March Special Sale - Limited Time 60% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: 575363r9

Welcome To DumpsPedia

APM-001 Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 principle?

Options:

A.

Ishikawa diagram

B.

Control chart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

Buy Now
Questions 5

What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?

Options:

A.

Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers

B.

Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources

C.

Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts

D.

Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources

Buy Now
Questions 6

The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:

Options:

A.

majority rule technique.

B.

nominal group technique.

C.

Delphi technique,

D.

idea/mind mapping technique.

Buy Now
Questions 7

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?

Options:

A.

Networking

B.

Training

C.

Negotiation

D.

Issue log

Buy Now
Questions 8

The three processes of Project Cost Management are:

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs, Control Schedule, and Control Costs.

B.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Estimate Activity Resources.

C.

Determine Budget, Control Schedule, and Estimate Activity Resources.

D.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Control Costs.

Buy Now
Questions 9

Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Only once, at the beginning

B.

At the beginning and the end

C.

Once during each phase

D.

Repeatedly

Buy Now
Questions 10

The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their:

Options:

A.

quality.

B.

value.

C.

technical performance.

D.

status.

Buy Now
Questions 11

A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Closing

Buy Now
Questions 12

The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information become available is known as:

Options:

A.

Continuous improvement.

B.

Predictive planning.

C.

Progressive elaboration.

D.

Quality assurance.

Buy Now
Questions 13

The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:

Options:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Sequence Activities.

C.

Define Activities.

D.

Develop Schedule.

Buy Now
Questions 14

Which process numerically analyzes the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives?

Options:

A.

Plan Risk Management

B.

Plan Risk Responses

C.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Buy Now
Questions 15

Identify Risks is part of which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

Buy Now
Questions 16

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished is known as:

Options:

A.

Start-to-start (SS).

B.

Start-to-finish (SF).

C.

Finish-to-start (FS).

D.

Finish-to-finish (FF).

Buy Now
Questions 17

Which of the following can be used as an input for Define Scope?

Options:

A.

Product analysis

B.

Project charter

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Project scope statement

Buy Now
Questions 18

In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?

Options:

A.

Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)

B.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)

C.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

Buy Now
Questions 19

When a permitting agency takes longer than planned to issue a permit, this can be described as a risk:

Options:

A.

event.

B.

response,

C.

perception.

D.

impact.

Buy Now
Questions 20

Which Process Group contains the processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Closing

Buy Now
Questions 21

The cost benefit analysis tool is used for creating:

Options:

A.

Pareto charts.

B.

quality metrics.

C.

change requests,

D.

Ishikawa diagrams.

Buy Now
Questions 22

Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Selected sellers

C.

Risk register updates

D.

Teaming agreements

Buy Now
Questions 23

The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in practice they:

Options:

A.

operate separately.

B.

move together in batches,

C.

overlap and interact.

D.

move in a sequence.

Buy Now
Questions 24

Which process involves defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating them into a comprehensive plan?

Options:

A.

Direct and Manage Project Work

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Plan Quality Management

D.

Monitor and Control Project Work

Buy Now
Questions 25

An input to the Plan Procurement Management process is:

Options:

A.

Source selection criteria.

B.

Market research.

C.

A stakeholder register.

D.

A records management system.

Buy Now
Questions 26

The Plan Stakeholder Management process belongs to which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Initiating

C.

Planning

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

Buy Now
Questions 27

Which grid shows which resources are tied to work packages?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

C.

Project assignment chart

D.

Personnel assignment matrix

Buy Now
Questions 28

Risk exists the moment that a project is:

Options:

A.

planned.

B.

conceived.

C.

chartered.

D.

executed.

Buy Now
Questions 29

Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Three-point estimate

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Expected monetary value analysis

Buy Now
Questions 30

When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?

Options:

A.

Negative

B.

Zero

C.

Positive

D.

Free

Buy Now
Questions 31

A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual performance is:

Options:

A.

Product analysis.

B.

Variance analysis.

C.

Document analysis,

D.

Decomposition.

Buy Now
Questions 32

Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?

Options:

A.

Enhance

B.

Share

C.

Exploit

D.

Accept

Buy Now
Questions 33

Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?

Options:

A.

Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques

B.

Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings

C.

Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis

D.

Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings

Buy Now
Questions 34

Which tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?

Options:

A.

Pareto diagram

B.

Performance reporting

C.

SWOT analysis

D.

Expert judgment

Buy Now
Questions 35

Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an:

Options:

A.

Decision tree diagram.

B.

Tornado diagram.

C.

Pareto diagram.

D.

Ishikawa diagram.

Buy Now
Questions 36

An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is:

Options:

A.

smooth/accommodate.

B.

force/direct,

C.

collaborate/problem solve,

D.

compromise/reconcile.

Buy Now
Questions 37

Which quality tool may prove useful in understanding and estimating the cost of quality in a process?

Options:

A.

Checksheets

B.

Histograms

C.

Flowcharts

D.

Control charts

Buy Now
Questions 38

Which process involves the creation of a document that provides the project manager with the authority to apply resources to a project?

Options:

A.

Define Activities

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Develop Project Management Plan

D.

Develop Project Charter

Buy Now
Questions 39

A project team attempts to produce a deliverable and finds that they have neither the expertise nor the time to complete the deliverable in a timely manner. This issue could have been avoided if they had created and followed a:

Options:

A.

risk management plan

B.

human resource management plan

C.

scope management plan

D.

procurement management plan

Buy Now
Questions 40

Which items are components of a project management plan?

Options:

A.

Change management plan, process improvement plan, and scope management plan

B.

Agreements, procurement management plan, and work performance information

C.

Schedule management plan, project schedule, and resource calendars

D.

Scope baseline, project statement of work, and requirements traceability matrix

Buy Now
Questions 41

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the schedulevariance (SV) for Task 8?

Options:

A.

-2,000

B.

-1,000

C.

1,000

D.

2,000

Buy Now
Questions 42

Project deliverables that have been completed and checked for correctness through the Control Quality process are known as:

Options:

A.

Verified deliverables.

B.

Validated deliverables.

C.

Acceptance criteria.

D.

Activity resource requirements.

Buy Now
Questions 43

Perform Integrated Change Control is the process of:

Options:

A.

Reviewing, approving, and managing all change requests

B.

Facilitating change management, manuals, or automation tools

C.

Comparing actual results with planned results in order to expand or change a project

D.

Documenting changes according to the change control system by the change control board

Buy Now
Questions 44

Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change observed in the corresponding independent variable?

Options:

A.

Cause-and-effect diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Scatter diagram

Buy Now
Questions 45

Those who enter into a contractual agreement to provide services necessary for a project are:

Options:

A.

buyers

B.

sellers

C.

business partners

D.

product users

Buy Now
Questions 46

A disadvantage associated with virtual teams is that they:

Options:

A.

Require communication technology that is not readily available.

B.

Create difficulties when including people with disabilities.

C.

Often cannot accommodate teams that work different hours or shifts.

D.

Create the possibility for misunderstandings to arise.

Buy Now
Questions 47

Tools and techniques used in Direct and Manage Project Work include:

Options:

A.

Process analysis and expert judgment

B.

Analytical techniques and a project management information system

C.

Performance reviews and meetings

D.

Expert judgment and meetings

Buy Now
Questions 48

A project requires a component with well-understood specifications. Performance targets are established at the outset, and the final contract price is determined after completion of all work based on the seller's performance. The most appropriate agreement with the supplier is:

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF).

B.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF).

C.

Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF).

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FP-EPA).

Buy Now
Questions 49

Plan Communications Management develops an approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholders' needs and requirements and:

Options:

A.

Available organizational assets

B.

Project staff assignments

C.

Interpersonal skills

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Buy Now
Questions 50

Which document in the project management plan can be updated in the Plan Procurement Management process?

Options:

A.

Budget estimates

B.

Risk matrix

C.

Requirements documentation

D.

Procurement documents

Buy Now
Questions 51

An output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:

Options:

A.

Deliverables.

B.

Validated changes.

C.

The change log.

D.

The requirements traceability matrix.

Buy Now
Questions 52

Which key interpersonal skill of a project manager is defined as the strategy of sharing power and relying on interpersonal skills to convince others to cooperate toward common goals?

Options:

A.

Collaboration

B.

Negotiation

C.

Decision making

D.

Influencing

Buy Now
Questions 53

The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs because milestones:

Options:

A.

Are unpredictable and challenge the Plan Schedule Management process.

B.

Occur at random times in the project plans.

C.

Represent a moment in time such as a significant project point or event.

D.

Represent both significant and insignificant points in the project and are difficult to anticipate.

Buy Now
Questions 54

Completion of the product scope is measured against the product:

Options:

A.

prototypes

B.

requirements

C.

analyses

D.

benchmarks

Buy Now
Questions 55

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The critical path for the project is how many days in duration?

Options:

A.

10

B.

12

C.

14

D.

17

Buy Now
Questions 56

The risk response strategy in which the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk is known as:

Options:

A.

exploit

B.

avoid

C.

mitigate

D.

share

Buy Now
Questions 57

The following is a network diagram for a project.

What is the critical path for the project?

Options:

A.

A-B-C-F-G-I

B.

A-B-C-F-H-I

C.

A-D-E-F-G-I

D.

A-D-E-F-H-I

Buy Now
Questions 58

Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution process?

Options:

A.

Approved change requests

B.

Approved contract documentation

C.

Work performance information

D.

Rejected change requests

Buy Now
Questions 59

Which technique is commonly used for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?

Options:

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Strategies for opportunities

C.

Decision tree analysis

D.

Risk data quality assessment

Buy Now
Questions 60

Which category of contracts are sellers legally obligated to complete, with possible financial damages if the project objectives are not met?

Options:

A.

Cost-reimbursable contracts

B.

Time and Material contracts (T&M)

C.

Fixed-price contracts

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contracts (CPFF)

Buy Now
Questions 61

How many Project Management Process Groups are there?

Options:

A.

3

B.

4

C.

5

D.

6

Buy Now
Questions 62

The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the:

Options:

A.

stakeholder management strategy.

B.

communications management plan,

C.

stakeholder register,

D.

performance report.

Buy Now
Questions 63

Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the most potential impact on a project?

Options:

A.

Cost risk simulation analysis

B.

Expected monetary value analysis

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Sensitivity analysis

Buy Now
Questions 64

A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the simplest form of what type of contract?

Options:

A.

Cost-reimbursable

B.

Time and material

C.

Fixed price or lump-sum

D.

Cost-plus-fixed-fee

Buy Now
Questions 65

What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?

Options:

A.

Cost right at the estimated value

B.

Cost under the estimated value

C.

Cost right at the actual value

D.

Cost over the estimated value

Buy Now
Questions 66

The progressive detailing of the project management plan is called:

Options:

A.

expert judgment.

B.

rolling wave planning.

C.

work performance information.

D.

specification.

Buy Now
Questions 67

Which of the following Project Communication Management processes uses performance reports as an input?

Options:

A.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

B.

Report Performance

C.

Distribute Information

D.

Plan Communications

Buy Now
Questions 68

What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave?

Options:

A.

Organizational chart

B.

Organizational theory

C.

Organizational structure

D.

Organizational behavior

Buy Now
Questions 69

Which of the following factors is lowest at the start of the project?

Options:

A.

Cost of changes

B.

Stakeholder influences

C.

Risk

D.

Uncertainty

Buy Now
Questions 70

Which process determines the risks that might affect the project?

Options:

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Identify Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Buy Now
Questions 71

Labor, materials, equipment, and supplies are examples of:

Options:

A.

Resource attributes.

B.

Resource types.

C.

Resource categories.

D.

Resource breakdown structures (RBS).

Buy Now
Questions 72

Which cost estimate technique includes contingencies to account for cost uncertainty?

Options:

A.

Vendor bid analysis

B.

Three-point estimates

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Reserve analysis

Buy Now
Questions 73

The project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to which Project Time Management process?

Options:

A.

Sequence Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Control Schedule

Buy Now
Questions 74

In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?

Options:

A.

Acquire Project Team

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Manage Project Execution

D.

Develop Project Charter

Buy Now
Questions 75

What causes replanning of the project scope?

Options:

A.

Project document updates

B.

Project scope statement changes

C.

Variance analysis

D.

Change requests

Buy Now
Questions 76

A project has an EV of 100 workdays, an AC of 120 workdays, and a PV of 80 workdays. What should be the concern?

Options:

A.

There is a cost underrun.

B.

There is a cost overrun.

C.

The project may not meet the deadline.

D.

The project is 20 days behind schedule.

Buy Now
Questions 77

Which of the following is a tool and technique used in the Develop Schedule process?

Options:

A.

Three-point estimates

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Precedence diagramming method

D.

Bottom-up estimating

Buy Now
Questions 78

When calculating the cost of quality (COQ) for a product or service, money spent for cost of conformance would include the areas of:

Options:

A.

training, testing, and warranty work.

B.

equipment, rework, and scrap.

C.

training, document processes, and inspections.

D.

inspections, rework, and warranty work.

Buy Now
Questions 79

What is the total float of the critical path?

Options:

A.

Can be any number

B.

Zero or positive

C.

Zero or negative

D.

Depends on the calendar

Buy Now
Questions 80

Most experienced project managers know that:

Options:

A.

every project requires the use of all processes in the PMBOKĀ® Guide.

B.

there is no single way to manage a project.

C.

project management techniques are risk free.

D.

there is only one way to manage projects successfully.

Buy Now
Questions 81

Which process is included in the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Sequence Activities

D.

Direct and Manage Project Work

Buy Now
Questions 82

Which of the following processes are part of the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Develop Project Management Plan, Collect Requirements, Create WBS

B.

Develop Project Management Plan, Control Scope, Develop Schedule

C.

Develop Project Charter, Define Scope, Estimate Costs

D.

Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Close Project or Phase

Buy Now
Questions 83

Assigned risk ratings are based upon:

Options:

A.

Root cause analysis.

B.

Risk probability and impact assessment.

C.

Expert judgment.

D.

Revised stakeholders' tolerances.

Buy Now
Questions 84

The project manager notes that stakeholders are aware of the project and potential impacts and are actively engaged in ensuring that the project is a success. The engagement level of the stakeholders should be classified as:

Options:

A.

Supportive

B.

Leading

C.

Neutral

D.

Resistant

Buy Now
Questions 85

An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is:

Options:

A.

Activity resource requirements.

B.

Published estimating data.

C.

Resource calendars.

D.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS).

Buy Now
Questions 86

A project manager at a publishing company decides to initiate the editing phase of the project as soon as each chapter is written. Which type of Sequence Activities tool and technique is involved, considering that there was a start-to-start relationship with a 15-day delay?

Options:

A.

Slack

B.

Float

C.

Lag

D.

Lead

Buy Now
Questions 87

Which type of diagram includes groups of information and shows relationships between factors, causes, and objectives?

Options:

A.

Affinity

B.

Scatter

C.

Fishbone

D.

Matrix

Buy Now
Questions 88

Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder register

B.

Scope management plan

C.

Stakeholder management plan

D.

Project charter

Buy Now
Questions 89

What are the Project Procurement Management processes?

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, Integrate Procurements, and Close Procurements

B.

Estimate Procurements, Integrate Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

C.

Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close Procurements

D.

Plan Procurement Management, Perform Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

Buy Now
Questions 90

An input to the Identify Stakeholders process is:

Options:

A.

The project management plan.

B.

The stakeholder register.

C.

Procurement documents.

D.

Stakeholder analysis.

Buy Now
Questions 91

What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?

Options:

A.

Finish-to-start planning

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Short term planning

D.

Dependency determination

Buy Now
Questions 92

Which of the following is contained within the communications management plan?

Options:

A.

An organizational chart

B.

Glossary of common terminology

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Buy Now
Questions 93

Plan Risk Management is the process of defining how to:

Options:

A.

Communicate identified risks to the project stakeholders.

B.

Conduct risk management activities for a project.

C.

Analyze the impact a specific risk may have on the project.

D.

Address unexpected risks that may occur during a project.

Buy Now
Questions 94

The procurement process that documents agreements and related documentation for future reference is known as:

Options:

A.

Plan Procurements.

B.

Control Procurements.

C.

Close Procurements.

D.

Conduct Procurements.

Buy Now
Questions 95

Which is the Define Scope technique used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project?

Options:

A.

Build vs. buy

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Alternatives identification

D.

Product analysis

Buy Now
Questions 96

Which tools or techniques will a project manager use for Develop Project Team?

Options:

A.

Negotiation

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Recognition and rewards

D.

Prizing and promoting

Buy Now
Questions 97

Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associatedWBSand WBS dictionary?

Options:

A.

Scope plan

B.

Product scope

C.

Scope management plan

D.

Scope baseline

Buy Now
Questions 98

Which is a tool or technique used in Define Scope?

Options:

A.

Templates, forms, and standards

B.

Change requests

C.

Product analysis

D.

Project assumptions

Buy Now
Questions 99

The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500.What is the actual cost of the project?

Options:

A.

US$158,700

B.

US$172,500

C.

US$187,500

D.

US$245,600

Buy Now
Questions 100

Portfolio Management is management of:

Options:

A.

a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects.

B.

a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills such as planning, organizing, staffing, executing, and controlling.

C.

all projects undertaken by a company.

D.

a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet strategic business objectives.

Buy Now
Questions 101

When is a Salience Model used?

Options:

A.

In a work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

During quality assurance

C.

In stakeholder analysis

D.

During quality control (QC)

Buy Now
Questions 102

Which is an example of Administer Procurements?

Options:

A.

Negotiating the contract

B.

Authorizing contractor work

C.

Developing the statement of work

D.

Establishing evaluation criteria

Buy Now
Questions 103

Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?

Options:

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Close Project

D.

Develop Project Charter

Buy Now
Questions 104

Which Process Group typically consumes the bulk of a project's budget?

Options:

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Initiating

Buy Now
Questions 105

A collection of projects managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives is referred to as a:

Options:

A.

plan

B.

process

C.

program

D.

portfolio

Buy Now