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4A0-C02 Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

Click the exhibit button below.

All interfaces are using their default trust states and MPLS is used as the transport tunnel. The SAP-ingress, SAP-egress, and network QoS policies have been configured as shown below. Assume that the default network-queue policy is used on each router.

At router PE 1, customer traffic is arriving marked with DSCP BE and tagged with a dot1p value of 3.

Based on the configuration shown below for the VPRN service, what will be the DSCP and dot1p marking for the packet egressing at router PE 2? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The DSCP value will be set to af21.

B.

The DSCP value will be set to be.

C.

TheDSCPvaluewillbesettoaf23.

D.

The DSCP value will be set to af 12.

E.

Thedot1pvaluewillbesetto5.

F.

Thedot1pvaluewillbesetto2.

G.

The dot1p value will be set to 3.

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Questions 5

Click the exhibit button below. Given the output of the #show pools 1/2/2 network-egress command on a GigE port, what can the service provider deduce? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

QoS is not configured on the router.

B.

Packets in forwarding classes "be" and "12" are being queued.

C.

Traffic belonging to forwarding class "ef" is not experiencing queuing delays.

D.

Traffic belonging to forwarding class "11 "will never make use of the shared buffer pool.

E.

Out-of-profile traffic in the shared buffer pool is being dropped.

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Questions 6

Which of the following are characteristics of 802.1p? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

802.1p adds 16 bits to the Layer 2 header,

B.

802.1p adds 16 bits to the Layer 3 header.

C.

802.1p specifies 64 different priority levels.

D.

802.1p uses a field in the 802.1Q header.

E.

802.1p uses a field in the Layer 3 IP header

F.

802.1p defines a 3-bit Class of Service field.

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Questions 7

What happens to the MAC entries in the VPLS FDB when "disable-aging" is executed at the VPLS levels

Options:

A.

The individual SAPs and SDPs will age out MAC addresses for this VPLS.

B.

Aging will be disabled for locally-learned MAC addresses for this VPLS.

C.

Aging will be disabled for both local and remote MAC addresses for this VPLS.

D.

Aging will be disabled for remote MAC addresses for this VPLS.

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Questions 8

Click the exhibit button below. Given the SAP-ingress policy, which of the following statements are TRUE? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

All AF traffic will be marked "in-profile" at the SAP-ingress.

B.

All TCP traffic will be mapped to forwarding class EF.

C.

UDP traffic is placed in queue 3 while ICMP traffic is placed in queue 5.

D.

EF traffic will receive higher scheduling priority than H2 traffic.

E.

Traffic that does not match any of the IP criteria will be placed in queue 3.

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Questions 9

What is the maximum number of SAP-ingress policies that can be applied on a SAP?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

E.

5

F.

8

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Questions 10

Which of the following statements regarding egress FC and profile over-ride are TRUE? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Packets can be classified into 16 different FCs when using priority mode queuing.

B.

This feature is available on egress SAPs within any service.

C.

MPLS EXP bits can be changed based on multi-field classification.

D.

If a Behavior Aggregate (BA) and Multi-field (MF) match occurs, only the MF override parameters will take effect.

E.

If a Behavior Aggregate (BA) and Multi-field (MF) match occurs, the BA classification can override the forwarding class while the MF classification can override the profile.

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Questions 11

In a BGP VPLS, which of the following BGP attributes is used to carry the L2 MTU?

Options:

A.

The NRLI

B.

The AFI

C.

The SAFI

D.

The extended community

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Questions 12

The following VPLS services have been configured. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:

A.

All untagged frames will be dropped.

B.

All frames with more than one VLAN tag will be dropped.

C.

A frame with an outer VLAN tag of 200 and inner VLAN tag of 300 will be forwarded to VPLS 3.

D.

A frame with a single VLAN tag of 500 will be forwarded to VPLS 1.

E.

A frame with an outer VLAN tag of 100 will be forwarded to VPLS 2.

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Questions 13

For what does a Layer 2 switch use the SA in the Ethernet frame?

Options:

A.

MAC learning

B.

SA filtering

C.

Routing table population

D.

Frame forwarding

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Questions 14

Which of the following parameters are used in a hierarchical scheduler-policy to specify the priority of the child scheduler/queue for allocating bandwidth beyond its committed rate? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

CIR

B.

CIR level

C.

CIR weight

D.

Rate

E.

Level

F.

Weight

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Questions 15

In the context of hierarchical scheduling, a scheduler is configured with a CIR weight of 0. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:

A.

The scheduler will be allocated its "within CIR" bandwidth before all other children at the same level have received their "within CIR" bandwidth.

B.

The scheduler will be allocated its "within CIR" bandwidth after all other children at the same level have received their "within CIR" bandwidth.

C.

The scheduler will be allocated its "within CIR" bandwidth after all other children at all levels have received their "within CIR" bandwidth.

D.

The scheduler will not be allocated its "within CIR" bandwidth.

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Questions 16

What is the 6-bit binary representation of DSCP value AF21?

Options:

A.

010011

B.

100010

C.

010001

D.

001100

E.

010010

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Questions 17

A queue is configured with the following attributes:

MBS = 10KB

CBS = 5KB

High-Priority-Only = 20%

Assume that there is no CBS overbooking and that the slope-policy is disabled. If the current queue depth is 3KB, what will happen to an out-of-profile packet arriving at an egress queue?

Options:

A.

It will be queued in the reserved portion of the buffer pool and remain out-of-profile.

B.

It will be queued in the reserved portion of the buffer pool if there are no in-profile packets already in the queue.

C.

It will be queued in the reserved portion of the buffer pool and be in-profile.

D.

It will be queued in the shared portion of the buffer pool but contend for shared buffer space with packets from other queues.

E.

It will be queued in the shared portion of the buffer pool but may be dropped if the buffer utilization exceeds the start-average value of the low slope.

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Questions 18

A queue is configured with the following attributes:

MBS = 10KB

CBS = 5KB

High-Priority-Only = 30%

Assume that there is no CBS overbooking and that the slope-policy is disabled. If the current queue depth is 8KB, what will happen to an in-profile packet arriving in the queue?

Options:

A.

It will be discarded because the high-priority-only threshold is exceeded.

B.

It will be queued but re-marked as "out-of-profile."

C.

It will be queued in the reserved portion of the buffer pool and remain "in-profile."

D.

It will be queued in the shared portion of the buffer pool but contend for shared buffer space with packets from other queues.

E.

It will be queued in the shared portion of the buffer pool but may be dropped if the buffer utilization exceeds the start-average value of the low slope.

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Questions 19

Which of the following statements describe the operation of WRED on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

WRED monitors the shared buffer space utilization over a period of time.

B.

WRED disables the TCP slow-start congestion control mechanism.

C.

WRED uses two configurable slopes for each buffer pool: a high slope and a low slope.

D.

WRED uses the shared buffer utilization, instead of the individual queue depth, to get a better picture of the average resource utilization of the shared buffer space.

E.

WRED polices the shared buffer pool and marks all packets above a certain rate as "discard eligible."

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Questions 20

How many bits does DSCP use to provide QoS marking options?

Options:

A.

8

B.

16

C.

6

D.

4

E.

3

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Questions 21

Which of the following statements BEST describes the IntServ model?

Options:

A.

Has the ability to distinguish traffic in 32 different ways.

B.

Uses the RSVP protocol to create microflows through a network.

C.

Has the ability to manually configure foiwarding classes through a network.

D.

Uses the RSVP protocol to create macroflows through a network.

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Questions 22

Which of the following are NOT ingress matching criteria for a network policy? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

TCP port numbers

B.

LSP EXP

C.

DSCP

D.

Source and destination IP addresses

E.

Dot1p priority

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Questions 23

On the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, what is a slope policy used for?

Options:

A.

Defining the slope of the TCP slow-start mechanism for self generated traffic.

B.

Defining the slope of the scheduling rate per forwarding class when using HQoS.

C.

Defining the high and low slope values when deploying buffer admission control for UDP traffic in the committed buffer pool.

D.

Defining the high and low slope values when deploying buffer admission control for TCP traffic in the shared buffer pool.

E.

Defining the high and low slope values when deploying buffer admission control for TCP traffic in the committed buffer pool.

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Questions 24

Which of the following are categories of forwarding classes on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Real-time

B.

Assured

C.

Non-conforming

D.

High priority

E.

In-profile

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Questions 25

Assuming that as-override has been used, which of the following statements describes the most likely location of prefix 10.1.2.0/24, based on the output from an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR shown below?

Options:

A.

It is located in an Autonomous System directly connected to this router

B.

There is a single Autonomous System between the local AS and the AS that originated the prefix

C.

There are two Autonomous Systems between the local AS and the AS that originated the prefix

D.

There may be two or more Autonomous Systems between the local AS and the AS that originated the prefix

E.

It is located in Autonomous System 65100

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Questions 26

When would it be appropriate to use the as-override command?

Options:

A.

When sites of different VPRN customers use the same BGP AS number

B.

When sites of the same VPRN customer use the same BGP AS number

C.

When sites of different VPRN customers use different BGP AS numbers

D.

When sites of the same VPRN customer use different BGP AS numbers

E.

When the customer site AS number is the same as the provider AS number

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Questions 27

How was standard BGP modified to allow it to carry routing information for VPRNs?

Options:

A.

By using the MED attribute to carry the OSPF metric.

B.

By defining Extended Communities for use as the Route Target

C.

By using the Cluster List attribute to carry the network prefix

D.

By defining support for the VPN-IPv4 address family

E.

By adding an additional field to the BGP Update to carry the VPRN label

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Questions 28

Click the exhibit.

Internet access using route leaking between the VRF and the global routing table is configured in the network. Which of the following is the correct output of route 192.168.50.1 in the global routing table of PE3?

Options:

A.

A

B.

B

C.

C

D.

D

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Questions 29

You are configuring a VPLS spoke termination to a VPRN on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR. If LDP is used for all transport tunnels, what type of sessions are established by the VPRN PE router that is configured with the spoke termination?

Options:

A.

T-LDP and LDP sessions with the other VPRN PE routers and the VPLS PE router

B.

T-LDP sessions with the other VPRN PE routers and the VPLS PE router

C.

LDP sessions with the other VPRN PE routers and the VPLS PE router

D.

LDP sessions with the other VPRN PE routers, and both T-LDP and LDP sessions with the VPLS PE router

E.

T-LDP and LDP sessions with the other VPRN PE routers and LDP sessions with the VPLS PE router

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Questions 30

What are the main functions of a Layer 3 VPN? (Choose three).

Options:

A.

Distributing customer routing information between sites

B.

Forwarding customer data packets

C.

Providing an integrated billing solution

D.

Maintaining separation between distinct customer networks

E.

Allowing the implementation of Layer 3 devices in the provider core

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Questions 31

The policies shown below from the configuration of an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR have been created to implement an Extranet VPRN between the main sites of two separate VPRNs. How should these policies be applied?

Options:

A.

ample Policy should be applied as an export policy on the PE connected to the main site of Customer 1

B.

ample Policy 3 should be applied as an export policy on the PE connected to the main site of Customer 2

C.

ample Policy 3 should be applied as an export policy on both PEs connected to the main site of Customer 1 and the main site of Customer 2

D.

ample Policy should be applied as an export policy on both PEs connected to the main site of Customer 1 and the main site of Customer 2

E.

ample Policy should be applied as an export policy on all PEs connected to sites of Customer 1

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Questions 32

On a PE router, the VRF table for VPRN 10 contains: one local route, two BGP routes learned from a local CE. and three tunneled routes learned from a remote site. If we execute the command "configure service vprn 10 maximum-routes 2 log-only" on this PE router, how many routes are expected to be in the VRF?

Options:

A.

Five routes: the local route, the two BGP routes learned from the local CE, and two tunneled routes.

B.

Six routes: the local route, the two BGP routes learned from the local CE, and three tunneled routes.

C.

Two routes: the local route and one tunneled route.

D.

Three routes: the local route and two tunneled routes.

E.

Two routes: the local route and one BGP route learned from the local CE.

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Questions 33

Where are VPN-IPv4 addresses used in a VPRN?

Options:

A.

In the routing updates exchanged from CE to PE

B.

In the routing updates exchanged from PE to PE

C.

In the routing updates exchanged from P to PE

D.

In customer packets as they traverse the provider core

E.

In all route tables of the VPRN control plane

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Questions 34

Which of the following about scaling techniques for route reflectors is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Logical Partitioning of route reflectors works best when PEs are partitioned to support different VPRNs.

B.

Logical Partitioning of route reflectors is simple and scalable, but requires more hardware.

C.

Filtering at route reflectors requires either inbound filtering at the route reflector or outbound filtering at the PE routers.

D.

Filtering at route reflectors allows the route reflector to filter routes received from PEs and only accept routes with a certain route distinguisher.

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Questions 35

VPN-IPv4 addressing is made unique by defining an address structure consisting of:

Options:

A.

A 64-bit Route Target followed by a 32-bit IPv4 address.

B.

A 64-bit Route Distinguisher followed by a 32-bit IPv4 address.

C.

A 32-bit Route Distinguisher followed by a 32-bit IPv4 address.

D.

A 32-bit Route Target followed by a 32-bit IPv4 address.

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Questions 36

Which command is used to generate the output from an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR shown below?

Options:

A.

Show service 3

B.

Show service id 3

C.

Show service 3 base

D.

Show service id 3 base

E.

Show service 3 detail

F.

Show service id 3 detail

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Questions 37

Click the exhibit.

For the Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN, which routes are advertised between CSC-CE1 andCSC-PE1?

Options:

A.

VPN-IPv4 routes for all PE system addresses in AS 1000

B.

BGP labeled IPv4 routes for all PE system addresses in AS 1000

C.

VPN-IPv4 routes for all PE system addresses in AS 5000

D.

BGP labeled IPv4 routes for all PE system addresses in AS 5000

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Questions 38

Click the exhibit.

For the PE hub and spoke VPRN, on which PE(s) should the VPRN service command target export target: 65100:1 import target: 65100: 2 " be configured?

Options:

A.

PE1

B.

PE2, PE3 and PE4

C.

PE1, PE2, PE3 and PE4

D.

This command is not required for the configuration of this PE hub and spoke VPRN.

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Questions 39

Which command may be used on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR to verify the number of VRF routes allowed, based on the maximum routes value configured in the service instance?

Options:

A.

Show service id base

B.

Show router bgp routes

C.

Show service id maximum-routes

D.

Show router status

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Questions 40

Which statement about assigning one Route Distinguisher per VPN is TRUE?

Options:

A.

This approach is recommended when multiple sites advertise the same prefix.

B.

This approach limits the opportunities for load balancing.

C.

This approach requires additional memory on the PEs to store more routes.

D.

This approach is recommended for extranet VPN.

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Questions 41

Click the exhibit.

A Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN is configured on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR for a customer carrier offering VPRN services. Which of the following about this configuration is FALSE?

Options:

A.

In the CSC VPRN, configure an eBGP session between CSC-PE and CSC-CE and use the "advertise-label vpn-ipv4" CLI command to enable the advertisement of VPN-IPv4 routes.

B.

When the customer carrier uses the same autonomous system number in various sites, use the "loop-detect off" CLI command to disable the loop detection functionality on CSC-CE and PE routers.

C.

On the CSC-PE routers, use the "carrier-carrier-vpn" CLI command to configure the VPRN service as CSC.

D.

Configure an iBGP session between PE1 and PE2 and use the "family vpn-ipv4" CLI command to directly exchange end-customer routes learned from CE1 and CE2.

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Questions 42

Click the exhibit.

Which of the following about the inter-AS model A VPRN configuration on ASBR1 is TRUE?

Options:

A.

The route-distinguisher value must be 64496:10 for successful VPRN operation.

B.

An export policy is not required for successful VPRN operation.

C.

The "family vpn-ipv4" command is required under the BGP configuration for successful VPRN operation.

D.

The neighbor address should be 10.10.10.4 under the BGP configuration for successful VPRN operation.

E.

The VPRN configuration on ASBR1 is correct.

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Questions 43

Which of the following protocols does the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR support to signal VPRN service labels?

Options:

A.

Targeted-LDP

B.

BGP

C.

MP-BGP

D.

RSVP-TE

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Questions 44

Which of the following describes the goal of an Extranet VPRN?

Options:

A.

To reduce the number of VPRN tunnels required.

B.

To allow routes to be exchanged between all, or selected, sites of one VPRN, and all, or selected, sites of a second VPRN.

C.

To simplify the administration of multiple VPRNs.

D.

To allow network access between the headquarter sites of each VPRN service and a shared VPRN service offered by a third party.

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Questions 45

After configuring OSPF as the PE to CE routing protocol for a VPRN service you get the following output from an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR: What is most likely wrong with the configuration?

Options:

A.

OSPF is not configured on the CE router

B.

There is a problem with OSPF authentication

C.

The operational MTU does not match

D.

The PE and CE router have different OSPF interface types configured

E.

None of the above

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Questions 46

When configuring a VPRN service on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, where should the following policy be applied?

Options:

A.

On the CE under the RIP context

B.

On the PE under the BGP context

C.

On the PE under the RIP context

D.

On the CE under the BGP context

E.

This policy is not required

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Questions 47

Which of the following about inter-AS model C VPRN is FALSE?

Options:

A.

ASBRs exchange labeled IPv4 routes for the system addresses of PE routers.

B.

It requires a route reflector to be configured in each AS for successful operation.

C.

VPN-IPv4 routes are neither maintained nor distributed by the ASBRs.

D.

PE routers in different ASes exchange VPN-IPv4 routes directly between each other using MP-eBGP.

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Questions 48

When VPRN Outbound Route Filtering (ORF) is enabled, each PE sends its ORF list to its peer using which of the following BGP message types?

Options:

A.

Open

B.

Update

C.

Route Refresh

D.

Notification

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Questions 49

Which of the following describes BGP route processing on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

If no import policy is specified, all valid BGP routes are passed to the BGP route selection process.

B.

If no export policy is specified, all non-BGP routes are populated into RIB-Out.

C.

If no import policy is specified, all BGP routes are populated into the route table.

D.

If no import policy is specified, only valid BGP routes are populated into RIB-Out.

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Questions 50

BGP is configured on two peers, routers A and B. Router A is configured with a Hold Time timer of 60 seconds and a Keepalive timer of 25 seconds. Router B is configured with a Hold Time timer of 90 seconds and a Keepalive timer of 70 seconds. What will the active Keepalive timer be on router B?

Options:

A.

70 seconds

B.

25 seconds

C.

20 seconds

D.

30 seconds

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Questions 51

A router in AS 65100 receives three routes for 138.120.0.0/16. The first route has an AS Path of 65200 65400 65300 and a local preference of 150. The second route has an AS Path of 65200 65300 and a local preference of 100. The third route has an AS path of 65600 65300 and a local preference of 200. Which route will appear in the RIB-In?

Options:

A.

Only the first route will appear in the RIB-In.

B.

Only the second route will appear in the RIB-In.

C.

Only the third route will appear in the RIB-In.

D.

All routes will appear in the RIB-In.

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Questions 52

Which of the following is NOT a BGP message type?

Options:

A.

Route-Refresh

B.

OpenSent

C.

Notification

D.

Update

E.

Keepalive

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Questions 53

A router in AS 65100 receives two BGP routes. The first route is for 138.1.1.0/24 with an AS Path of 65200 65300, Local Preference of 100, MED of 100, and router ID 10.10.10.10. The second route is for 138.1.0.0/16 with an AS Path of 65500 65300, Local Preference of 150, MED of 100, and router ID 10.1.1.1. Assuming all other attributes are equal, which route would be used to forward an IP packet with destination IP address 138.1.1.1?

Options:

A.

The first BGP route.

B.

The second BGP route.

C.

Both routes are used.

D.

It is impossible to determine without the value of the origin code for both routes.

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Questions 54

Click the exhibit.

After router A receives the BGP update for the 10.3.3.0/24 prefix, which routers will the route be propagated to?

Options:

A.

All routers with which it has a BGP session.

B.

All routers with which it has a BGP session, except the router it received the update from, which is router B.

C.

All routers with which it has a BGP session, except the router it received the update from, which is router C.

D.

All routers with which it has a BGP session, except the router it received the update from, which is router D.

E.

Only eBGP neighbors.

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Questions 55

Which of the following is the minimum requirement for an AS to be considered multi-homed?

Options:

A.

A single connection to a single service provider.

B.

Two connections to a single service provider.

C.

Two connections to two different service providers.

D.

Multiple connections to different service providers.

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Questions 56

Click the exhibit.

Given that ISP 1 and ISP 2 are Tier 2 providers, and that ISP 3 and ISP 4 are Tier 1 providers, what is the most likely relationship between the ISPs?

Options:

A.

ISP 1 and ISP 2 have a public transit relationship, while ISP 3 and ISP 4 have a private transit relationship.

B.

ISP 1 and ISP 2 have a private transit relationship, while ISP 3 and ISP 4 have a public transit relationship.

C.

ISP 1 and ISP 2 have a private peering relationship, while ISP 3 and ISP 4 have a public peering relationship.

D.

ISP 1 and ISP 2 have a public peering relationship, while ISP 3 and ISP 4 have a private peering relationship.

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Questions 57

Which of the following is considered a best practice for BGP address planning?

Options:

A.

Advertising external networks into IGP.

B.

Using system addresses for setting up iBGP sessions.

C.

Exporting the networks associated with the external links of eBGP peers into BGP.

D.

Optimizing BGP route table by exporting IGP routes into BGP.

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Questions 58

Click the exhibit.

AS 65540 routers are iBGP fully-meshed. Prefixes advertised by router R2 have a local preference of 200. Router R1 advertises the prefix 192.168.1.0/27 to routers R2 and R3. Assuming that router R3 is configured with "advertise-external", what is the expected output of "show router bgp routes" when executed on router R4?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 59

When an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR receives a BGP route with an AS Path loop, what action is taken by default?

Options:

A.

The route is ignored.

B.

The route is flagged as invalid and placed in the LOC-RIB.

C.

The route is flagged as invalid and placed in the RIB-In.

D.

The route is flagged as invalid and placed in the RIB-Out.

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Questions 60

Which of the following prefix-lists is the most specific match for prefixes 192.168.64.1/20 and

192.168.32.5/19?

Options:

A.

Prefix 192.168.0.0/17 longer.

B.

Prefix 192.168.0.0/19 longer.

C.

Prefix 192.168.96.0/19 longer.

D.

Prefix 192.168.0.0/18 longer.

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Questions 61

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the 16-bit public autonomous system numbers?

Options:

A.

They are allocated to the RIRs by ICANN/IANA.

B.

They are used when connecting ASs on the Internet.

C.

They range from 1 to 56319.

D.

They are assigned by the ISPs for enterprise networks.

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Questions 62

Click the exhibit.

AS 65550 owns CIDR block 10.64.0.0/12. Router R3 is advertising Client1 and Client2 networks into BGP. Router R6 advertises the aggregate 10.64.0.0/12 to AS 65541 with "summary-only" enabled. Which of the following routes are received by router R7?

Options:

A.

Client1, Client2 and the aggregate.

B.

Only the aggregate.

C.

Only Client1 and the aggregate.

D.

Only Client2 and the aggregate.

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Questions 63

Click the exhibit.

Routers RR1 are RR2 are redundant route reflectors for clients R3 and R4. Which of the following is a valid configuration on router RR1?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 64

Click the exhibit.

Given that ISP 1 and ISP 2 are Tier 2 providers, and that ISP 3 and ISP 4 are Tier 1 providers, what is the most likely relationship between ISP 1 and the other ISPs?

Options:

A.

ISP 1 has a peering relationship with ISP 2 and ISP 4.

B.

ISP 1 has a peering relationship with ISP 2 and a transit relationship with ISP 3.

C.

ISP 1 has a peering relationship with ISP 2 and ISP 3.

D.

ISP 1 has a transit relationship with ISP 2 and ISP 4.

E.

ISP 1 has a transit relationship with ISP 2 and a peering relationship with ISP 3.

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Questions 65

Which of the following statements regarding the Originator_ID attribute is TRUE?

Options:

A.

The BGP router that originates an update sets the Originator_ID.

B.

The Originator_IDis set to the ClusterJD of the advertising router reflector.

C.

Both confederation and route reflector topologies use the Originator_ID.

D.

A BGP router ignores an update that contains its own BGP router ID as Originator_ID.

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Questions 66

Which of the following statements regarding BGP Fast Reroute is FALSE?

Options:

A.

BGP Fast Reroute is triggered by IGP events.

B.

The backup path is pre-computed and installed in the FIB.

C.

BGP Fast Reroute is independent of number of affected prefixes.

D.

BGP Fast Reroute uses the optimal path to the destination.

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Questions 67

Click the exhibit.

Routers RR1 and RR2 are route reflectors with the same cluster-ID. How many updates for prefix 192.168.1.0/27 are received at router RR1?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Questions 68

Click the exhibit.

Assuming the network is IPv6 only, which of the following configurations on the Alcatel-Lucent

7750 SR router A can establish an IPv6 BGP session to router B?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 69

Which of the following regarding BGP confederations is FALSE?

Options:

A.

A confederation is a collection of Autonomous Systems advertised as a single AS number to BGP speakers outside the confederation.

B.

Each member AS must either maintain a full mesh of iBGP sessions, or use route reflection.

C.

Confederations can be used to subdivide ASs that have a large number of BGP speakers into smaller domains.

D.

A full mesh of intra-confederation eBGP sessions is required between the member ASs.

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Questions 70

How is the aggregator attribute handled with 32-bit AS numbers?

Options:

A.

With the same method and attribute as 16-bit AS numbers.

B.

With the same method as 16-bit AS numbers, but using the AS4_Aggregator attribute.

C.

Aggregation is not yet supported with 32-bit AS numbers.

D.

By using a dummy value of 23456 in the 16-bit AS aggregator field. This value lets the router know it needs to read the 32-bit AS number that is contained in the nextTLV.

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Questions 71

Click the exhibit.

Assuming a full iBGP mesh in ISP 1, how does router R1 in ISP 1 handle a BGP update received from ISP 2?

Options:

A.

The update is sent to router R2 in ISP 1.

B.

The update is sent to routers R2 and R3 in ISP 1.

C.

The update is sent to all routers in ISP 1.

D.

The update is sent to routers R2 and R3 in ISP 1, and to router R3 in ISP 2.

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Questions 72

Which of the following regarding the withdrawal of routes from one BGP speaker to another is

TRUE?

Options:

A.

An update message is used. Only a single prefix can be withdrawn at a time.

B.

An update message is used. Multiple prefixes can be withdrawn at a time.

C.

A withdraw message is used. Only a single prefix can be withdrawn at a time.

D.

A withdraw message is used. Multiple prefixes can be withdrawn at a time.

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Questions 73

Why should you configure send-flush-on failure on your PE routers when using active/standby pseudowires?

Options:

A.

It flushes the local FDB speeding recovery

B.

It discards all packets in the queue and sends icmp-discad messages to the sender. The packets are re-transmitted resulting in no loss of data.

C.

On failure, the PE sends an LDP flush-all-from-me message to all PE devices in the VPLS. This speeds convergence to the new topology.

D.

It is not important to use send-flush-on-failure as Active/Standby signalling automatically converges the FDB in all VPLS instances

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Questions 74

What action will be taken when an MPLS router receives a frame with a label that does not exist in the LFIB?

Options:

A.

The frame will be flooded.

B.

The frame will be discarded.

C.

The frame will be fragmented.

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Questions 75

Click on the exhibit below.

Assume the port on CE-A is sending two tags, a top tag of 100 and a bottom tag of 500. PE-A is configured with a SAP id of 1/1/1:100.*. How should PE-B be configured if CE-B is expecting a top tag of 200 and a bottom tag of 500?

Options:

A.

PE-B will require a SAP id of "sap 1/1/1:500*".

B.

PE-B will require a SAP id of "sap 1/1/1:100*".

C.

PE-B will require a SAP id of "sap 1/1/1:500.200".

D.

PE-B will require a SAP id of "sap 1/1/1:200*".

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Questions 76

Which PDU type is sent periodically over a link in the IEEE 802.3ah EFM as a method of keepalive?

Options:

A.

Event notification.

B.

Loopback control.

C.

Information.

D.

Variable request.

E.

Variable response.

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Questions 77

Click on the exhibit below.

A new router named PE-D is to be directly connected to PE-C and is required to be added to the existing VPLS 300. The design requires the least amount of signaling, the least amount of configuration changes for existing sites and the new site has to have access to all existing sites. How should the new site be added to VPLS 300?

Options:

A.

Configure a mesh-sdp between all existing PE routers and the new PE router

B.

Configure a mesh-sdp between PE-C and PE-D

C.

Configure a spoke-sdp between PE-C and PE-D.

D.

It is not possible to meet the design requirements.

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Questions 78

The service mtu of a VPLS is set to 9100. What is the recommended MTU value that can be set for the access port assuming dot1q encapsulation?

Options:

A.

9100

B.

9104

C.

9108

D.

9122

E.

9126

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Questions 79

Which of the following statements about a management VPLS are true? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

A management VPLS carries customer traffic over the non-blocking spoke-SDP

B.

A VPLS service must be defined as a management VPLS upon creation to take on the role of a management VPLS

C.

The state of a spoke-SDP within a user VPLS will take on the state of the spoke-sdp within the management VPLS.

D.

The management VPLS must be created before the user VPLS.

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Questions 80

Which of the following SAP encapsulations supports only one service on a port?

Options:

A.

Dot1Q

B.

Null

C.

Q-in-Q

D.

Ipcp

E.

BCP

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Questions 81

Which of the following is a true statement?

Options:

A.

The lower the age-time, the greater the amount of flooding

B.

The higher the age-time, the greater the amount of flooding.

C.

The lower the age-time, the lower the amount of flooding.

D.

There is no relationship between the age-time and the amount of flooding.

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Questions 82

Which of the following must be true in order to add a port to a LAG? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

ports must be on the same MDA

B.

ports must have the same speed and duplex settings

C.

auto negotiation must be on

D.

auto negotiation must be off or limited

E.

port must be in access mode only

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Questions 83

What of the following is a key benefit of Active/Standby pseudowires?

Options:

A.

The MDU does not need to support MPLS.

B.

Can be used in ring networks of 4 or more nodes

C.

Does not require the use of a layer 2 loop prevention protocol such as RSTP

D.

The MDU does not have to be aware of the active/standby configuration

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Questions 84

Consider a large metro-to-metro VPLS network interconnected with a mesh of mesh-SDPs. Which of the following statements does NOT apply to this situation?

Options:

A.

Bandwidth and replication inefficiency can occur on inter-metro links if there is a lot of multicast traffic

B.

The number of control sessions grows exponentially in a fully meshed network.

C.

Spanning-tree is required to prevent loops when using mesh SDPs on the inter-metro links.

D.

Network touches increase with each node added to the mesh.

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Questions 85

The service-mtu of a VPLS using MPLS encapsulation is set to 9100. What is the minimum MTU value that can be set for the network port if fast re-route facility mode is used on the SDP LSP?

Options:

A.

9100

B.

9104

C.

9108

D.

9122

E.

9126

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Questions 86

Which of the following statements about Spanning Tree Protocol is true?

Options:

A.

The switch with the lowest priority becomes the root.

B.

The switch with the highest priority becomes the root.

C.

The switch with the lowest MAC address always becomes the root.

D.

The switch with the highest MAC address always becomes the root.

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Questions 87

Click on the exhibit below.

CE-A sends frames with 2 tags. If the SAP on PE-A is "sap 1/1/1:1 .*" and the SAP on PE-B is "sap 1/1/1:100.200" how many tags will there be on the frame when it egresses from the SAP on PE-B?

Options:

A.

0

B.

1

C.

2

D.

3

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Questions 88

Which OAM tool can be used to dynamically learn the MAC address of a CE device connected to a SAP within a VPLS service?

Options:

A.

oam mac-populate

B.

oam mac-ping

C.

oam mac-trace

D.

oam svc-ping

E.

oam cpe-ping

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Questions 89

In IEEE 802.1ag, how are loops detected?

Options:

A.

Spanning-tree BPDUs are returned to the sender.

B.

The MEP sees its own CFM frames returned to itself.

C.

This is not a function of IEEE 802.lag but of 802.1D

D.

The record field of the CFM frame keeps track of chassis-mac addresses.

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Questions 90

Click on the exhibit below.

Based on the following configuration which VLANs will be managed by the management VPLS?

Options:

A.

VLANs 1-4094

B.

VLAN 0

C.

There is not enough information provided

D.

None, this is an invalid configuration

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Questions 91

Which of the following describes the setting of the l-SID on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

The I-SID is set to 0 by default and is only used for interop purposes. The receiving PE uses the service label to determine the I-VPLS.

B.

There is no default value. The I-SID must always be explicitly configured

C.

The I-SID is set to the service-id, unless the service-id is larger than a 24 bit value. In this case the I-SID must be explicitly configured.

D.

The I-SID is always set to the service-id by default.

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Questions 92

Click on the exhibit below.

If the SDP between R2 and R1 goes down, what devices will be reachable from R2 through the VPLS?

Options:

A.

Only R4 will be reachable through the VPLS.

B All devices will be reachable through the VPLS.

B.

R4 and R3 will remain reachable.

C.

No devices will be reachable.

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Questions 93

How is the Primary Bridge chosen in a VPLS?

Options:

A.

The PE devices participating in the VPLS mesh run a separate Spanning Tree instance in the Core. The Primary Bridge is the Root Bridge for the VPLS mesh.

B.

The PE devices participating in the VPLS mesh determine which bridge is closest to Root Bridge. This bridge becomes the Primary Bridge.

C.

The PE devices participating in the VPLS mesh determine which bridge has the lowest bridge-id. This bridge becomes the Primary Bridge.

D.

The PE devices participating in the VPLS mesh determine which bridge is the Root Bridge. This becomes the Primary Bridge.

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Questions 94

In RSTP, an alternate port is on the same switch as a designated Port.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 95

Which of the following is a true statement?

Options:

A.

In a dynamic environment where MAC addresses are changing rapidly, the lower the age-time, the larger the fdb-table-size should be.

B.

In a dynamic environment where MAC addresses are changing rapidly, the higher the age-time, the larger the fdb-table-size should be.

C.

In a dynamic environment where MAC addresses are changing rapidly, the higher the age-time, the smaller the fdb-table-size should be.

D.

There is no relationship between the age-time and the fdb-table-size.

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Exam Code: 4A0-C02
Exam Name: Nokia SRA Composite Exam
Last Update: Jun 26, 2022
Questions: 639
$72  $159.99
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