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4A0-C02 Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following statements regarding the Internet is FALSE?

Options:

A.

It is a global network relying on interconnections provided by Internet service providers.

B.

It is a continuous and interconnected set of public IP networks, advertised and shared across the globe.

C.

It is a settlement-free global network that provides interconnection between Internet service providers.

D.

It is a network that allows any Internet service provider to reach every other Internet service provider in the world.

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Questions 5

Click the exhibit.

Given that ISP 1 and ISP 2 are Tier 2 providers, and that ISP 3 and ISP 4 are Tier 1 providers, what is the most likely relationship between the ISPs?

Options:

A.

ISP 1 and ISP 2 have a public transit relationship, while ISP 3 and ISP 4 have a private transit relationship.

B.

ISP 1 and ISP 2 have a private transit relationship, while ISP 3 and ISP 4 have a public transit relationship.

C.

ISP 1 and ISP 2 have a private peering relationship, while ISP 3 and ISP 4 have a public peering relationship.

D.

ISP 1 and ISP 2 have a public peering relationship, while ISP 3 and ISP 4 have a private peering relationship.

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Questions 6

Click the exhibit.

Considering that both routers C and D are advertising the eBGP learned prefix 10.5.0.0/16 into

ISP X, which of the following best describes the route advertisement within ISP X?

Options:

A.

Router C sends the update to routers E and F only.

B.

Router C sends the update to routers D, E and F.

C.

Router C sends the update to routers A, B, E and F.

D.

Router C sends the update to routers A, B, D, E and F.

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Questions 7

Click the exhibit.

Router R2 receives a route to 192.168.4.0/29 from router R4 and sets the local preference to 110.

Router R1 receives the route to 192.168.4.0/29 from router R3, and sets the local preference to

80. There is a full iBGP mesh in AS 65540, but router R5 only has a physical connection to router R1. Which path does traffic destined to 192.168.4.0/29 take from router R5?

Options:

A.

R5-R2-R4-R8

B.

R5-R1-R3-R4-R8

C.

R5-R1-R2-R4-R8

D.

R5-R1-R3-R7-R8

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Questions 8

How are policy direction and data flow related on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

Import policies affect ingress data flow.

B.

Export policies affect ingress data flow.

C.

Both import and export policies affect ingress data flow.

D.

Policy direction and data flow are independent.

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Questions 9

Assuming that "client1" and "client2" are directly-connected networks, what is the result of executing the following BGP export policy?

Options:

A.

Only entry 10 is executed for "client1" and "client2".

B.

Entries 10 and 20 are executed for "client1", and entries 10 and 30 are executed for "client2".

C.

Entries 10 and 20 are executed for "client1", and entries 10, 20 and 30 are executed for

"client2".

D.

Entry 10 is executed for directly-connected routes, entry 20 for "client1" and entry 30 for "client2".

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Questions 10

The "discard-unknown" command has been enabled at the VPLS level. Which of the following statements is true? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

Broadcast traffic will be flooded.

B.

If the unicastSA has not been learned in the FDB, the frame will be dropped.

C.

If the unicast DA has not been learned in the FDB, the frame will be dropped.

D.

All traffic will be dropped, including multicast and broadcast.

E.

Broadcast traffic will be dropped.

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Questions 11

Click on the exhibit below.

If the SDP between R2 and R1 goes down, what devices will be reachable from R2 through the VPLS?

Options:

A.

Only R4 will be reachable through the VPLS.

B All devices will be reachable through the VPLS.

B.

R4 and R3 will remain reachable.

C.

No devices will be reachable.

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Questions 12

Which of the following are true when ports are configured with the IEEE 802.3ah Loopback Control feature? (Choose 3)

Options:

A.

The loopback control PDU instructs the remote port to enter loopback mode.

B.

Putting a port in loopback does not affect customer data flow

C.

Both ports must rediscover the OAM capabilities of each other once the port is put back into service.

D.

Both ports must still send Information PDUs to avoid going back to discovery mode.

E.

When a port is in loopback mode, service mirroring will still work if it is a mirror-source or mirror-destination.

F.

All packets, except for information PDUs, are looped back.

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Questions 13

MAC explosion is best described as a large amount of MAC addresses being withdrawn and relearned?

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 14

Why should you configure send-flush-on failure on your PE routers when using active/standby pseudowires?

Options:

A.

It flushes the local FDB speeding recovery

B.

It discards all packets in the queue and sends icmp-discad messages to the sender. The packets are re-transmitted resulting in no loss of data.

C.

On failure, the PE sends an LDP flush-all-from-me message to all PE devices in the VPLS. This speeds convergence to the new topology.

D.

It is not important to use send-flush-on-failure as Active/Standby signalling automatically converges the FDB in all VPLS instances

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Questions 15

Why is MAC explosion a factor to be considered when designing a large VPLS network? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

The time to relearn thousands of MAC addresses may result in excessive flooding or loss of packets.

B.

If the FDB reaches the limit, the router will discard frames.

C.

Discarding frames when the FDB limit is reached could deny SLA guarantees.

D.

It could take several seconds to relearn thousands of MAC addresses denying QoS/SLA guarantees.

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Questions 16

Which of the following statements about a management VPLS are true? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

A management VPLS carries customer traffic over the non-blocking spoke-SDP

B.

A VPLS service must be defined as a management VPLS upon creation to take on the role of a management VPLS

C.

The state of a spoke-SDP within a user VPLS will take on the state of the spoke-sdp within the management VPLS.

D.

The management VPLS must be created before the user VPLS.

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Questions 17

Click on the exhibit below.

Based on the output below which of the following statements is true? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

VPLS1500 is a user VPLS.

B.

VPLS 1500 is management VPLS.

C.

Spanning tree BPDUs for the management VPLS are tagged.

D.

Spanning tree BPDUs for the management VPLS are untagged.

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Questions 18

Which of the following statements relating to VPLS is false?

Options:

A.

A VPLS is a multipoint Layer 2 service.

B.

A VPLS allows multiple customer sites to be connected in a single bridged domain.

C.

A VPLS on a single node requires a SDP.

D.

With an IP/MPLS infrastructure, service providers can provide multiple VPLS services over a common IP/MPLS infrastructure.

E.

The VPLS switches traffic based on MAC address associated to the appropriate SAP.

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Questions 19

Click on the exhibit below.

The MDU attached to this PE has been configured with active/standby SDP's configuration option has been configured for the PE to recognize that this SDP is in standby mode?

Options:

A.

On the PE the endpoint has been configured with "supress-standby-signalling"

B.

On the PE the endpoint has been configured with "no supress-standby-signalling"

C.

On the MDU the endpoint has been configured with "supress-standby-signalling"

D.

On the MDU the endpoint has been configured with "no supress-standby-signalling1

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Questions 20

Assuming TLDP and RSVP are both being used in an MPLS network core which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

TLDP is used to create the inner label, RSVP is used to create the outer label.

B.

TLDP is used to create the outer label, RSVP is used to create the inner label.

C.

TLDP and RSVP cannot be used in the same network since they both provide the same label.

D.

When RSVP is used, TLDP must be disabled and static vc labels should be used.

E.

TLDP and RSVP can be used to create either labels based on how they are configured.

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Questions 21

Which element of IEEE 802.1ag is responsible for initiating CFM messages?

Options:

A.

MEP

B.

MAP

C.

MIP

D.

MUP

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Questions 22

In RSTP, which state do all ports initialize in?

Options:

A.

Designated

B.

Discarding

C.

Listening

D.

Root

E.

Forwarding

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Questions 23

Five VPLS services have been configured between two PE routers. What is the minimum amount of SDPs that must be configured?

Options:

A.

5-one for each service.

B.

2-one in each direction.

C.

10-five in each direction.

D.

None of the above.

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Questions 24

Click on the exhibit below.

Assume a CE router is connected to the SAP of each PE. The arp cache of all CE routers is empty and the FDB for VPLS 300 is empty. The CE router connected to PE-A initiates a ping towards the CE router connected to PE-C. The ping is successful. Which of the following statements are true? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

The FDB on PE-A will contain entries for all CE routers.

B.

The FDB on PE-B will contain an entry for the CE router connected to PE-A.

C.

The FDB on PE-B will contain an entry for all CE routers.

D.

The FDB on PE-C will contain entries for the CE router connected to PE-A and the CE router connected to PE-C.

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Questions 25

Which OAM tool can be used to dynamically learn the MAC address of a CE device connected to a SAP within a VPLS service?

Options:

A.

oam mac-populate

B.

oam mac-ping

C.

oam mac-trace

D.

oam svc-ping

E.

oam cpe-ping

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Questions 26

Which of the following statements BEST describes where shaping mechanisms should be applied?

Options:

A.

On all ports on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR.

B.

At the junction of high-speed to low-speed links or at places of traffic aggregation.

C.

At the junction of low-speed to high-speed links or at places of traffic aggregation.

D.

On low-speed WAN links.

E.

Nowhere. Shaping is only performed in hardware and serviced in a round-robin.

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Questions 27

When allocating scheduling resources, which of the following statements BEST describes how the egress port scheduler allocates bandwidth?

Options:

A.

The egress port scheduler takes the ratio of requested bandwidth to total bandwidth request from all children. It allocates bandwidth fairly, using these percentages and not exceeding the egress interface speed.

B.

The egress port scheduler allocates bandwidth based on a WRR distribution method that takes into account the CIR and PIR requested at each level and the max speed, either default or configured, on egress.

C.

The egress port scheduler allocates bandwidth on a first come, first served distribution method that takes into account the total CIR and PIR requested at each level and the max PIR requested from a single level.

D.

The egress port scheduler will limit the bandwidth offered to the egress port based on the over-subscription factor, provisioned under the router interface, while using a WRR scheduler for the remaining bandwidth.

E.

The egress port scheduler will use the Russian Dolls Method to allocate bandwidth to each level of requested bandwidth. HPO-Only is automatically set to 100%, allowing only high priority traffic to be buffered during congestion.

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Questions 28

Given the scheduler-policy parameters shown, and assuming the offered rate of each queue is 10 Mbps, what are the operational PIR and CIR for queue 1?

Options:

A.

PIR = 4 Mbps, CIR = 1 Mbps

B.

PIR = 1 Mbps, CIR = 1 Mbps

C.

PIR = 10 Mbps, CIR = 1 Mbps

D.

PIR = 5 Mbps, CIR = 5 Mbps

E.

PIR = 1.25 Mbps, CIR = 1.25 Mbps

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Questions 29

Which of the following statements BEST defines policing?

Options:

A.

The process of delaying packets within a traffic stream to have them conform to a defined traffic profile.

B.

The overall treatment of a defined subset of a customer's traffic within a DiffServ domain.

C.

The process of discarding packets within a traffic stream in accordance with the state of a meter to enforce a defined traffic profile.

D.

The action of setting the DiffServ codepoint of a packet prior to its entry into a downstream DiffServ domain.

E.

A specified algorithm or operation that is implemented in a node in order to realize one or more per-hop behaviors.

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Questions 30

Which of the following statements BEST describes the IntServ model?

Options:

A.

Has the ability to distinguish traffic in 32 different ways.

B.

Uses the RSVP protocol to create microflows through a network.

C.

Has the ability to manually configure foiwarding classes through a network.

D.

Uses the RSVP protocol to create macroflows through a network.

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Questions 31

What is the maximum number of SAP-ingress policies that can be applied on a SAP?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

E.

5

F.

8

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Questions 32

How many bits does DSCP use to provide QoS marking options?

Options:

A.

8

B.

16

C.

6

D.

4

E.

3

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Questions 33

How does an IOM3 improve the queue usage over an IOM2 in an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The IOM3 adds more memory to both forwarding complexes which increases the total number of queues available.

B.

The IOM3 only contains a single forwarding complex which reduces the number of queues used.

C.

The IOM3 allows multiple forwarding classes to be assigned to a single queue.

D.

The IOM3 allows queues to be dynamically allocated between ingress and egress.

E.

The IOM3 has a larger CPU capable of tracking active hardware queue utilization and adjusting memory allocation accordingly.

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Questions 34

Which of the following statements about G.8032 Ethernet Ring Protection is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Uses standard Ethernet dot1q and QinQ encapsulation.

B.

Requires IS-1S as the protocol to carry control information.

C.

Ethernet Ring APS is a defined ITU standard.

D.

Standard Ethernet forwarding, learning, and flooding rules apply.

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Questions 35

Click the exhibit button below. Given the scheduler-policy (below), how much bandwidth can the best-effort traffic receive (PIR and CIR) when the ingress rate of each queue is 10Mbps?

Options:

A.

PIR = 4Mbps. CIR = 1Mbps

B.

PIR = 1Mbps, CIR = 1 Mbps

C.

PIR = 10Mbps, CIR = 1Mbps

D.

PIR = 5Mbps, CIR = 1.25Mbps

E.

PIR = 1.25Mbps, CIR = 1.25Mbps

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Questions 36

In which of the following scenarios is self-generated traffic QoS (sgt-QoS) useful?

Options:

A.

EXP markings on transit control traffic are not set correctly.

B.

The priority of all self-generated traffic needs to be lowered to allow all other traffic to take precedence.

C.

The priority of various control packets requires special treatment throughout the network.

D.

The BGP process is consuming too many CPU cycles and is impacting OSPF performance.

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Questions 37

Which of the following commands may be used on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR to display a network exported locally to BGP on the originating router? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Show router bgp routes

B.

Show router bgp routes prefix

C.

Show router bgp routes self-originated

D.

Show router bgp routes hunt

E.

Show router bgp neighbor advertised-routes

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Questions 38

The service-mtu of a VPLS using MPLS encapsulation is set to 9100. What is the minimum MTU value that can be set for the network port if fast re-route facility mode is used on the SDP LSP?

Options:

A.

9100

B.

9104

C.

9108

D.

9122

E.

9126

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Questions 39

What is the 6-bit binary representation of DSCP value AF21?

Options:

A.

010011

B.

100010

C.

010001

D.

001100

E.

010010

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Questions 40

In a VPRN that uses MPLS transport tunnels, which of the following is NOT configured on the PE device?

Options:

A.

MP-BGP for exchanging customer routes with other PEs.

B.

A routing protocol for exchanging customer routes with the CE.

C.

A label signaling protocol for defining transport tunnels between the PE and CE.

D.

MPLS for exchanging labels with other provider core devices.

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Questions 41

An l-VPLS can be associated with many B-VPLS services.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 42

Click on the exhibit below.

Which port will become the alternate port?

Options:

A.

Bridge B 1/1/3

B.

Bridge B 1/1/2

C.

Bridge C 1/1/2

D.

Bridge C 2/1/1

E.

Bridge D 1/1/1

F.

Bridge D 1/1/3

G.

Bridge E 1/1/1

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Questions 43

Click on the exhibit below.

You have been requested to add load balancing across the redundant spoke-SDPs in the network shown. What further configuration is required? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

An additional management VPLS.

B.

Another set of LSPs between PE1 and PE3 and between PE2 and PE4.

C.

Another set of SDPs between PE1 and PE3 and between PE2 and PE4.

D.

Load balancing has to be enabled within the management VPLS.

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Questions 44

Click the exhibit.

For the Inter-AS model B VPRN, which of the following about the inter-as-label output on ASBR1 is TRUE?

Options:

A.

ASBR1 includes label 131069 in the route update sent to ASBR2.

B.

ASBR1 includes label 131068 in the route update sent to ASBR2.

C.

ASBR1 includes label 131068 in the route update sent to PEL

D.

ASBR1 includes labels 131068 and 131069 in the route update sent to ASBR2.

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Questions 45

Which of the following statements best describes the output from an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR shown below?

Options:

A.

The BGP session from PE to P is not operational

B.

The BGP session between PEs is operational

C.

The BGP session between PE and CE is not operational

D.

The BGP session from PE to CE is operational

E.

The BGP session between PEs is not operational

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Questions 46

Click the exhibit.

A Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN is configured on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR for a customer carrier who is an Internet Service Provider (ISP). Which of the following configuration steps is NOT required?

Options:

A.

Configuring labeled eBGP sessions between CSC-CE and CSC-PE routers.

B.

Configuring a policy on each CSC-CE to advertise local PE addresses to the network provider.

C.

Configuring labeled iBGP sessions between PEs residing in different customer carrier sites.

D.

Advertising the received system addresses of remote PEs using either iBGP or IGP/LDP within each customer carrier site.

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Questions 47

Which of the following is NOT one of the four elements in the Nokia 7750 SR QoS solution'

Options:

A.

Marking/Remarking

B.

Classification

C.

Encapsulation

D.

Scheduling

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Questions 48

Which command is required in the blank line to complete the configuration shown below on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

Sap 1/1/1 create

B.

Sap 1/1/1 customer 10 create

C.

No shutdown

D.

Neighbor 192.168.1.2

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Questions 49

From what range are 16-bit private AS numbers selected?

Options:

A.

64496 – 64511

B.

1 – 56319

C.

64512-65534

D.

64513-65535

E.

There are no defined private AS numbers; there are only private IP addresses.

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Questions 50

Which of the following regarding BGP confederations is FALSE?

Options:

A.

A confederation is a collection of Autonomous Systems advertised as a single AS number to BGP speakers outside the confederation.

B.

Each member AS must either maintain a full mesh of iBGP sessions, or use route reflection.

C.

Confederations can be used to subdivide ASs that have a large number of BGP speakers into smaller domains.

D.

A full mesh of intra-confederation eBGP sessions is required between the member ASs.

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Questions 51

Router R1, in AS 65540, has the export policy shown below. It advertises an aggregate route to eBGP peer router R2 in 65550. What is the AS Path of the aggregate route received by router R2?

Options:

A.

65540

B.

65540 1

C.

65540 65540

D.

65550 65540

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Questions 52

Click the exhibit.

After router A receives the BGP update for the 10.3.3.0/24 prefix, which routers will the route be propagated to?

Options:

A.

All routers with which it has a BGP session.

B.

All routers with which it has a BGP session, except the router it received the update from, which is router B.

C.

All routers with which it has a BGP session, except the router it received the update from, which is router C.

D.

All routers with which it has a BGP session, except the router it received the update from, which is router D.

E.

Only eBGP neighbors.

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Questions 53

Which of the following statements regarding buffer pool allocation are FALSE? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Each network egress port receives its own buffer pool.

B.

Each SAP-egress port receives its own buffer pool.

C.

All SAP-ingress ports on the same MDA share a buffer pool.

D.

All the network ingress ports on the same MDA share a buffer pool.

E.

Each network ingress port on the same MDA receives its own buffer pool.

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Questions 54

Which of the following about BGP Site of Origin (SoO) is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The SoO attribute can be used to uniquely identify the site from which a PE learns routes.

B.

Before a PE redistributes a VPN-IPv4 route, it can assign an SoO attribute to the route.

C.

The SoO attribute can be used to prevent loops from a single site with multiple CE-PE connections.

D.

The SoO attribute can be used as matching criteria when redistributing routes from the CE to the PE.

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Questions 55

What is the maximum number of forwarding subclasses a forwarding class can have?

Options:

A.

3

B.

64

C.

72

D.

16

E.

56

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Questions 56

Which of the following regarding the atomic aggregate attribute is TRUE?

Options:

A.

It is an optional transitive attribute.

B.

It is an optional non-transitive attribute.

C.

The atomic aggregate flag is always set if the aggregator attribute is set.

D.

The atomic aggregate flag is always set if the AS Path information is lost due to aggregation.

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Questions 57

Which of the following is TRUE?

Options:

A.

There can only be one community associated with a route.

B.

Community is an optional non-transitive attribute.

C.

Community is an optional transitive attribute.

D.

Community is a well-known discretionary attribute.

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Questions 58

Traffic assigned to forwarding classes is placed into queues, while the contents of the queues are serviced in a controlled manner using____________.

Options:

A.

WRED

B.

shapers

C.

schedulers

D.

markers

E.

weighted fair queues (WFQ)

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Questions 59

WRED can be used to help avoid TCP slow-start synch problems.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 60

Click on the exhibit below.

Assuming there is a full mesh of mesh-SDPs between the PEs within each metro network and a spoke-SDP between PE-C of Metro A and PE-B of Metro B. how is traffic forwarded from PE-A in Metro A to PE-D of Metro B? Select the most accurate statement.

Options:

A.

An LSP must be configured between PE-A and PE-D for this traffic to be forwarded.

B.

A VPLS FDB lookup is done at PE-A of Metro A only

C.

An SDP must be configured between PE-A of Metro A and PE-D of Metro D for this traffic to be forwarded

D.

A VPLS FDB lookup is done at PE-A and PE-C of Metro A and PE-B of Metro B

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Questions 61

A service provider core consists of 6 PE and 4 P routers. Assuming route reflection is not used, how many internal BGP sessions are required in the service provider network for a correct operation of VPRN services?

Options:

A.

1

B.

5

C.

15

D.

30

E.

45

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Questions 62

Which of the following statements are TRUE? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The primary contributors to latency are distance, scheduling, and congestion.

B.

The weighted round robin scheduling algorithm will result in more delay for high priority traffic than the regular round robin algorithm.

C.

The round robin scheduling algorithm will result in less jitter for low priority traffic than a strict priority scheduler.

D.

Packet loss can be reduced by decreasing the amount of buffer space available to a queue.

E.

Latency can be reduced by increasing the amount of buffer space available to a queue.

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Questions 63

When deploying an Alcatel-Lucent MPLS network with QoS, how are the EXP bits set?

Options:

A.

The first 3 bits of the DSCP value are copied directly into the EXP field on the first network egress.

B.

The EXP bits are set on the first network egress, based on a combination of the SAP-ingress classification and the network policy applied.

C.

The 3 priority bits are copied directly from the dot1p header into the EXP field of the first MPLS header.

D.

The EXP bits are set based on a default map that translates DSCP codes into internal forwarding classes on SAP-ingress.

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Questions 64

Click the exhibit button below.

At router PE1, customer packets are arriving tagged with a dotlp value of 6 and marked with a DSCP value of EF.

Based on the configuration shown below for a VPLS service, what will be the DSCP and EXP marking for the packet egressing the network port on this PE router? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The DSCP value will be set to af21.

B.

The DSCP value will be set to af23.

C.

The DSCP value will remain as ef.

D.

The EXP value, in the MPLS headers, will be set to 4.

E.

The EXP value, in the MPLS headers, will be set to 3.

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Questions 65

Assuming that "client1" and "client2" are directly-connected networks, what is the result of executing the following BGP export policy?

Options:

A.

"client1" routes will be tagged with communities "North" and "West".

B.

"client1" routes will be tagged with community "West".

C.

"client1" routes will be tagged with community "North".

D.

"client1" routes will be rejected.

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Questions 66

Click the exhibit.

AS 65100 is advertising 192.168.1.0/27 into BGP. Which of the following AS Paths would the prefix 192.168.1.0/27 contain when viewed on router R7?

Options:

A.

65206 65202 65100

B.

(65206 65202)65100

C.

(65204 65206 65202) 65100

D.

(65200) 65100

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Questions 67

Which of the following regarding the connections between eBGP peers is TRUE?

Options:

A.

eBGP peers typically use system addresses for session establishment.

B.

eBGP peers are managed under a single administration.

C.

eBGP peers do not propagate updates learned via iBGP.

D.

eBGP peers are usually directly connected to each other.

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Questions 68

Which of the following parameters does NOT have to match for an iBGP session to be successfully established?

Options:

A.

BGP version number.

B.

The local AS number.

C.

The Hold Time.

D.

Authentication.

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Questions 69

Click the exhibit.

Assume all router-IDs are properly configured, and link-local IPv6 addresses are used to establish the eBGP sessions. Which of the following is the MINIMAL configuration required on router A so that router B can exchange traffic with router D?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 70

Click the exhibit.

Assuming that none of the routers within AS 65200 is configured with next-hop-self", what will the BGP update for the 192.168.0.1/27 prefix contain when it arrives at router B?

Options:

A.

AS Path of 65200 65100, Next Hop of router A.

B.

AS Path of 65200 65100, Next Hop of router E.

C.

AS Path of 65100, Next Hop of router E.

D.

AS Path of 65100, Next Hop of router A.

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Questions 71

How can one ensure that a specific switch will be select as root in an STP network?

Options:

A.

Set the bridge priority to 131071.

B.

Set the bridge priority to 0.

C.

Set the bridge priority to 32768.

D.

Leave the bridge priority as the default.

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Questions 72

Click on the exhibit below.

CE-A is on VLAN 200 and CE-B is on VLAN 300. Which of the following SAP ids can be configured on PE-A and PE-B to allow direct communication between CE-A and CE-B?

Options:

A.

PE-A will require a SAP id of "sap 1/1/1:200" and PE-B will require a SAP id of "sap 1/1/1:300.

B.

PE-A will require a SAP id of "sap 1/1/1" and PE-B will require a SAP id of "sap 1/1/1".

C.

PE-A will require a SAP id of "sap 1/1/1:0" and PE-B will require a SAP id of "sap 1/1/1:0".

D.

PE-A will require a SAP id of "sap 1/1/1:*" and PE-B will require a SAP id of "sap 1/1/1:*".

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Questions 73

What must be enabled in order to prevent a loop within a LAG?

Options:

A.

RSTP

B.

Dynamic-cost

C.

LACP active

D.

Nothing, There are no loops in LAGs

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Questions 74

Complete the following statement. In a VPRN, the label signaled by RSVP-TE is used to ______________.

Options:

A.

Identify the egress PE in the MPLS domain

B.

Signal the egress VPRN ID

C.

Identify the ingress PE in the MPLS domain

D.

Transport route updates between PEs

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Questions 75

Based on the VPRN BGP decision process, which of the following routes is selected first?

Options:

A.

The route with the lowest MED.

B.

The route with the shortest AS Path.

C.

The route received from the lowest peer IP address.

D.

The route with the lowest Origin.

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Questions 76

Which command should be used on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR acting as the PE, to view the table containing the BGP routes received from the remote sites?

Options:

A.

Show router bgp routes

B.

Show router bgp routes address-family vpn-ipv4

C.

Show router bgp routes

D.

Show router bgp routes

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Questions 77

Click the exhibit.

Assuming that the as-override command is used, what is the most likely location of prefix 10.1.2.0/24?

Options:

A.

The prefix is located in an Autonomous System directly connected to this router.

B.

There is a single Autonomous System between the local AS and the AS that originated the prefix.

C.

There are two Autonomous Systems between the local AS and the AS that originated the prefix.

D.

The prefix is located in Autonomous System 65100.

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Questions 78

When VPRN Outbound Route Filtering (ORF) is enabled, each PE sends its ORF list to its peer using which of the following BGP message types?

Options:

A.

Open

B.

Update

C.

Route Refresh

D.

Notification

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Questions 79

Complete the following statement. In a VPRN, the label signaled by RSVP-TE is used to ______________.

Options:

A.

Identify the egress PE in the MPLS domain

B.

Signal the egress VPRN ID

C.

Identify the ingress PE in the MPLS domain

D.

Transport route updates between PEs

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Questions 80

Click the exhibit button below. Given that the slope-policy (below) has been enabled and applied on a network port, which of the following statements are TRUE? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

All out-of-profile traffic will be dropped before any in-profile is dropped.

B.

The time average factor of 0 will discard all packets arriving in the shared buffer pool.

C.

When the shared buffer utilization reaches 51%, in-profile packets might be dropped.

D.

The highest probability with which an out-of-profile packet can be dropped is 20%.

E.

When an in-profile packet arrives and the shared buffer utilization is at 69%, the packet will have approximately a 60% likelihood of being discarded.

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Questions 81

Which of the following are possible criteria for classifying packets at the SAP-ingress? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

The EXP bits in the MPLS header.

B.

The packet's source and destination IP addresses.

C.

The service ID of the service to which the SAP belongs.

D.

The dot1p bits in the frame header.

E.

The packet's Ethertype.

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Questions 82

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding the remarking of packets arriving on the network interface whose ToS-marking-state is set to trusted and remarking enabled on network egress? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Native IP Packets will not be remarked.

B.

Native IP Packets will be remarked.

C.

Packets associated with a VPRN service on an upstream node will not be remarked.

D.

Packets associated with an ES service on an upstream node will be remarked.

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Questions 83

Which of the following is the minimum requirement for an AS to be considered multi-homed?

Options:

A.

A single connection to a single service provider.

B.

Two connections to a single service provider.

C.

Two connections to two different service providers.

D.

Multiple connections to different service providers.

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Questions 84

Which of the following regarding BGP authentication on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Authentication is performed before establishing the BGP session.

B.

Authentication can only be configuredon the group or neighbor level.

C.

By default, MD5 authentication is disabled.

D.

Peer authentication may be optionally requested in an open message.

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Questions 85

A BGP router has loopback interfaces 192.168.1.1/27 and 192.168.2.1/27 advertised into BGP using the following export policy. The "aggregate 192.168.0.0/16" command is executed. What is the effect of this configuration?

Options:

A.

A single route for 192.168.0.0/16 is advertised.

B.

BGP routes 192.168.1.0/27, 192.168.2.0/27, and 192.168.0.0/16 are advertised.

C.

BGP routes 192.168.1.0/27 and 192.168.2.0/27 are advertised, and 192.168.0.0/16 appears as a "Blackhole" route in the route table only.

D.

The given export policy is invalid.

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Questions 86

Click the exhibit.

Router R1 is a route reflector with clients R2, R5 and R6. Router R3 advertises the prefix 192.168.1.0/27 to routers R5 and R6. Assuming that routers R1, R2 and R4 are configured with "add-paths ipv4 send 2 receive", what is the expected output of "show router bgp routes" when executed on router R2?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 87

In a traditional layer 3 VPN which of the following will be an issue when there is overlapping address space between two customers? Choose the best answer.

Options:

A.

There will be increased memory usage on the PE

B.

There will be increased CPU utilization on the PE

C.

The CE will reject the overlapping prefix

D.

The PE will not recognize the prefixes as being different

E.

There is no issue with overlapping address space in a traditional Layer 3 VPN

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Questions 88

Click the exhibit.

The policy shown is configured on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR to implement an extranet VPRN between the main sites of two separate VPRNs. Route target "target:65100:2" is used for Customer 1 routes, and route target "target:65100:3" is used for Extranet routes. How should this policy be applied?

Options:

A.

The policy should be applied as an import policy on the PE connected to the main site of Customer 1.

B.

The policy should be applied as an import policy on all the PEs connected to the sites of Customer 1.

C.

The policy should be applied as an export policy on the PE connected to the main site of Customer 1.

D.

The policy should be applied as an export policy on all the PEs connected to the sites of Customer 1.

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Questions 89

Which of the following about inter-AS model B VPRN is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Model B does not require the configuration of VPRN instances on ASBRs.

B.

The ASBRs peer with each other to transport VPN-IPv4 routes between autonomous systems.

C.

PE routers distribute VPN-IPv4 routes to their local ASBR.

D.

One single ASBR is required in each AS to hold the routes for all VPRNs.

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Questions 90

When configuring BGP as the PE-CE protocol on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, the configuration on the CE is done under the ____________ context and the PE configuration is under the ____________ context.

Options:

A.

Global, router

B.

Router, router

C.

Service, router

D.

Router, service

E.

Service, service

F.

Router, global

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Questions 91

Which of the following devices would typically have VRF instances?

Options:

A.

Any CE device

B.

Any PE device

C.

Any P device

D.

Any router in the service provider core

E.

Any customer router

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Questions 92

When a routing protocol is configured as the PE-CE protocol at one site of a customer VPRN, the same routing protocol must be configured as the PE-CE protocol at all other sites of the same customer VPRN.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 93

Which of the following about an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR MP-BGP update is FALSE? Assume default behavior.

Options:

A.

An MP-BGP update carries an MPLS label that is used as the service label for a VPRN.

B.

There can be multiple Route Targets per route in an MP-BGP update.

C.

There can only be one Route Distinguisher per route in an MP-BGP update.

D.

On a specific PE, the MP-BGP updates for prefixes from a single VPRN carry different labels.

E.

Traditional BGP attributes and MP-BGP attributes are present in an MP-BGP update.

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Questions 94

Click the exhibit.

For the Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN, which routes are advertised between CSC-CE1 andCSC-PE1?

Options:

A.

VPN-IPv4 routes for all PE system addresses in AS 1000

B.

BGP labeled IPv4 routes for all PE system addresses in AS 1000

C.

VPN-IPv4 routes for all PE system addresses in AS 5000

D.

BGP labeled IPv4 routes for all PE system addresses in AS 5000

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Questions 95

Click the exhibit.

Which VPRN type produces the output shown on router R1?

Options:

A.

A full mesh VPRN

B.

APE hub and spoke VPRN

C.

An extranet VPRN

D.

ACE hub and spoke VPRN

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Exam Code: 4A0-C02
Exam Name: Nokia SRA Composite Exam
Last Update: Apr 15, 2024
Questions: 639
$72  $159.99
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