BEST choice?
The best choice for the user's laptop is a 1TB NVMe SSD. NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) is a high-performance storage protocol designed specifically for solid-state drives (SSDs). It is significantly faster than SATA SSDs and SAS hard drives, making it ideal for users who need fast storage for their laptop. NVMe SSDs also have lower latency and higher bandwidth than traditional hard drives, making them well-suited for data-intensive tasks such as video editing, gaming, and running multiple applications simultaneously. Additionally, NVMe offers more reliable data reliability than traditional hard drives, and is less susceptible to performance degradation over time.
A technician is troubleshooting an issue involving lines appearing down copied pages, but printed pages sent directly to the copier render as intended. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
If lines appear down copied pages but printed pages sent directly to copier render as intended, it could be due to scratched scanner glass which can cause lines or streaks on copied pages.
If there are lines appearing on copied pages, but not on printed pages sent directly to the copier, the issue is most likely caused by a scratch on the scanner glass. References: https://www.pacificoffice.com/how-to-fix-lines-on-copier/
A help desk technician receives a ticket stating a printer has jammed several times today. The technician removes the jammed paper and notices the paper supply is low and the paper in the
tray is wrinkled. Which of the following MOST likely caused the paper jams?
A multipage misfeed is when more than one sheet of paper feeds into the printer at once, causing paper jams or misprints. A multipage misfeed can be caused by low paper supply or wrinkled paper in the tray, as reported by the user in this case. High latency is not related to paper jams, but to network delays or slow performance. Page orientation refers to whether the page is printed in portrait or landscape mode, which does not affect paper jams either. Driver mismatch could cause printing errors or compatibility issues, but not paper jams.
A user’s Windows computer started running slowly after the installation of a CAD program. The computer has intermittent timeouts and often has to be rebooted to restore functionally. The computer seems to work correctly if the application is not running. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT to help troubleshoot the issue? (Select TWO).
The technician should research the requirements of the CAD program to see if the computer meets them or needs any upgrades or updates to run it properly. The technician should also check the Event Viewer logs to see if there are any errors or warnings related to the application or system performance that could indicate the cause of the problem or suggest a solution. Reference: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/a-core-1-220-1101-study-guide (pages 43, 47)
A software developer used client-side virtualization on a server to configure a web application. Although the application is working locally on the software developer's PC, other users on the LAN are not able to access the
application. Which of the following would allow other users to access the application?
Client-side virtualization is used to run an application or process on a separate virtual machine, isolated from the main operating system. To allow other users on the LAN to access the application, the software developer should configure a bridge networking connection between the virtual machine and the LAN. This will allow the virtual machine to communicate with other computers on the network. Application virtualization, virtual desktop, and site-to-site VPN are not necessary steps for allowing other users to access the application.
A virtual file server in the cloud is configured to automatically add compute resources during times of high load on the server. Which of the following describes this cloud feature?
Rapid elasticity is a cloud feature that allows cloud services to scale up or down automatically according to demand or load on the server, without requiring manual intervention or configuration changes by users or administrators.This enables cloud services to provide optimal performance and efficiency at all times, as well as reducing costs by only using resources when needed. Reference: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/a-core-1-220-1101-study-guide (page 98)
A user is traveling to another country and will be unable to get personal cell phone service after the plane lands. Which of the following should the user update to resolve the issue?
Updating the preferred roaming list (PRL) is what a user should do to resolve the issue of being unable to get personal cell phone service after traveling to another country. The PRL is a database that contains information about cell towers and frequencies that a phone can use in different areas. Updating the PRL can improve the phone’s ability to connect to local networks and avoid roaming charges. CDMA is a type of cellular technology that uses code division multiple access to transmit data over radio frequencies. MDM is an acronym for mobile device management, which is a type of software solution that allows remote management and security of mobile devices. GPS is an acronym for global positioning system, which is a satellite-based navigation system that provides location and time information
A user has noticed high CPU temperatures when gaming. The user would like to lower the CPU temperature, and cost is not an issue. Which of the following should the user do to BEST cool the CPU while keeping noise to a minimum?
Liquid cooling is a method of cooling the CPU by circulating a liquid through a closed loop that absorbs heat from the CPU and transfers it to a radiator. Liquid cooling is more effective and quieter than air cooling, which uses a fan and a heat sink. However, liquid cooling is also more expensive and complex to install. Upgrading the thermal paste, using a copper heat sink, or upgrading the CPU fan are ways to improve air cooling, but they will not lower the CPU temperature as much as liquid cooling. References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-liquid-cooling
A technician needs to install RAM into a rackmount server that will be used as a VM host. Which of the following would be BEST to install?
When installing RAM into a server that will be used as a VM host, it is recommended to install ECC (Error-Correcting Code) RAM to help prevent errors that can cause virtual machines to crash. References: https://www.servermonkey.com/blog/ecc-vs-non-ecc-ram-what-are-the-differences.html
When installing RAM into a rackmount server that will be used as a VM host, it would be best to install ECC (Error Correcting Code) RAM which can detect and correct common types of data corruption.
A customer built a computer for gaming, sourcing individual components and then assembling the system. The OS starts up, but within a few minutes the machine locks up. The customer brought the computer to a technician to diagnose the issue.
correct answer is "Overclocking" and "Reduce CPU Clock speed" CPU is at 4.5 Ghz when normal is 3.2 Ghz. Overclocking too much can cause freezes, and this is a gaming computer so the user probably took it too far. http://blog.logicalincrements.com/2018/12/4-troubleshooting-tips-overclocking-pc/
A video game developer is requesting a new desktop computer with eight sticks of memory. The developer wants the desktop computer to take advantage of all available memory bandwidth without sacrificing performance. Which of the following would be the BEST solution?
Quad-channel memory architecture allows the CPU to access four memory modules simultaneously, increasing the memory bandwidth and performance. DDR4 RAM is a type of memory that has higher speed and lower power consumption than DDR3. SODIMM is a smaller form factor of memory that is typically used in laptops, not desktops. ECC RAM is a type of memory that can detect and correct errors, but it is more expensive and slower than non-ECC RAM. Triple-channel memory architecture is less common and less efficient than quad-channel. References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-ddr4-ram https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-quad-channel-memory
Which of the following virtualization technologies allows Linux and Windows operating system to run concurrently?
Every time a user sends a print job, the user must walk over to the printer and press OK before the job will print. The same issue is occurring for multiple users. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?
The message prompting to press "OK" indicates that the printer is waiting for a user input. This suggests that there is some issue with the printer settings, and the most probable cause is that the default paper type has been changed, and the printer needs the user to confirm the paper type before proceeding with the print job. This is a common issue that can occur when the default paper type is not set correctly or has been changed without the user's knowledge.
A technician is preparing laptops for deployment to a medical department. The laptops require SSD-level encryption to be enabled, but BitLocker refuses to turn it on. An error message states that a BIOS-level setting has not been turned on. Which of the following should the technician check FIRST when troubleshooting this issue?
The Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware component that provides cryptographic functions and secure storage for encryption keys, passwords, and certificates. BitLocker requires a TPM to be enabled and activated in the BIOS or UEFI settings of the laptop in order to use SSD-level encryption. The technician should check that the TPM is enabled and activated before trying to turn on BitLocker. Reference: https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/a-core-series-combined-content-guide (page 34)
A technician recently received a written warning for causing a system-wide outage. The outage was a result of an unscheduled patch being manually pushed during production hours. Which of the following could have MOST likely prevented the technician from receiving the warning?
Following corporate procedures would have been the most likely factor that could have prevented the technician from receiving the written warning. Following established procedures, such as change management, helps ensure that changes made to the production environment are thoroughly tested, approved, and implemented in a controlled and safe manner, reducing the risk of system-wide outages and other unintended consequences.
A technician needs to configure a printer for network communications Which of the following must the technician configure? (Select THREE).
To configure a printer for network communications, the technician must configure its network settings, such as gateway, subnet mask, and IP address. The gateway is the IP address of the router or device that connects the printer to other networks or the internet. The subnet mask is a value that defines which part of the IP address identifies the network and which part identifies the host or device on that network. The IP address is a unique identifier that allows the printer to communicate with other devices.
A technician responds to a user who has reported that a laptop is too hot. The technician notices the laptop is not able to sit level on the workspace. What of the following BEST describes the issue with the laptop?
A damaged battery can cause a laptop to overheat and swell, making it unable to sit level on the workspace. A swollen battery can also pose a fire hazard and damage other components of the laptop, such as the motherboard or keyboard. The technician should replace the battery as soon as possible and dispose of it properly according to local regulations. Reference: https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/a-core-series-combined-content-guide (page 25)
A bank wants to leverage cloud computing but would like a cloud solution in which infrastructure is isolated from other businesses. Which of the following cloud models would BEST address the bank's need?
A private cloud is a cloud computing model that provides services and resources to a specific organization or group over a private network. A private cloud can offer more security and control than other cloud models, as well as customized infrastructure that suits the organization’s needs. A bank would most likely choose a private cloud model to leverage cloud computing while maintaining isolation from other businesses. A public cloud is a cloud computing model that provides services and resources to anyone over the internet. A hybrid cloud is a combination of public and private cloud services that share data and resources.
A technician is troubleshooting a classroom projector that shuts down after fifteen minutes of use. Which of the following should the technician do to resolve the issue?
Cleaning the air filter is the best action to resolve the issue of a projector that shuts down after fifteen minutes of use. A dirty air filter can cause overheating and trigger the projector’s thermal protection mechanism. Replacing the video input cable, changing the bulb, or swapping the power cord are unlikely to solve the overheating issue
A user wants RAID to be configured on a desktop to allow the fastest speed and maximum storage capacity. Which of the following RAID types should a technician configure to accommodate this request?
RAID 0 is a configuration that stripes data across multiple disks without parity or redundancy. It provides the fastest speed and maximum storage capacity among the RAID types listed, but it also has no fault tolerance. RAID 1 mirrors data across two disks, providing redundancy but halving the storage capacity. RAID 5 stripes data across three or more disks with parity, providing fault tolerance but reducing the storage capacity by one disk. RAID 10 combines mirroring and striping across four or more disks, providing both speed and redundancy but reducing the storage capacity by half.
A natural disaster occurred, and the storage system for the development team is unrecoverable. The technician is preparing replacement storage arrays that include a hypervisor with the capacity to support several virtual machines. Two separate bays are available, and both should be utilized.
Requirements for the primary array include the following:
• No need to be scalable
• Very fast on reads
• Fault tolerance of one drive
• Ability to function with only one drive
• Easily recoverable data
• High redundancy
• Minimum number of drives
Requirements for the secondary array include the following:
• Fault tolerance of one drive
• Total space of 600G3
• Best write performance
• Minimum number of drives
Drag and Drop the appropriate Hard Drives. Then Open each array to complete the configuration.
You have completed the configuration of the storage arrays.
A Microsoft Windows user is preparing to work in another country and needs to comply with corporate policy for data protection when copying files to portable media. Which of the following solutions would MOST likely satisfy this requirement?
Using a USB 3.1 flash drive with BitLocker to Go installed is the best option for complying with corporate policy for data protection when copying files to portable media. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Ninth Edition, Chapter 12
An organization has some computers running macOS and some computers running Windows. The computers running macOS also need to run a piece of software that is only available on Windows. Which of the following BEST describes the solution for running Windows software on a computer running macOS?
Cross-platform virtualization would be the best solution for running Windows software on a computer running macOS. This involves running a virtual machine (VM) on the macOS computer, which emulates a Windows environment and allows the Windows software to be installed and run within the VM.
Cross-platform virtualization allows a computer running macOS to run Windows software. It involves creating a virtual machine on the macOS computer and installing a Windows operating system on it. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Ninth Edition, Chapter 1
A technician receives an alert indicating all VMs are down. After some troubleshooting, the technician discovers the network is out of space. To resolve the issue, the technician decides to add more space. Which of the following network types will the technician be working with?
A storage area network (SAN) is the type of network that the technician will be working with when adding more space to resolve the issue of all VMs being down due to the network being out of space. A SAN is a network that provides access to consolidated and block-level data storage, which can be used for virtualization and backup purposes. SCSI is a type of interface that connects devices such as hard drives and optical drives to a computer. NAC is a type of security solution that controls access to a network based on policies and device compliance. WISP is a type of internet service provider that delivers wireless broadband access over long distances.
A technician is working to connect an RS-232 serial signature pad to a customer's ultralightweight laptop. Which of the following should the technician use to install the device?
A USB-C cable is the best option for installing an RS-232 serial signature pad to an ultralightweight laptop. USB-C is a universal connector that supports various protocols and devices, including serial devices. A port replicator is a device that expands the connectivity options of a laptop by providing additional ports. Wi-Fi Direct is a wireless technology that allows devices to connect directly without a router or access point. Hotspot is a feature that allows a device to share its internet connection with other devices via Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, or USB.
While on a VoIP call, one user is unable to understand the other because the audio is breaking up. Which of the following BEST describes what is occurring on the call?
High latency is what best describes what is occurring on a VoIP call when one user is unable to understand the other because the audio is breaking up. Latency is the delay between sending and receiving data over a network, and high latency can cause poor quality or interruptions in VoIP calls. External interference, no connectivity, or port flapping are not likely to cause audio breaking up, but rather complete loss of signal or connection.
A technician is attempting to connect the wired LANs at two nearby buildings by installing a wireless point-to-point connection. Which of the following should the technician consider?
When installing a wireless point-to-point connection between two buildings, the technician should consider the allowable limits for transmit power, which vary depending on the country or region. Exceeding these limits could interfere with other wireless devices or violate regulations. NFC protocol data rate, RFID frequency range, and Bluetooth version compatibility are not relevant for a wireless point-to-point connection.
Using the output below:
Which of the following is the default gateway?
The default gateway is the IP address of the router or device that connects a network to another network or the internet. In the output below, the default gateway is 172.25.1.252, as shown in the line “Default Gateway . . . . . . . . . : 172.25.1.252”. The other IP addresses are not default gateways, but either local IP addresses (172.25.1.39 and 172.25.1.4) or subnet masks (255.255.255.0).
An insurance company wants to implement cloud computing and would like a cloud solution in which the infrastructure is shared with businesses in the same industry. Which of the following cloud models BEST addresses the company's need?
The cloud model that BEST addresses the company’s need is the Community cloud model. A community cloud is a cloud infrastructure in which multiple organizations share resources and services based on common operational and regulatory requirements. The concept of a community cloud is akin to a community garden, where different individuals grow produce on a single piece of shared land1.
Which of the following describes the BEST use case for a client-side hypervisor?
A client-side hypervisor is a virtual machine monitor (VMM) that resides in and virtualizes a user’s computer, allowing it to run multiple operating systems (or virtual machines) on shared hardware12. A client-side hypervisor can be useful for a software developer who needs to test an application in many environments, such as different versions of Windows, Linux, or Mac OS. By using a client-side hypervisor, the developer can switch between different virtual machines without rebooting the computer or using multiple physical devices3.
A user reports that all print jobs sent to a laser printer have random and incorrect characters throughout the pages. Which of the fallowing actions should the technician do to resolve this issue?
One of the possible causes of random and incorrect characters appearing on print jobs sent to a laser printer is an outdated or corrupted driver. The driver is a software component that communicates between the operating system and the printer, and converts data into a format that the printer can understand. If the driver is outdated or corrupted, it may send incorrect or garbled data to the printer, resulting in poor print quality or errors. The technician should update the driver to the latest version from the manufacturer’s website, or uninstall and reinstall it if necessary. Reference: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/a-core-1-220-1101-study-guide (page 47)
Which of the following handles touch-screen operation on a mobile device?
A digitizer is a component that handles touch-screen operation on a mobile device. It is a layer of material that detects and converts the touch of a finger or a stylus into an electrical signal that can be processed by the device12. A digitizer works with a display screen to create a touch-screen interface that allows a user to interact with the device by touching pictures or words on the screen.
A technician needs to increase the available RAM on a virtual workstation. Which of the following should the technician do?
A hypervisor is a software layer that manages and allocates resources for virtual machines (VMs) on a physical host machine. A technician can use a hypervisor to adjust the resource allocation for a virtual workstation, such as increasing the amount of RAM assigned to it from the available pool of memory on the host machine. This can improve the performance and functionality of the virtual workstation without requiring any hardware changes or modifications. Reference: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/a-core-1-220-1101-study-guide (page 59)
Which of the following is a characteristic of cloud computing that prioritizes reliability?
High availability is a characteristic of cloud computing that prioritizes reliability. High availability means that cloud services can be accessed without interruption or failure, even in the event of a disaster or a hardware malfunction. This is achieved by using redundant components, backup systems, load balancing, and failover mechanisms. According to the CompTIA Core1 objectives, one of the benefits of cloud computing is high availability. A research paper on cloud reliability also defines high availability as the ability to provide continuous service despite faults or failures.
A user needs to connect a laptop to the internet while traveling on a train. Which of the following features should be enabled on the user's phone?
A hotspot is a feature that allows a phone to share its cellular data connection with other devices via Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, or USB. This can be useful when traveling on a train, where Wi-Fi networks may not be available or reliable. A hotspot can provide internet access to a laptop or other devices that need to connect to the web.
Bluetooth is a wireless technology that allows devices to communicate over short distances, usually within 10 meters. It can be used to pair devices such as headphones, speakers, keyboards, mice, etc. However, it cannot be used to share internet access from a phone to a laptop.
Near-field communication (NFC) is a wireless technology that allows devices to exchange data by touching or bringing them close together, usually within 4 cm. It can be used for applications such as contactless payments, smart cards, digital tickets, etc. However, it cannot be used to share internet access from a phone to a laptop.
Roaming is a feature that allows a phone to use another carrier’s network when the home network is not available. This can be useful when traveling abroad, where the home network may not have coverage or agreements with local operators. However, roaming can incur additional charges and may not provide the same speed or quality of service as the home network. Roaming does not affect the ability of the phone to share internet access with other devices via hotspot.
A technician is troubleshooting a laptop that has a blank LCD panel. The technician shines a flashlight into the LCD and sees a faint image. Which of the following BEST describes the issue?
an inverter is a device that converts DC power from the laptop’s battery or AC adapter to AC power for the backlight of the LCD panel. If the inverter is defective, the backlight will not work and the LCD panel will appear blank or very dim. The user can still see a faint image if they shine a flashlight into the LCD because the LCD itself is still working.
A customer brings a phone top a repair shop because it is experiencing extreme slowness and applications are crashing. A technician attempts to install a diagnostic application. but the installation fails. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST to troubleshoot the issue?
One of the possible causes of extreme slowness and application crashes on a phone is low or insufficient storage space. This can affect the performance and functionality of the phone, as well as prevent new applications from being installed or updated. The technician should check the storage space on the phone and see if there is enough free space available for the diagnostic application and other operations. The technician should also advise the customer to delete or move any unnecessary or unused files, apps, or data from the phone to free up some space. Reference: https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/a-core-1-content-guide (page 10)
A technician wants to stress test multiple applications while maintaining the ability to easily reset those environments back to the initial state. Which of the following is the best way to accomplish this task?
A sandbox is a virtual environment that allows testing or running applications without affecting the main system. A sandbox can isolate the applications from the rest of the system, preventing any unwanted changes, errors, or security risks. A sandbox can also be easily reset to the initial state, discarding any modifications or data generated by the applications12.
A sandbox is a useful tool for stress testing multiple applications, as it can:
•Simulate different scenarios and conditions for the applications, such as high load, low memory, network latency, etc.
•Monitor and measure the performance, stability, and resource consumption of the applications under stress.
•Compare and analyze the results of different applications or different versions of the same application.
•Identify and fix any bugs, errors, or vulnerabilities in the applications before deploying them to the main system.
A graphic designer wants to purchase a laptop that provides the most accurate color spectrum available when viewed from as many different angles as possible. Which is the following display types would best meet the graphic designer's requirements?
The correct answer is C. OLED.
OLED stands for Organic Light-Emitting Diode, and it is a type of display technology that uses organic compounds to create light and color. Unlike LCD (Liquid Crystal Display) or Plasma displays, OLED does not require a backlight or a filter to produce images. This means that OLED can offer higher contrast, wider color gamut, and better viewing angles than other display types.
LCD displays use liquid crystals that are sandwiched between two polarizing filters and illuminated by a backlight. The liquid crystals can change their orientation and block or allow light to pass through the filters. LCD displays can have different panel types, such as IPS (In-Plane Switching), VA (Vertical Alignment), or TN (Twisted Nematic), which affect the color accuracy, response time, and viewing angles of the display.
Plasma displays use gas-filled cells that are electrically charged to create plasma, which emits ultraviolet light. The ultraviolet light then excites phosphors that emit visible light and color. Plasma displays can produce deep blacks and high contrast, but they are also prone to image retention, screen burn-in, and high power consumption.
VGA stands for Video Graphics Array, and it is not a display type but a video interface standard that was introduced in 1987. VGA can transmit analog signals from a computer to a monitor, but it has low resolution and limited color depth compared to modern digital standards such as HDMI or DisplayPort.
Therefore, OLED is the best display type for graphic designers who want the most accurate color spectrum and the widest viewing angles. OLED displays can also be thinner and lighter than LCD or Plasma displays, which makes them ideal for laptops. However, OLED displays are also more expensive and less durable than other display types, and they may suffer from image retention or burn-in over time.
A technician wants to deploy a .msi package to a corporate network. The technician needs to verify the application deployment will not affect other legacy applications on the end users' computers. Which of the following would the technician consider the most appropriate for this situation?
Application virtualization is a technique that allows an application to run on a computer without being installed or affecting other applications on the system. Application virtualization creates a virtual environment for the application that isolates it from the underlying operating system and hardware. This way, the technician can verify the application deployment will not affect other legacy applications on the end users’ computers.
A technician is troubleshooting a burning smell on a desktop computer. The technician determines that the odor is coming from inside the device.
Which of the following should the technician do first?
A burning smell on a desktop computer is a serious issue that indicates a hardware malfunction or failure. It can be caused by overheating, a faulty power supply, a malfunctioning motherboard, or a short circuit12. If left unchecked, it can damage the components, cause a fire, or harm the user.
The first thing the technician should do when troubleshooting a burning smell on a desktop computer is to unplug the computer from the power source. This will stop the flow of electricity and prevent further damage or fire. The technician should also wear protective gloves and eye wear to avoid contact with any hot or hazardous parts.
The other options are less likely to be the first step in troubleshooting, because:
•Locating a fire extinguisher is a good precaution, but it should not be done before unplugging the computer. The fire extinguisher should only be used if there is visible smoke or flames coming from the computer, and only after unplugging it and ensuring that it is safe to do so.
•Calling the fire department is an extreme measure that should only be done if there is an actual fire that cannot be controlled by the fire extinguisher. It should not be done before unplugging the computer and trying to identify and fix the problem.
•Removing the desktop cover is a necessary step to inspect the internal components and find the source of the burning smell. However, it should not be done before unplugging the computer, as it can expose the technician to live wires and electric shocks.
For more information and tips on how to troubleshoot a burning smell on a desktop computer, you can visit these links:
•How to find the source of a burning smell in my computer?
•Burning Smell From PC? 10 Reasons Why It Could Happen
Which of the following technologies can be used to harden guest virtual machines?
A virtual Trusted Platform Module (vTPM) is a technology that can be used to harden guest virtual machines by providing them with a secure cryptographic device. A vTPM can store encryption keys, certificates, and passwords, and can perform integrity checks on the guest operating system and applications. A vTPM can also enable features such as BitLocker and Credential Guard in Windows 10 virtual machines.
A. Containerization is a technology that can be used to isolate applications from the underlying operating system and hardware resources. Containerization does not directly harden guest virtual machines, but rather provides a lightweight alternative to virtualization.
B. Network isolation is a technology that can be used to separate network traffic between different virtual machines or groups of virtual machines. Network isolation can help prevent unauthorized access or attacks on guest virtual machines, but it does not harden them internally.
C. Resource reservation is a technology that can be used to guarantee a minimum amount of CPU, memory, disk, or network resources for a virtual machine or a group of virtual machines. Resource reservation can help improve the performance and availability of guest virtual machines, but it does not harden them against security threats.
D. vTPM is a technology that can be used to harden guest virtual machines by providing them with a secure cryptographic device. A vTPM can store encryption keys, certificates, and passwords, and can perform integrity checks on the guest operating system and applications.
A help desk technician thinks a desktop PC has failed due to a defective power supply Which of the following steps should the technician take
According to the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology, the next step after establishing a theory of probable cause is to test the theory to determine the cause. However, before testing the theory, the technician may need to conduct some research based on the symptoms and the possible cause. This may involve consulting online resources, manuals, documentation, or colleagues to find out more information about the power supply and how to test it. Research can help the technician confirm or eliminate the theory and avoid unnecessary actions or damage.
Answer A is incorrect because inquiring about environmental or infrastructure changes is part of identifying the problem, which is the first step of the troubleshooting methodology. The technician should have already done this before establishing a theory of probable cause.
Answer C is incorrect because establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution is the fourth step of the troubleshooting methodology. The technician should not jump to this step without testing the theory and verifying the cause.
Answer D is incorrect because documenting the findings, actions, and outcomes is the last step of the troubleshooting methodology. The technician should not do this until the problem is resolved and verified.
A customer wants to archive a large number of photos and does not plan to retrieve them often. The customer wants a storage option that is the least expensive per gigabyte. Which of the following should the technician suggest?
The correct answer is D. 5,400rpm HDD.
A 5,400rpm HDD (Hard Disk Drive) is a type of storage device that uses spinning magnetic disks to store data. A 5,400rpm HDD is the least expensive per gigabyte among the options given, as it has a lower rotational speed and performance than other types of HDDs or SSDs (Solid State Drives). A 5,400rpm HDD is suitable for archiving a large number of photos that are not accessed frequently, as it can offer high capacity and reliability at a low cost.
the average cost per gigabyte of a 5,400rpm HDD is around $0.02 to $0.0312, while the average cost per gigabyte of the other options are:
Therefore, a 5,400rpm HDD is the cheapest option among the four.
A bank wants to leverage cloud computing but would like a cloud solution in which infrastructure is shared with businesses in the same industry. Which of the following cloud models would BEST address the bank's need?
A community cloud model is a cloud solution in which infrastructure is shared among organizations that have common interests, goals, or concerns, such as security, compliance, or industry standards. This model would best address the bank’s need to leverage cloud computing while maintaining a high level of security and privacy for its data and transactions. The other cloud models are not suitable for this scenario, as they either do not offer enough control over the infrastructure (public cloud), or do not allow for sharing of resources among similar organizations (private cloud and hybrid cloud). Verified References: [What Is Community Cloud?]
A user reports a monitor, keyboard, mouse. and headset are no longer functioning. The user has restarted the laptop and tested an alternative headset and monitor, but the issue persists. The technician notices the user has a printer. USB-C hub, and AC adapter plugged into the laptop. Which of the following should the technician do to MOST likely resolve the issue?
The most likely cause of the issue is that the user’s USB-C hub is faulty or incompatible with the laptop. The USB-C hub is a device that allows the user to connect multiple peripherals to the laptop using a single USB-C port. If the hub is not working properly, it may prevent the monitor, keyboard, mouse, and headset from functioning. The technician should replace the user’s USB-C hub with a new one that is compatible with the laptop and test the peripherals again. Verifying the AC adapter voltage will not help with the issue, as the AC adapter is used to power the laptop, not the peripherals. Repairing the operating system will not help either, as the issue is not related to software. Reinstalling the drivers for affected devices may not help, as the issue may be caused by the hub, not the devices. Making sure the printer is not drawing too much power is irrelevant, as the printer is not connected to the hub or affecting the other peripherals. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-usb-c
Which of the following network devices should a technician install in order to isolate voice traffic on the network?
A managed switch is a network device that can be configured to create VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks), which are logical segments of a network that isolate traffic based on criteria such as function, security, or quality of service. A VLAN can be used to isolate voice traffic on the network, which can improve the performance and security of voice over IP (VoIP) applications. A network tap, a hub, and a DSL filter are not capable of creating VLANs.
A user has been unable to configure a smart device to play audio on a new Bluetooth speaker. A technician confirms that Bluetooth is enabled on both devices. Which of the following should the technician do to ensure the pairing is successful?
To pair a Bluetooth speaker with a smart device, the user needs to enter the PIN code that is provided by the speaker manufacturer or displayed on the speaker itself. This is a security measure to prevent unauthorized pairing and access. Enabling and configuring MFA, synchronizing data to the cloud, or enabling location services are not required for Bluetooth pairing.
A technician is trying to fix a computer that fails to boot even when all the RAM is removed. Which of the following should the technician do next to troubleshoot the issue?
The next step that the technician should do to troubleshoot the issue is C. Swap the power supply if it is inoperable.
A power supply is a device that converts the alternating current (AC) from the wall outlet into direct current (DC) that the computer components can use. A power supply is essential for the computer to boot and function properly. A faulty or inadequate power supply can cause various issues, such as no power, no display, random shutdowns, or beeping sounds.
In this scenario, the technician is trying to fix a computer that fails to boot even when all the RAM is removed. RAM stands for Random Access Memory, and it is a type of memory that stores data and instructions for the processor to access and process. RAM is also essential for the computer to boot and function properly. A faulty or incompatible RAM can cause various issues, such as no boot, no display, blue screen, or beeping sounds.
One of the basic troubleshooting techniques for a computer that fails to boot is to remove all the RAM modules and try to boot with one module at a time in different slots. This can help to identify if the problem is caused by a bad RAM module or a bad RAM slot. If the computer still fails to boot even when all the RAM is removed, it means that the problem is not related to the RAM, but to another component.
The next step that the technician should do is to swap the power supply if it is inoperable. This means that the technician should test the power supply with a multimeter or a power supply tester, and replace it with a known good one if it is faulty or insufficient. This can help to determine if the problem is caused by a bad power supply or a bad motherboard.
The other options are not the next steps that the technician should do, because they are less likely or less effective. Inspecting the motherboard for swollen capacitors (option A) may be helpful if the problem is caused by a damaged or defective motherboard, but it requires opening the computer case and visually examining the motherboard components. Replacing the CMOS battery (option B) may be necessary if the problem is caused by a low or dead CMOS battery, but it usually affects only the BIOS settings and not the boot process. Checking to see if the HDD power connectors are well seated (option D) may be useful if the problem is caused by a loose or faulty HDD connection, but it usually affects only the data access and not the boot process.
For more information about troubleshooting power supply and boot issues, you can refer to the following web search results: [How to Troubleshoot a Computer That Won’t Turn On], [How to Test a Power Supply Using a Multimeter], [How to Fix a Computer That Shows No Sign of Power], [How to Troubleshoot Beep Codes].
A server administrator is building a new application server. Which of the following, RAID levels provides MAXIMUM performance and redundancy?
RAID 10 is a combination of RAID 1 and RAID 0, which provides both performance and redundancy. RAID 1 mirrors data across two or more disks, while RAID 0 stripes data across two or more disks. RAID 10 combines these two methods to create a mirrored stripe set, which can tolerate multiple disk failures as long as they are not in the same mirror. RAID 10 requires at least four disks and offers better performance than RAID 5, which uses parity to provide redundancy. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-raid-0-1-5-6-10
A printer displays an error message even after a paper jam is cleared. Which of the following should a technician do to fix the issue?
A paper path is the route that paper takes through a printer from the input tray to the output tray. A blocked sensor is a sensor that detects paper jams or other errors in the paper path but fails to clear after the problem is resolved. A blocked sensor can cause a printer to display an error message even after a paper jam is cleared. The technician should check the paper path for any debris or obstructions that may trigger the sensor.
Which of the following server roles does RADIUS perform?
AAA stands for Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting, and it is a framework that provides security services for network access control. Authentication verifies the identity of a user or device that requests access to a network resource. Authorization determines what level of access or privileges are granted to a user or device based on their identity or role. Accounting tracks and records the usage of network resources by users or devices for billing or auditing purposes. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is a protocol that implements AAA functions by communicating with a central server that stores user credentials and policies.
A technician needs to upgrade the power supply of a workstation that contains a high-end graphics card, 16 hyperthreaded cores, and multiple hard drives. Which of the following should the technician use to determine the appropriate power supply for the workstation?
The manufacturer’s specifications for the components are the best source of information to determine the appropriate power supply for the workstation. The manufacturer’s specifications will list the power requirements and recommendations for each component, such as the graphics card, the CPU, the hard drives, and the motherboard. By adding up the power consumption of each component, the technician can estimate the total wattage needed for the workstation. The technician should also consider some extra headroom for future upgrades or peak loads. The technician can then choose a power supply that meets or exceeds the total wattage and has the right connectors and form factor for the workstation.
A team is having Issues With paper jams on a printer that the team shares With other teams. The team that IS having Issues prints legal-sized documents, and the other teams print letter-sized documents. Which of the following is most likely the issue?
The most likely issue is C. Tray settings.
Tray settings are the configuration options that tell the printer what type and size of paper is loaded in each tray. If the tray settings do not match the actual paper loaded, it can cause paper jams, misalignment, or incorrect printing. For example, if the printer expects letter-sized paper (8.5 x 11 inches) but the tray contains legal-sized paper (8.5 x 14 inches), the printer may try to pull more paper than it needs, resulting in a jam.
To fix this issue, the team should check and adjust the tray settings according to the paper they are using. They should also make sure that the paper is loaded correctly and not overfilled or mixed with different sizes or types of paper. Some printers have a manual feed option that allows users to select the paper size and type before printing, which can prevent paper jams from occurring.
•Fix Paper Jam Errors | HP® Support, section “Paper jams”.
•Common Causes of Paper Jams and How to Fix Them - 1ink.com, section “Make Sure You’re Loading the Paper Correctly”.
•How to Fix a Paper Jam in a Printer - Computer Hope, section “Paper tray is overloaded or not loaded correctly”.
A technician is working to replace a single DDR3 RAM module on a laptop that has two occupied slots_ When the technician tries to tum on the laptop, the computer starts beeping and does not pass POST The technician double-checks the newly installed RAM and notices a motherboard message indicating low voltage. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this Issue?
Memory modules are physical components that store data and instructions for the computer to access and process. Memory modules have different specifications and features, such as type, speed, capacity, voltage, and form factor. These specifications and features must be compatible with the motherboard and the processor of the computer, otherwise the memory modules may not work properly or cause errors.
In this scenario, the technician is working to replace a single DDR3 RAM module on a laptop that has two occupied slots. DDR3 stands for Double Data Rate 3, and it is a type of memory technology that offers faster performance and lower power consumption than its predecessors. DDR3 RAM modules have different variants, such as DDR3L, DDR3U, or DDR3R, which have different voltage requirements. For example, DDR3L operates at 1.35V, DDR3U operates at 1.25V, and DDR3R operates at 1.5V.
When the technician tries to turn on the laptop, the computer starts beeping and does not pass POST. POST stands for Power-On Self-Test, and it is a process that checks the hardware components and functionality of the computer before loading the operating system. If POST detects an error or a failure, it may produce a series of beeps or codes to indicate the problem. The number and pattern of beeps or codes may vary depending on the manufacturer or model of the computer.
The technician double-checks the newly installed RAM and notices a motherboard message indicating low voltage. This means that the motherboard is not receiving enough power from the memory module to operate normally. This could indicate that the memory module is not compatible with the motherboard or the processor, or that it is defective or damaged. The most likely cause of this issue is that the technician installed an unsupported memory module that has a lower voltage than what the motherboard or the processor requires.
To resolve this issue, the technician should remove the newly installed RAM module and replace it with a compatible one that has the same voltage as the existing ones. The technician should also check the specifications and features of the motherboard and the processor to ensure that they support the type, speed, capacity, and form factor of the memory modules. The technician should also follow proper safety precautions when handling memory modules, such as wearing an anti-static wrist strap, avoiding physical damage or static discharge, and aligning the notches correctly.
A technician replaces a laptop hard drive with an M.2 SSD. When the technician reboots the laptop, the laptop does not detect the SSD. Which of the following should the technician configure for the system?
UEFI stands for Unified Extensible Firmware Interface, and it is a type of firmware that controls the boot process of a computer. UEFI settings allow the technician to configure various aspects of the boot process, such as the boot order, the boot mode, and the security options. If the technician replaces a laptop hard drive with an M.2 SSD, they may need to adjust the UEFI settings to enable the system to detect and boot from the new drive.
A user submitted a help desk ticket to report that the Wi-Fi connection drops every time the microwave is used. A technician suspects the issue is related to interference. Which of the following should the technician do to provide the BEST long-term solution for the issue?
The issue is related to interference from the microwave, which operates at 2.4GHz, the same frequency as some Wi-Fi channels. To avoid this interference, the technician should configure the Wi-Fi access point (AP) to use a 5GHz band, which has more channels and less interference from other devices. Changing the Wi-Fi operation channel may not solve the problem if the microwave interferes with multiple channels. Increasing the power output of the AP may not overcome the interference and may cause more interference to other devices. Changing the SSID to hidden does not affect the interference at all, and may make it harder for users to connect to the network. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-wifi-6-and-why-is-it-important
Which of the following are benefits of application virtualization? (Select two).
The correct answers are D. The overall IT cost goes down and F. Upgrading applications is easier.
Application virtualization is a technology that allows users to run applications without installing them on their devices. The applications are stored and executed on a remote server, and the users can access them through a network connection. Application virtualization has several benefits, such as12:
•The overall IT cost goes down: Application virtualization reduces the need for hardware, software, and maintenance costs, as the applications are centralized and managed on the server side. This also saves energy and space, as fewer physical machines are required to run the applications. Additionally, application virtualization can reduce licensing costs, as the applications can be delivered on-demand and based on usage.
•Upgrading applications is easier: Application virtualization simplifies the process of updating and patching applications, as the changes can be made on the server side and pushed to the users instantly. This eliminates the need for manual installation and configuration on each device, and ensures that all users have the latest version of the applications.
Other benefits of application virtualization include123:
•Allows the running of legacy apps: Application virtualization can enable users to run applications that are developed for older or incompatible operating systems, such as Windows 7 or XP. This can extend the lifespan of legacy applications and avoid compatibility issues.
•Enables cross-platform operations: Application virtualization can allow users to run applications that are designed for different platforms, such as Windows apps on iOS, Android, macOS, or Chrome OS. This can increase the accessibility and mobility of the applications and enhance the user experience.
•Improves security and compliance: Application virtualization can isolate the applications from the underlying operating system and hardware, preventing malware or unauthorized access from affecting them. This can also protect the data and settings of the applications from being tampered with or lost. Furthermore, application virtualization can help enforce compliance policies and regulations, as the applications can be controlled and monitored by the server.
1: 5 Benefits of Virtualization - IBM Blog
2: Benefits of Application Virtualization - AppsAnywhere
3: What is Application Virtualization? | VMware Glossary
An administrator is replacing 15.000rpm hard drives in a server. Which of the following is the interface type the drives most likely use?
SAS (Serial Attached SCSI) is an interface type that supports high-speed data transfer and high-performance hard drives, such as 15,000rpm drives. SAS drives are commonly used in servers that require fast access and reliability. IDE (Integrated Drive Electronics), eSATA (external SATA), and SATA (Serial ATA) are not suitable for 15,000rpm drives, as they have lower speed and performance.
Which of the following is the best reason to set up a virtual sandbox?
A virtual sandbox is an isolated environment that mimics the characteristics of a real system, but does not affect or interact with it1. A virtual sandbox can be used to run potentially unsafe or malicious code and observe its behavior without risking harm to the host machine or network2. This is useful for cybersecurity researchers who want to test and analyze malware samples, such as viruses, worms, ransomware, etc., and understand how they work and how to prevent or mitigate them3.
An integrated webcam on a user's laptop broke, so a technician installed a temporary, external webcam. Since the external webcam installation, other users can only see part of the user's face during videoconferences. Which of the following BEST describes the reason for this issue?
The most likely reason for the issue is that the webcam is not on a level surface, which causes the camera angle to be distorted. The user should adjust the position of the webcam so that it is aligned with the laptop screen and captures the user’s face fully. The other options are not relevant to this issue, as they would not affect the camera angle or visibility of the user’s face. Verified References: How to Position Your Webcam Correctly.
A laptop's external webcam software is running, but neither images nor videos can be viewed. Which of the following should a technician do first?
The first step that a technician should do is A. Reseat the webcam.
Reseating the webcam means unplugging and plugging back the webcam into the laptop’s USB port. This can help to ensure that the webcam is properly connected and recognized by the laptop. Reseating the webcam is a simple and quick troubleshooting technique that can solve many common issues, such as loose or faulty connections, power or bandwidth problems, or driver or software conflicts.
Reseating the webcam is the first step that a technician should do, because it follows the principle of starting with the easiest and most obvious solution before moving on to more complex and time-consuming ones. Reseating the webcam can also help to isolate the problem and eliminate other possible causes.
The other options are not the first steps that a technician should do, because they are more disruptive or less effective. Restarting the computer and running system diagnostics (option B) may be helpful if the problem is caused by a software or hardware error, but it may also cause data loss or interruption of other tasks. Reinstalling the webcam software and drivers (option C) may be necessary if the problem is caused by a corrupted or outdated software or driver, but it may also introduce compatibility or configuration issues. Researching new webcam firmware (option D) may be useful if the problem is caused by a firmware bug or vulnerability, but it may also pose security or stability risks.
For more information about troubleshooting external webcams, you can refer to the following web search results: [How to Fix Webcam Problems on Your Laptop], [How to Troubleshoot Webcam Issues on Windows 10], [How to Fix Common Webcam Problems].
Which of the following is the best way to protect the data of a virtual machine in the event of hardware failure?
Cloud-based backup is the best way to protect the data of a virtual machine, as it allows the data to be stored in a remote location that is accessible from anywhere. Cloud-based backup also provides scalability, security, and reliability for data protection3. References: [Cloud Backup]
Which of the following cloud models allows an organization to retain data on site as well as in the cloud?
The correct answer is C. Hybrid.
A hybrid cloud model is a combination of two or more different cloud models, such as public, private, community, or on-premises. A hybrid cloud model allows an organization to retain data on site as well as in the cloud, depending on the security and performance requirements of the data. A hybrid cloud model can also provide flexibility, scalability, and cost-efficiency for the organization12.
A public cloud model is a cloud service that is available to anyone over the internet. A public cloud model does not allow an organization to retain data on site, as the data is stored and managed by a third-party provider. A public cloud model can offer lower costs, higher availability, and easier access, but it may have less security and control over the data12.
A community cloud model is a cloud service that is shared by a group of organizations that have similar needs or goals. A community cloud model does not allow an organization to retain data on site, as the data is stored and managed by a third-party provider or one of the participating organizations. A community cloud model can offer higher security, privacy, and compliance, but it may have higher costs and lower availability than a public cloud model12.
A private cloud model is a cloud service that is exclusively used by a single organization. A private cloud model can allow an organization to retain data on site or in the cloud, depending on the configuration of the private cloud. A private cloud model can offer higher security, control, and customization, but it may have higher costs and lower scalability than a public cloud model12.
A user attempts to connect a laptop to a projector but receives the following message from the projector: Out of Range. Which of the following needs to be addressed first?
The most likely answer is A. Change the resolution settings.
The error “Out of Range” normally means that the resolution being output by the computer is not compatible with the projector. The resolution is the number of pixels that are displayed on the screen. If the resolution is too high for the projector, it may not be able to display the image correctly or at all12.
To resolve this issue, you should try lowering the resolution settings on your laptop to match the native resolution of the projector or a lower one. You can do this by following these steps1:
•Right-click on an empty area of your desktop and select Display settings.
•Under Scale and layout, click on Display resolution and choose a lower option from the drop-down menu.
•Click Apply and then Keep changes.
•Reconnect your laptop to the projector and check if the image is displayed properly.
If changing the resolution settings does not help, you may need to check other factors, such as the video cable, the display settings, or the video card driver. However, these are less likely to cause the “Out of Range” error than the resolution settings.
A user's laptop has been slow to respond for the past few days. The user has run a virus scan, deleted temporary files, closed unnecessary programs, and rebooted the laptop, but the issue persists. Which of the following steps should the technician take next?
Firmware is a type of software that controls the hardware components of a device, such as the motherboard, hard drive, or keyboard. Firmware updates can improve the performance, stability, and compatibility of the device, as well as fix bugs and security issues. Running a firmware update can help to resolve the issue of a slow laptop, especially if the firmware is outdated or corrupted.
A user needs to transfer files from an Apple phone to a workstation. Which of the following connection types should the user utilize?
Lightning is a proprietary connection type that is used by Apple devices, such as iPhones, iPads, and iPods, to transfer data, charge, and connect to accessories. Lightning cables have a reversible 8-pin connector that can be plugged into a USB port on a workstation or a power adapter. USB-C, serial, and NFC are not compatible with Apple phones.
A user reports that a laptop correctly connects to the internet when docked at the office but is unable to access the internet when at home. Which of the following should the technician do first?
A wireless adapter is a device that allows a laptop to connect to a wireless network, such as a home Wi-Fi router. A wireless adapter can be either internal or external, and it can be enabled or disabled by the user or the operating system. If the wireless adapter is disabled, the laptop will not be able to access the internet when it is not connected to a wired network, such as the office dock.
The technician should do the following steps to enable the wireless adapter:
If none of these steps work, there may be a hardware or software problem with the wireless adapter that requires further troubleshooting or replacement.
A technician is troubleshooting a PC that makes grinding noises and eventually shuts down. The technician determines the PC is overheating. Which of the following is most likely failing?
The most likely component that is failing and causing the PC to overheat is D. CPU fan. The CPU fan is a vital part of the cooling system that prevents the CPU from overheating by blowing air over the heatsink and dissipating the heat. If the CPU fan is faulty, noisy, or clogged with dust, it can reduce the airflow and cause the CPU temperature to rise12. This can result in poor performance, instability, or shutdowns of the PC.
The other components are less likely to be the cause of overheating. RAM, motherboard, and SSD do not generate as much heat as the CPU and usually do not require fans to cool them down1. They may overheat if there is poor ventilation in the case or if they are defective, but they are not as common as a failing CPU fan.
Therefore, the correct answer is D. CPU fan. This is the most likely component that is failing and causing the PC to overheat.
A user reports that a projector was previously working, but the screen now displays the following error message: No Source Found. Which of the
following actions should the technician take first? (Select two).
One of the possible causes of the error message “No Source Found” is that the projector is not receiving any signal from the connected device, such as a laptop1. This could be due to an incorrect input source selected on the projector or an improper display setting on the laptop. Therefore, the first actions that the technician should take are to verify the projector settings and make sure the correct input is selected, and to check the laptop display settings and set them to extend/duplicate23.
A technician is building a video production workstation that will consist of two high-end GPUs The technician is reusing an existing ATX case. Which of the following should the technician select as the MOST appropriate power supply type?
A video production workstation that will consist of two high-end GPUs will require a lot of power and a modular power supply. A modular power supply allows the technician to connect only the cables that are needed for the components, which reduces clutter and improves airflow. A 1,200W power supply should be enough to power the two GPUs and other components, but the exact wattage depends on the specifications of the GPUs and other components. A 400W external power supply is not enough to power the workstation and may not be compatible with the ATX case. Two 600W redundant power supplies are unnecessary and may not fit in the ATX case. A 1,500W uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a device that provides backup power in case of a power outage, but it is not a replacement for a power supply unit (PSU). References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-power-supply-unit
A technician is configuring the settings on a multifunction printer so the device can be shared across the LAN_ Which of the following should the technician do to enable the printer to be shared across the network?
To enable the printer to be shared across the network, the technician should configure the IP settings of the printer. The IP settings include the IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server of the printer. The IP settings allow the printer to communicate with other devices on the network and access network resources such as print servers or cloud services.
The technician can configure the IP settings of the printer in different ways, such as:
The technician should also make sure that the IP settings of the printer are compatible with the network configuration and do not cause any conflicts or errors.
A user built a new PC with parts sourced torn a popular online vendor. The system boots to the OS and basic browsing works, but whenever the user opens a 4K video or starts to play a game, the system Immediately shuts down. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
Thermal paste is a substance that fills in any gaps between a CPU and its heat sink, which is a device that dissipates heat from the CPU. Without adequate thermal paste, the CPU may overheat and cause the system to shut down automatically to prevent damage. This is especially likely when running 4K video or games, which are more demanding and generate more heat. The technician should check if the CPU heat sink was attached properly and apply enough thermal paste to ensure good contact and heat transfer. Reference: https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/a-core-series-combined-content-guide (page 28)
A technician has set up a new conference room with a TV and a video soundbar. The technician wants to test the system with a conference call. During the test, the TV speaker produces sound, but the soundbar does not. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?
HDMI-ARC (Audio Return Channel) is an HDMI connection that allows audio to be sent from the TV to an external sound system, such as a soundbar. If the TV's HDMI-ARC port is not being used, then the soundbar will not receive any audio from the TV and thus will not produce any sound. To resolve the issue, the technician should ensure that the TV's HDMI-ARC port is being used to connect the TV to the soundbar.
Which of the following is used to implement network security polices for an environment?
It is designed to protect an organization's network infrastructure and data from unauthorized access, while allowing legitimate traffic to pass through. Firewalls can be configured to enforce security policies that block certain types of traffic, limit access to specific network resources, and prevent attacks such as malware and phishing.
A firewall is a network security system that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. It establishes a barrier between a trusted internal network and an untrusted external network, such as the Internet. Firewalls are used to implement network security policies for an environment by controlling access to the network and protecting it from unauthorized access.
A firewall is used to implement network security policies. It monitors incoming and outgoing traffic based on predetermined security rules and can block traffic that does not meet the defined criteria. References: CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide, Tenth Edition by Mike Meyers (Chapter 6, page 243)
To control costs a company provides a limited number or users with company phones One of these users opens a support ticket because the phone no longer allows internet Drowsing over a cellular connection The user acknowledges that the phone worked before the user's child streamed several movies using the device Which of the following describes why the phone cannot browse the Internet?
It is common for companies to place a data cap on the devices they provide to their employees, to control costs. If a user has exceeded the data cap, the phone may no longer allow internet browsing over a cellular connection. This is usually because the cellular data usage has exceeded the allotted amount for the particular plan the device is on, and the service provider has temporarily suspended the data connection.
It is unlikely that the child accidentally connected to a neighbor's WLAN because this would not affect the cellular data connection. Similarly, it is unlikely that the company's group policy has disabled the device, as this would likely affect all devices under the same policy. If the device's plan has been unpaid, the service provider would likely temporarily suspend all services, not just the cellular data connection.
A technician is inspecting a projector that is displaying fuzzy images. Which of the following actions would provide the BEST solution?
Adjusting the lens is the best solution to improve image quality in a projector. The lens can become misaligned over time or during transportation, causing the image to appear fuzzy.
A user wants a second monitor installed on a laptop. The VGA/DVI or HDMI cables have already been connected. Which of the following should the technician do to configure the laptop to show both screens?
To configure the laptop to show both screens, the technician should adjust the monitor display settings. On Windows 10 or 11, the technician can select the Start menu, then open Settings, then select Display. The PC should automatically detect the monitors and show the desktop. If the monitors are not detected, the technician can select Multiple displays, then Detect. The technician can then use the dropdown list next to the image of the desktop to choose how the screen will project across the displays12345.
A user is trying to play a DVD on a projector. The user can hear the audio; however, the projector is showing an error message that states:
HDMI Blocked due to Copy Protection
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the error?
The Official CompTIA® A+® Core 1 and Core 2 Student Guide (Exams 220-1001 and 220-1002) | 193 Protected content. If you encounter an error that indicates unauthorized content or an HDCP error: • DVI, HDMI, DisplayPort, and Thunderbolt all provide support for the Digital Rights Management (DRM) mechanism High-bandwidth Digital Content Protection (HDCP). HDCP allows a content source (such as a Blu-ray disc) to disable itself if the display adapter and monitor and/or speaker system do not support HDCP and fail to authenticate themselves with the playback source. There have been various iterations of HDCP (at time of writing the current version is 2.2) and backward-compatibility can be problematic as authentication may fail between devices that support different versions of the standard.
A technician is tasked with upgrading a laptop's RAM. Which of the following steps should the technician lake FIRST?
If a technician is tasked with upgrading a laptop’s RAM, the technician should verify the memory requirements of the motherboard first. The motherboard of the laptop will have specific requirements for the type and amount of RAM that can be installed. By verifying the memory requirements of the motherboard, the technician can ensure that the new RAM is compatible with the laptop.
Before upgrading a laptop's RAM, a technician should verify the memory requirements of the motherboard to ensure the new RAM is compatible. The type, speed, and maximum capacity of the RAM should be checked to ensure it meets the requirements of the motherboard. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, pg. 347-348
Which of the following 802.11 standards supports both 5GHz and 2.4GHz channel frequencies?
802.11ac is the 802.11 standard that supports both 5GHz and 2.4GHz channel frequencies. 802.11ac is the latest wireless networking standard that operates in both the 5GHz and 2.4GHz frequency bands. It provides higher wireless network speeds and better reliability compared to previous standards, such as 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g. The 802.11a standard operates exclusively in the 5GHz band, while the 802.11b and 802.11g standards operate exclusively in the 2.4GHz band.
A user is installing a new display on a desktop computer that only has a single DVI port for video input and a single HDMI port tot video output Which of me following does the technician need to complete the setup?
The technician will need to connect the DVI port on the computer to the new display's HDMI port. To do this, a DVI to HDMI cable will be needed. This type of cable will allow the computer's DVI video signal to be transmitted to the new display's HDMI port.
A digital-to-analog converter (DAC) is used to convert a digital signal to an analog signal. An A/V switcher is used to switch between multiple audio and video sources and display them on a single monitor or display. A DisplayPort to HDMI adapter is used to convert a DisplayPort signal to an HDMI signal, but it is not necessary in this scenario as the computer has a DVI port and not a DisplayPort.
The IT department issued a corporate smartphone to a user, but the user returned the device stating it had connectivity Issues. The user claimed the device functioned on WI-FI but all connectivity to cloud services was lost as soon as the device was taken off site. Which of the following issues was MOST likely affecting the device?
A SIM card is needed for the device to use cellular network services, so without it, the device will be unable to connect to the cloud services when taken off site. MDM (Mobile Device Management) can be used to manage settings and access on a device, but it is not necessary for the device to be able to use cloud services. S/MIME (Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) certificates are used to encrypt and digitally sign emails, and are not related to device connectivity. Bluetooth can be used to connect devices together, but it is not necessary for the device to be able to use cloud services.
A company needs to support a 10Gbps throughput. Which of the following is the MINIMUM cable category that could be used?
The minimum cable category that could be used to support a 10Gbps throughput is Cat 6a. Cat 6a cable is required with 10 Gigabit Ethernet for reliable performance with cable lengths up to 100 metres. However, lower-specification cables can often be successfully used, particularly with the shorter cable lengths required in a typical home123.
A startup company is outgrowing its current office space and is requiring employees to work remotely. The company must comply with government-enforced requirements to safeguard all aspects of data, so the IT department plans to maintain complete control over users' operating systems. Which of the following should the IT department implement?
The IT department should implement VDI. Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) is a technology that allows users to access a desktop operating system from a remote location. VDI provides complete control over users’ operating systems, which is important for safeguarding data. VDI also provides a secure way to access data from remote locations, which is important for compliance with government-enforced requirements1.
A help desk technician thinks a desktop PC has failed due to a defective power supply. Which of the following steps should the technician take NEXT?
Once the technician has determined that the power supply is likely to be defective, they should establish a plan of action to resolve the problem. This may include replacing the power supply or further testing to confirm that it is indeed defective. After establishing a plan of action, the technician should implement the solution and verify that it has resolved the issue.
A help desk technician has been tasked with installing an IP phone in a small office with an unmanaged switch. When connected to an RJ45 receptacle, the phone does not boot. Which of the following is the QUICKEST way to resolve this issue?
The quickest way to resolve the issue is to install a Power over Ethernet (PoE) injector to provide power to the IP phone. An unmanaged switch does not provide PoE, so an injector is needed to power the phone.
Which of the following is a method that can be used to securely connect a remote user's laptop to a corporate server?
A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a secure method for connecting a remote user's laptop to a corporate server. VPNs use encryption to protect data transmitted over the internet.
Which of the following commonly uses NFC?
NFC (Near Field Communication) is a wireless communication technology that is commonly used for contactless payments, mobile payments, and other mobile transactions. It allows two devices to communicate with each other when they are placed in close proximity.
Contactless payments commonly use NFC (Near Field Communication). NFC is a wireless communication technology that allows two devices to communicate with each other when they are in close proximity. Contactless payments use NFC to enable customers to make payments by simply tapping their contactless card or mobile device on a payment terminal.
A user has decided to build a new computer with parts purchased from a popular online vendor The user has referenced online resources to assemble the unit. However, when the user presses the power button, the new computer does not load the operating system's installer. Instead, the onboard speaker beeps and immediately reports an issue on the screen. Which of the following is the MOST likely issue with the new build?
If a computer is not booting and the onboard speaker emits beeps, it can indicate a hardware issue. One of the most common causes of beep codes is overheating, which can occur if the processor's fan is not properly installed and running. The processor's fan is responsible for cooling the processor and preventing damage to the internal components.
A technician installs a new printer for a workstation and tries to print a test page, but the page does not print. The technician looks at the print queue and notices that the printer is called 'Generic Printer." Which of the following BEST describes what the technician should do to fix this issue?
The technician should install the appropriate printer drivers for the OS to enable the computer to communicate with the printer. The generic printer name suggests that the drivers are missing or not installed correctly.
A technician is configuring a new CAD workstation that has four large hard drives. The workstation will be used to edit large, critical files, so the storage configuration should be both fast and redundant. Which of the following RAID levels BEST meets these requirements?
RAID 10 combines the benefits of RAID 0 and RAID 1. It uses a striped configuration across multiple disks (similar to RAID 0) to provide high-speed read and write access. Additionally, it also mirrors the striped array onto a second set of drives (similar to RAID 1), providing redundancy in case of a drive failure.
Which of the following network types would be used in a server room to connect virtual servers lo high-speed storage?
A Storage Area Network (SAN) is a dedicated, high-speed network that connects servers to data storage devices. SANs are used in server rooms to provide high-speed storage access to virtual servers.
Which of the following cables replaced the Apple 30-pin connector and is also reversible?
Lightning Connector: Apple introduced this brand-new connector back in 2012. It is over 80% smaller than the 30-pin connector and is reversible.
A user sends a print job lo a network printer, and the print job uses double the amount of paper as expected. Which of the following should the user configure to get the expected result?
The user should configure the print job to use the Duplex option, which will print on both sides of the paper and reduce the amount of paper used.
Which of the following allows all VMs in a virtual environment to have RAM allocated for use?
The concept described in the question is related to virtualization and resource management in a virtual environment. The approach that allows all virtual machines (VMs) to have memory (RAM) allocated for use is known as resource pooling. Therefore, the correct answer is D: "Resource pooling." This approach allows resources to be allocated dynamically to VMs based on their current needs, and ensures that resources are used efficiently in the virtual environment.
Resource pooling is a technique used in virtualization to share resources among multiple virtual machines (VMs). With resource pooling, RAM can be allocated dynamically to VMs as needed, allowing all VMs in a virtual environment to have RAM allocated for use.
A technician set up a new access point and has noticed significant latency on the selected channel. Which of the following tools can assist with locating the BEST channel to use?
A Wi-Fi analyzer is a tool that can be used to scan the local area for available wireless networks and can provide information such as signal strength, interference, and available channels. It can also be used to locate the best channel to use for a given access point, which can help to reduce latency and improve performance.
A new version of Windows was released and a piece of software vital to the engineering department will not run on the new version. Which of the following is the BEST option to enable this department to be able to continue using this software?
Upgrading all workstations and providing a virtual environment for the legacy software is the best option, as it allows the engineering department to continue using the vital software while also upgrading to the latest version of Windows. This also ensures that the rest of the organization can take advantage of the latest software and security features.
Which of the following options provides correct information about 2.4GHz and 5GHz wireless frequencies? (Select TWO)
The correct answers are B. 2.4GHz penetrates solid objects more effectively. 5GHz provides faster data connections and E. 2.4GHz has a higher coverage area. 5GHz has higher bandwidth. The 2.4GHz frequency has a lower data rate compared to 5GHz, but it can penetrate solid objects more effectively and has a higher coverage area. The 5GHz frequency, on the other hand, provides faster data connections and has higher bandwidth, but it has fewer channels and lower transmit power.
A technician needs to install a printer on the network. Which of the following must the technician configure? (Select THREE).
When installing a printer on a network, the technician needs to configure the network settings, which include the IP address, subnet mask, and gateway. These settings are used to ensure that the printer can communicate with other devices on the network.
When installing a printer on a network, the technician must configure the network settings of the printer to ensure that it can communicate with other devices on the network. This includes configuring the gateway, subnet mask and IP address of the printer.
The gateway is the device that connects the local network to other networks or the Internet. The subnet mask is used to determine which part of an IP address represents the network and which part represents individual hosts on that network. The IP address is a unique identifier for each device on a network.
A user reports limited or no connectivity on a laptop. A technician runs ipconf ig /all with the following result:
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
A user connects a smartphone to a laptop. Which of the following types of networks has the user created?
When a user connects a smartphone to a laptop, they create a Personal Area Network (PAN). A PAN is a type of network used for communication between devices in close proximity to each other, typically within a range of a few meters or less. This type of network is commonly used for wireless communication between personal devices, such as connecting a smartphone to a laptop for file sharing or internet access. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives - 220-1001: 1.1 Explain common connectors and their uses.
An end user reports that the time and date on a desktop resets after shutdown, and subsequently, the device reboots. The next day, the desktop does not load the OS and is stuck at a black screen with the following message:
Which of the following would be the BEST action to take next?
Which of the following would MOST likely be used to connect one or more devices lo the internet in a SOHO?
A router is a device that connects one or more networks, such as a home or small office network, to the internet. It allows multiple devices to share a single internet connection and provides network address translation (NAT) to enable communication between the devices on the local network and the internet. A hub, Ethernet gateway, or wireless access point does not provide this functionality.
A router is the most likely device to be used to connect one or more devices to the internet in a SOHO. A router can provide network address translation (NAT), firewall protection, and other features that are important for securing and managing a network. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, pg. 355
The Chief Executive Officer wants to ensure company data is stored in a manner that provides the company with complete control over how the data is managed. Which of the following is the BEST cloud deployment model for this request?
A private cloud deployment model provides the company with complete control over how the data is managed. This is because a private cloud is managed solely by the organization and resides on-premises or in a data center. Therefore, a private cloud deployment model is the best option for this scenario.
A technician is troubleshooting a point-of-sale primer that Is printing blank receipts. Which o( the following should the technician do to resolve the Issue?
Verifying the correct type of paper is loaded is the best solution for resolving the issue of blank receipts being printed by a point-of-sale printer. Some receipt printers require a specific type of paper, and using the wrong type can result in blank receipts. References: https://www.techwalla.com/articles/what-are-the-causes-of-blank-receipts-from-a-printer
Top of Form
Verify the correct type of paper is loaded. If a point-of-sale printer is printing blank receipts, one possible cause could be that the wrong type of paper is loaded in the printer. Thermal printers require thermal paper to print properly. If regular paper is loaded instead of thermal paper, the printer will not be able to produce an image on the paper and will print blank receipts.
A technician is preparing to set up a gaming computer with the following components:
Which of the following options is the MOST important for the technician to consider before building the gaming computer?
This is because high-end graphics cards, processors, and multiple hard drives require a significant amount of power to operate. A power supply with insufficient wattage could cause stability issues or even damage the components.
The CompTIA A+ Core1 certification guide emphasizes the importance of selecting an appropriate power supply for a computer build. In addition to wattage, other factors to consider when selecting a power supply include efficiency, modularity, and the number and type of connectors required to power the components. However, of the options listed, the wattage rating is the most critical consideration.
Therefore, the technician should ensure that the power supply they select has a wattage rating that is sufficient to power all the components in the gaming computer. It is always a good practice to select a power supply with a wattage rating that exceeds the estimated power usage of t
A technician recently discovered me root cause of an application error that several users have been experiencing. The technician updated the configurations on the affected machines and verified full functionality was restored for all users, which of the following actions should the technician perform NEXT?
CompTIA 6-Step Troubleshooting Process:
1. Identify the problem.
2. Establish a theory of probably cause. (Question the obvious)
3. Test the theory to determine cause.
4. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution.
5. Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures.
6. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
Writing a knowledge base article in the ticketing software would help document the root cause of the application error and the steps taken to resolve it, which can help other technicians resolve similar issues in the future. This is an example of knowledge management best practices. References: CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide, Tenth Edition, Chapter 6
A user entered a help desk ticket stating the latest calendar updates have not appeared on the user's corporate mobile device for several days, even though updates do appear on the user's laptop. Which of the following actions will MOST likely enable calendar alerts?
Which of the following is the MAXIMUM power PoE+ provides?
The earliest PoE switches from a few years ago generated 15 Watts per port (IEEE 802.3af). Today, most use the PoE+ standard (IEEE 802.3at), which generates up to 30 Watts per port. That's plenty for most devices that people want to connect