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CAMS Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

It Is important for financial institutions (FIs) to be aware of anti-financial crime (AFC) and sanctions regulatory regimes in other jurisdictions in order to.

Options:

A.

maintain compliance with the AFC and sanctions requirements of all countries where the F1 operates or has business relationships and to avoid penalties for violations in foreign jurisdictions.

B.

ensure that sanctions regimes are applied selectively based on the regulatory standards of the countries where business activities occur, focusing primarily on aligned jurisdictions

C.

compensate for the limited applicability of AFC and sanctions regulations on cross-border transactions and their reduced relevance for domestic operations in other jurisdictions.

D.

ensure the F1 can manage business relationships in jurisdictions with stricter or more lenient regulations than their home country, allowing for operational flexibility

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Questions 5

What are the main benefits of implementing explainable artificial intelligence (AI) or machine learning (ML) technologies to improve operational effectiveness within AML/CFT compliance? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Identifies AML/CFT risks without the need for human involvement

B.

Reduces the need for human resources

C.

Processes and analyzes large data sets more quickly and accurately

D.

Increases auditability, accountability, and overall good governance

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Questions 6

The recently appointed senior money laundering reporting officer (MLRO) at a newly opened small digital bank has been instructed by the group chief compliance officer to implement an effective AML transaction monitoring system that can identify unusual and suspicious transactions.

What are important considerations for the project to select and implement the AML transaction monitoring system at the digital bank? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Whether the vendor has documented appropriate internal controls for designing system and data integration schema

B.

Whether the permissions and user access settings for reviewing, investigating, and reporting details of alerts generated by the system are commensurate with those in use at other banks

C.

Whether the monitoring system is adequate with respect to the bank's size, activities, complexity, and risks

D.

Whether the monitoring system can be configured to enable the bank to execute trend analysis of transaction activity and to identify unusual business relationships and transactions

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Questions 7

A large financial institution (FI) is considering expanding business to an area of the world with weak AML laws. The risk-based assessment indicates that the location will increase the FI's risk appetite beyond the stated acceptable amount.

Which risk factors should be used to identify the priority of the FI?

Options:

A.

Cash-intensive businesses risks

B.

Unknown third-party risks

C.

Geographic risks

D.

Anonymous transactions risks

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Questions 8

At a high level, the risk assessment process involves identifying and rating the inherent risks associated with customers, products, countries, and delivery channels, and then:

Options:

A.

comparing these risks with industry benchmarks to determine the residual risk.

B.

implementing new controls to eliminate all risks

C.

rating the effectiveness of the related controls in order to calculate the residual risk.

D.

documenting the historical risk incidents for future reference.

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Questions 9

Which of the following describes a role of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF)?

Options:

A.

Oversight of the Financial Intelligence Units in FATF Member countries

B.

Providing a unique platform for information exchange regarding anti-money laundering efforts

C.

Regulation of financial markets through directives and executive orders

D.

Enhancement of international cooperation to foster anti-money laundering efforts via recommendations and guidance

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Questions 10

As emphasized in the Basel Committee guidance for "Sound management of risks related to money laundering and financing of terrorism", the third line of defense, or audit function, should:

Options:

A.

Conduct AML audits no less often than every 12 months for consistency in annual reporting.

B.

Remain independent from expressing opinions on the sufficiency of remediation or action plans to address findings and recommendations.

C.

Be involved in the day-to-day operations of the AML program to immediately prevent control failures.

D.

Report to the audit committee of the board of directors to maintain independence.

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Questions 11

The US Department of the Treasury notes that which of the following represent high money laundering risk when de-risked from traditional financial institutions (FIs)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Money services business (MSB)

B.

Multinational corporations

C.

Individual foreign customers

D.

Non-profit organizations with international operations

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Questions 12

A bank has joined a public-private partnership (PPP) to work with law enforcement and regulators on combating financial crime. However, the bank's data protection officer is concerned about sharing sensitive customer data, and the compliance officer is worried about potential delays in receiving useful information from the government.

Which of the following best describes a benefit of PPPs in fighting financial crime?

Options:

A.

PPPs improve financial crime detection and prevention by sharing intelligence between banks and law enforcement.

B.

PPPs help banks reduce compliance costs by automating information sharing.

C.

PPPs allow banks to manage their own suspicious activity report (SAR) filing process without the need to involve the Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU).

D.

PPPs maximize the efficiency of the bank's compliance program by providing real-time intelligence from law enforcement.

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Questions 13

A prospective client walks into an accounting firm wanting to incorporate a company. The accountant feels uncomfortable after the meeting.

Which two of the accountant's observations warrant escalation to the compliance officer? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The principal activities of the proposed company are importing and exporting new furniture

B.

The prospective client presents confusing details about the proposed business and has very little knowledge about the proposed business activity

C.

The prospective client is unable to provide information about the beneficial owners

D.

The prospective client exhibits confidence when speaking to the accountant when providing personal details

E.

The prospective client is able to provide source of funds and source of wealth documents

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Questions 14

An international bank is investigating a payment requested by one of its correspondent relationships that generated an alert in the automated transaction monitoring system. The payment originated from a corporation located in Hong Kong and the final beneficiary is an individual located in New York.

Which steps should the bank take first to address the alert? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Send a 314(b) request to the corporation's bank in Hong Kong

B.

Call the receiving individual to review identity verification documents

C.

Confirm that neither the beneficiary nor the originator are sanctioned parties

D.

Request supporting documents, including invoices and contracts to confirm the purpose of the payment

E.

Check for negative news in public sources on the sender and receiver

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Questions 15

The Wolfsberg Group's AML Principles on Private Banking:

Options:

A.

Assist financial institutions conducting business in jurisdictions with high data privacy standards in working with industries susceptible to money laundering

B.

Advise banks to accept only those clients whose source of funds and beneficial ownership is understood

C.

Establish rules for private bankers on how to deal with politically exposed persons (PEPs) and persons residing in high-risk countries

D.

Require banks to better manage reputational risk and protect the privacy of wealthy clients

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Questions 16

In the context of terrorist financing, which of the following are potential indicators of the abuse of non-profit organizations (NPOs)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Involvement in community development and humanitarian aid projects

B.

Large and unaccounted cash donations from anonymous sources

C.

Operating in high-risk jurisdictions with limited oversight

D.

Frequent changes in leadership and mission statements

E.

Extensive transparency in financial reporting and governance practices

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Questions 17

Which types of external data sources are expected to be used for screening customers as part of customer due diligence (CDD)? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Customer feedback and online review platforms

B.

Social media profiles to assess lifestyle and spending habits

C.

Sanctions lists, including those issued by the Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC)

D.

Registers of stolen or forged documents (where available)

E.

Beneficial ownership registers and adverse media sources

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Questions 18

Which statement best describes a key money laundering risk associated with virtual asset service providers (VASPs), cryptoassets, and related products?

Options:

A.

Cryptoassets can be transferred across borders quickly, but the volatility of their value still makes them less attractive for money laundering compared to traditional assets

B.

Mandatory reporting requirements have been implemented for certain types of crypto transactions, but gaps in regulation and enforcement still leave room for money laundering activities.

C.

The transparency of blockchain technology helps law enforcement trace transactions, but it can also provide criminals with ways to obscure their financial activities through complex layering techniques.

D.

The pseudonymous nature of transactions allows criminals to hide their identities while transferring large sums of money globally, making it difficult to trace the ultimate beneficial owner.

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Questions 19

Which techniques would be most efficient for a complex investigation of unusual patterns of activity involving multiple businesses, triggered by an automated monitoring system alert? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Perform a control and ownership assessment of the businesses involved, using the information available in the client files

B.

Contact local law enforcement and request that they assist in the analysis and investigation

C.

Review the information presented in the automated monitoring system's alert description and decline any future transactions

D.

Contact the account manager and ask for the reasons behind the patterns of activity highlighted in the AML alerts

E.

Use social media platforms to connect with the businesses and request details about the account activity

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Questions 20

When applying new technologies to AML, application programming interfaces (APIs) allow for:

Options:

A.

Digital identification on mobile devices

B.

Different applications to connect and communicate

C.

Authentication via artificial intelligence (AI) and biometrics

D.

Quick CDD and client traits analysis during onboarding

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Questions 21

Key functions of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) include: (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Prosecuting non-cooperative jurisdictions

B.

Maintaining engagement with other international organizations and bodies

C.

Developing international standards to combat money laundering, terrorist financing, and proliferation financing

D.

Identifying and engaging with high-risk, non-cooperative jurisdictions with strategic deficiencies

E.

Suspending the membership of countries that perform poorly in mutual evaluations

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Questions 22

Red flags for potential money laundering in real estate include completing luxury real estate purchases. (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

using shell companies or trusts for privacy, lax planning, or asset protection.

B.

in the names of unrelated thud patties.

C.

using the proceeds from selling a prior property or liquidating investments to make an all-cash purchase

D.

using legal entities and intermediaries to protect the privacy of the purchasers.

E.

using loans backed by cash or certificates of deposit.

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Questions 23

Which of the following is a common strategy employed by non-governmental organizations (NGOs) to combat money laundering?

Options:

A.

Helping Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs) to analyze the suspicious activity reports (SARs)

B.

Directly prosecuting money launderers in court

C.

Providing financial assistance to governments to strengthen their anti-money laundering efforts

D.

Raising awareness about the issue of money laundering and its consequences

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Questions 24

What are the common financial crime risks posed to the e-commerce business model? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Buying goods or services using stolen bank card data

B.

Committing fraud against the customer by failing to deliver goods or services

C.

Abusing online marketplaces to move criminally obtained funds

D.

Evading export control regulations

E.

Committing bribery and corruption

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Questions 25

The UN Security Council's primary role in imposing sanctions is that it has the authority to:

Options:

A.

impose sanctions lo maintain of restore international peace and security

B.

impose sanctions on countries that lack AML/CFT controls.

C.

conduct research on and analyze the impacts of sanctions to improve the effectiveness of sanctions regimes.

D.

impose sanctions on economic targets to maintain or restore financial stability within a country.

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Questions 26

Arecruitment manager in the human resources departmentof a bank hasshortlisted a candidate for the position of relationship manager in its private banking division.

Thebank’s compliance policyrequiresproper background checksto protect againstfraud and money laundering risks.

Whichresourceswould bemost usefulfor identifying potential negative information regarding the shortlisted candidate? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Past employment records.

B.

Personal references from close associates.

C.

Personal resume.

D.

Internet and public media searches.

E.

Criminal history searches.

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Questions 27

The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is empowered to impose sanctions regimes against countries and terrorist organizations.

Which statements are true regarding sanctions imposed by the UNSC? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Attempts to circumvent or evade sanctions imposed by the UNSC can constitute a criminal offense if designated under local laws and regulations

B.

The UN can impose arms embargoes but cannot prohibit direct or indirect exports of other goods to specific countries

C.

Member countries of the United Nations are expected to implement and enforce sanctions imposed by the UNSC

D.

Direct breaches of sanctions imposed by the UNSC constitute a criminal offense in all member countries

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Questions 28

Which criminal activities could possibly serve as a predicate offense to financial crimes or money laundering activity? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Assault

B.

Arson

C.

Bribery or corruption

D.

Fraud

E.

Organized crime or racketeering

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Questions 29

In which of the following situations would it be most crucial for the designated AML compliance officer of a company to perform a complete review of the company's AML program, including identifying the risks and commensurate controls?

Options:

A.

An external audit highlights several deficiencies

B.

The company is merging with or acquiring another entity

C.

Extensive AML legislation is proposed by a legislative body in the company's jurisdiction

D.

A high-profile money laundering case involving another industry is publicized

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Questions 30

Which changes at a financial institution (FI) should trigger an enterprise-wide reassessment of its inherent AML risk exposure? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Introduction of new products or services

B.

Mergers or acquisitions

C.

Restructuring of the FI's risk and compliance functions

D.

Use of new technologies for delivering existing products

E.

Changes in the individuals overseeing the FI's product lines and sales strategies

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Questions 31

When the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) places a jurisdiction on the list of "jurisdictions under increased monitoring," also known as the "grey list," the jurisdiction:

Options:

A.

Accepts to participate in an off-cycle FATF mutual evaluation to be held within the next 12 months.

B.

Must pay a fine to be removed from the list before the next FATF plenary.

C.

Has committed to swiftly resolving the deficiencies identified in a FATF mutual evaluation.

D.

Poses a high money laundering, terrorist financing and proliferation financing risk and must be restricted from accessing the international financial system.

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Questions 32

A risk-based approach (RBA) to anti-financial crimes (AFC) involves understanding and managing risks by:

Options:

A.

applying uniform controls to all customers, regardless of their risk profile

B.

allocating resources and implementing controls based on the level of identified risks

C.

prioritizing regulatory compliance over customer experience and operational efficiency

D.

relying on automated systems to detect and mitigate AFC risks

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Questions 33

Financial institutions (FIs) must use a risk-based approach in customer due diligence (CDD) measures for legal entity clients by:

Options:

A.

Understanding and obtaining information about the competition the business relationship could face

B.

Identifying a customer’s identity using data and information from the internet and social media

C.

Taking reasonable measures to verify the identity of the beneficial owner

D.

Conducting ongoing analysis of the business relationship’s profitability

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Questions 34

How do nominees benefit criminals misusing thorn for money laundering purposes? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Allow beneficial owners to provide proxies lot voting on corporate decisions

B.

Obscure beneficial ownership

C.

Allow domicile in the nominee's jurisdiction

D.

Derail investigations

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Questions 35

A bank received a subpoena regarding one of its clients. The financial intelligence unit of the bank should review the subpoena and:

Options:

A.

Close the client's account by informing the client of the subpoena.

B.

Perform a transaction review and respond fully to the subpoena.

C.

File a suspicious activity report (SAR), including the receipt of the subpoena in the SAR narrative.

D.

Adjust the client's risk score and close the case.

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Questions 36

Artificial intelligence (AI) and machine learning (ML) procedures help in applying a risk-based approach in AML compliance through: (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Automatically generating Suspicious Activity Reports (SARs) without the need for human review

B.

Advanced customer risk assessments that synthesize client background information with additional data

C.

Identification of links among apparently unrelated clients who have established complex networks for money laundering

D.

Automatically adapting risk thresholds for customers without any human intervention

E.

Detection of complex money laundering patterns in transactions

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Questions 37

A National Risk Assessment (NRA) can impact a financial institution's (Fl's) risk-based approach to anti-money laundering and terrorism financing by:

Options:

A.

dictating what predicate offences must be considered in the Fl's risk assessment.

B.

providing guidance on the types of customers and transactions that pose the highest risk.

C.

defining exactly what policies and procedures must be implemented.

D.

determining the maximum fines that can be imposed for AML violations.

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Questions 38

Interactions between the compliance department and other functions or departments within an organization contribute to making the anti-financial crime (AFC) compliance program more robust by addressing specific risk areas.

Which departments play a crucial role in enhancing the AFC compliance program of an organization? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Information security office (ISO)

B.

Marketing and sales

C.

Human resources (HR)

D.

Data privacy office (DPO)

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Questions 39

Which statements regarding using network analysis tools to determine links to criminality are true? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

When using network analysis data to fight money laundering and financial crime, data protection and privacy can be disregarded because fighting crime takes precedent

B.

Network analysis tools are an efficient means of generating relevant results because they only need a limited amount of data and computation power and artificial intelligence (Al) allows less-skilled people to quickly learn to use these systems

C.

When using artificial intelligence (Al) with network analysis tools, it must be ensured that the algorithms used are not biased towards social criteria, such as race, gender, or religion

D.

Network analysis allows for the identification of individuals or entities in a network by analyzing connections or links between them and can be used to study a wide range of systems, such as social or transportation networks

E.

Analyzing relationships between individuals in a social network allows for the identification of hierarchies, the detection of behaviors and geographical movements, or an understanding of how groups are organized

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Questions 40

A global financial institution is conducting a comprehensive review of its due diligence processes to strengthen its defenses against financial crime. Recent incidents have highlighted vulnerabilities related to employee misconduct, including unauthorized transactions and sharing of sensitive customer information. Additionally, the FI has faced issues with third-party vendors who failed to meet compliance standards, leading to increased regulatory scrutiny.

Which of the following measures would be most effective in addressing the bank's due diligence needs for employees, vendors, and third parties to mitigate insider threats and ensure compliance with AML regulations?

Options:

A.

Relying on self-reported compliance certifications from vendors and employees to confirm adherence to AML standards on a periodic basis

B.

Establishing a surveillance program for employees, vendors, and third parties, including periodic risk assessments, access controls, and regular reviews of their compliance with AML policies

C.

Implementing background checks for employees and vendors prior to onboarding or the start of engagement to identify any red flags

D.

Limiting the number of vendors and third parties in high-risk jurisdictions in order to reduce exposure to compliance risks

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Questions 41

A committee should have a clear and precise definition of its mandate to ensure effective function and governance, set out in a document often referred to as the Terms of Reference (ToR).

Which key features are generally included in the Terms of Reference? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Organization chart of the attendees

B.

Extent of power and decision-making abilities

C.

Company culture and values

D.

Composition and structure

E.

Delegation of authority

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Questions 42

An adequate organizational policy is: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

up to date and reflects all relevant regulatory developments

B.

signed off by the board of directors and regulators

C.

approved by the clients and third parties

D.

clearly communicated and understood by staff

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Questions 43

In what ways is the finance industry vulnerable to the risks of money laundering? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

It is subject to heightened regulatory obligations with strict reporting requirements to safeguard the financial system from illicit fund flows and ensure market stability

B.

It invests in new technology and systems to ensure effective and timely detection of financial crime

C.

It offers complex financial products, which can make it easier to obscure the source of funds

D.

It is frequently engaged with high-risk jurisdictions, which can increase exposure to financial crime or weak regulatory oversight

E.

It has high transaction volumes, making it difficult to identify suspicious activities and track the origin of funds

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Questions 44

Which statement regarding data privacy is the most accurate in the context of AML investigations?

Options:

A.

Organizations are required to demonstrate that customers have opted into information sharing before submitting suspicious activity reports to relevant financial intelligence units (FIUs)

B.

Any customer that is the subject of a suspicious report filing has the right to request redaction of their personal data

C.

FIUs should document purposes for which personal data included on suspicious activity reports may be shared with other agencies

D.

Data privacy laws prohibit information sharing between financial institutions for the purposes of AML investigations in all jurisdictions

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Questions 45

A financial institution's (FI's) policy is to apply enhanced due diligence (EDD) for every new client to ensure the effectiveness of the program.

How should a consultant advise the FI's management team?

Options:

A.

Suggest the FI needs to implement a risk-based approach for EDD.

B.

Suggest the management team select the clients that are chosen for EDD.

C.

Suggest the management team ask the regulator for advice on EDD measures.

D.

Suggest EDD for 50% of the clients is appropriate.

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Questions 46

Which obliged entities or gatekeepers may be required to perform customer due diligence (CDD)? (Select Four.)

Options:

A.

Casino security guards

B.

City court judges

C.

Notaries involved in real estate transactions

D.

Dealers in precious metals and stones

E.

Real estate agents

F.

Accountants and auditors

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Questions 47

Using artificial intelligence (Al) and machine learning-based techniques tn adverse media screening can: (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

ensure that all adverse media sources are comprehensively analyzed without the need for human review.

B.

significantly reduce human errors arising from repetitive tasks by delivering consistent and highly accurate analysis.

C.

instantly identify intent behind media articles, allowing for more effective risk scoring.

D.

automate the process of identifying new information and distinguishing it from previously encountered data.

E.

cover multiple languages and scripts, surpassing the limitations of human linguistics.

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Questions 48

A law enforcement action alleged that on several trading days over the course of two months, defendants engaged in a series of copper gold, crude oil. and natural gas futures transactions on an electronic trading platform One defendant repeatedly bought future contracts at low prices from the other, and then immediately sold them back at higher prices. As a result, one defendant effectively pocketed the same amount as the other lost even though there were no changes in the open positions held by either defendant.

What is a name for this typology?

Options:

A.

Short position

B.

Reverse flip

C.

Bid-ask spread

D.

Wash trading

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Questions 49

Tax evasion is:

Options:

A.

a deliberate attempt not to pay the tax which is due or obliged.

B.

bending the rules to pay less tax than required.

C.

not an important crime as it does not impact society.

D.

a sophisticated process which always means the same as tax avoidance.

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Questions 50

An organization is developing a comprehensive anti-money laundering (AML) framework.

Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between AML policies and procedures?

Options:

A.

Policies are detailed instructions for specific processes. Procedures are an overarching framework. Neither policies nor procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence

B.

Policies are broad guidelines. Procedures are detailed Instructions for specific processes. Only procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

C.

Policies are detailed instructions for specific processes Procedures are an overarching framework Both policies and procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

D.

Policies define the principles of an organization and influence the drafting of procedures. Procedures are detailed instructions for specific processes.

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Questions 51

The Money Laundering Reporting Officer (MLRO) of a life insurance company is reviewing the product risk assessment methodology.

Which of the following attributes of life insurance products would be attributed a higher risk rating? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Annuity products with a deferred income stream

B.

Products that allow the option to change the nominated beneficiary after the commencement of the policy

C.

Products with international health insurance coverage

D.

Products that allow for a cash surrender value

E.

Products that restrict the transfer of funds from one policy to another

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Questions 52

Which risks inherent to real estate sector carry the highest AML/CFT risk? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Use of cash to purchase property

B.

Unlicensed real estate agents acting as front companies

C.

Use of a registered trust for the purchase of property

D.

Use of a company for the purchase of property

E.

Manipulation of the value of a property

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Questions 53

The owner of a real estate investment company deposits multiple cashier's checks that were bought using cash over a three-month period, from the sale of two apartments. This account also receives several electronic transfers from other financial institutions for US$10,000 each.

What activity is considered suspicious of money laundering?

Options:

A.

Receiving electronic transfers for US$10,000 amounts from other financial institutions

B.

Using cash to buy multiple cashier's checks over a period of time

C.

Performing operations with real estate investment companies

D.

Using cashier's checks in the transactions with the real estate investment company's account

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Questions 54

Which action should a financial institution take when it receives a grand-jury subpoena regarding a customer?

Options:

A.

Make copies of the customer's documents and submit the originals to the enforcement agency

B.

Notify the customer being investigated before submitting documents

C.

Keep the customer's accounts open at the enforcement agency's verbal request

D.

Have the institution's assigned legal counsel review the subpoena

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Questions 55

The primary roles of a Country's Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) include: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

collaborating with law enforcement agencies, financial institutions, and other stakeholders to detect and prevent Illicit financial activities.

B.

conducting examinations of financial institutions to ensure compliance with anti-money laundering regulations.

C.

engaging in providing financial services, including banking and investment activities, to the public and private sectors

D.

facilitating the exchange of information between the public and private sectors.

E.

enacting legislation regarding the operations of financial institutions.

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Questions 56

Which action could be taken by an organization to better understand the threats faced from proliferation financing?

Options:

A.

Work with the front-line to understand their strategic growth targets specifically aimed at increasing their market share around military technology and dual-use products

B.

Review the organization's sanction risk assessment to better understand the potential for exposure to Russia and the Democratic People's Republic of Korea

C.

Read and analyze the most recent National Proliferation Financing Risk Assessment produced by the relevant body of the organization's jurisdiction

D.

Undertake a detailed review of all payment-related transactions to any clients identified as defense contractors, paying special attention to the beneficial owners of those clients

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Questions 57

Which key performance indicators (KPIs) should be considered in the context of ML/TF transaction monitoring? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Number of days required to hire new staff

B.

Number of alerts raised for review or reporting

C.

Number of alerts by region

D.

Number of transactions by top customers

E.

Average time to review an alert

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Questions 58

A robust transaction monitoring system includes the capability to:

Options:

A.

Monitor transactions and identify anomalies that might indicate suspicious activity

B.

Automatically translate documents

C.

Integrate social media profiles

D.

File Suspicious Activity Reports (SARs), Currency Transaction Reports (CTRs), and other regulatory reports

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Questions 59

Which of the following statements is true regarding the 2012 Financial Action Task Force (FATF) 40 Recommendations and'or 11 Immediate Outcomes?

Options:

A.

The 40 Recommendations have not been updated to reflect the impact of new technology

B.

Each jurisdiction can reach out to the FATF for private access to the interpretive notes to the 40 Recommendations

C.

The 11 Immediate Outcomes are recommendations specific to high-risk jurisdictions requiring enhanced monitoring.

D.

The cornerstone of the 40 Recommendations is the adoption of a risk-based approach by each jurisdiction

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Questions 60

A bank is using a network analysis tool to identify links between its customers and criminal entities. The system identifies potential indirect relationships but is unable to prioritize them. What should the compliance officer do to enhance the tool’s effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Manually review all flagged relationships for accuracy

B.

Implement risk-scoring algorithms for indirect connections

C.

Integrate external databases and social media profiles to cross-check flagged entities

D.

Focus on direct connections between customers and criminal entities

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Questions 61

The manager of a bank's KYC team discovers that a high-risk customer's activity was not reviewed last quarter as the bank's internal schedule required.

What should the KYC team manager do?

Options:

A.

Submit a referral to file a suspicious activity report (SAR)

B.

Evaluate the KYC review process to understand why the review did not occur as required and take corrective action as necessary

C.

Contact the customer's relationship manager to suspend account access until the periodic KYC review is completed

D.

Remove the customer from the bank's high-risk list

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Questions 62

In which of the following cases can a financial institution disclose a suspicious activity report (SAR)?

Options:

A.

A court order requests the bank to disclose the SAR subject to obtaining agreement from the legal team

B.

A customer asks about potential reporting to the local Financial Intelligence Unit (Fill)

C.

An external consultant inquires about the details of the SAR

D.

A third-country police directly inquires about the customer.

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Questions 63

Which of the following describes a formal method of information sharing and cooperation between Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs) when conducting cross-border money laundering investigations?

Options:

A.

FATF, MONEYVAL, and other regional bodies acting as a contact point for FIUs

B.

The Wolfsberg Group serving as a communication platform for FIUs

C.

Memoranda of Understanding (MOUs) between FIUs establishing structured information sharing

D.

Mutual Legal Assistance Treaties (MLATs) allowing FIUs to request arrests and evidence

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Questions 64

Which activities would be considered money laundering red flags when reviewing the business operations of a money services business (MSB)? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

A customer being hesitant to provide beneficiary name or address information when sending international wire transfers

B.

Cash-intensive businesses, such as convenience stores or restaurants, making large cash deposits

C.

A customer exchanging foreign currency from a higher-risk jurisdiction for domestic currency under the reporting threshold

D.

A customer using multiple accounts under different names to conduct transactions

E.

A customer completing frequent small-dollar international money transfers to their native country

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Questions 65

An AML/CFT unit often compiles information about customer activity and product usage that might be of interest to other parts of the organization.

Before allowing the unit to communicate such information internally, the organization must review:

Options:

A.

Enterprise-wide risk assessments and the employee handbook for any limitations on sharing commercially sensitive customer data

B.

The risk rating of the customers to avoid sharing data relating to higher risk customers

C.

The organization's AML compliance policies to ensure that customer data can be easily shared internally and internationally

D.

Applicable data privacy laws in relevant jurisdictions and the organization's data security and privacy policies for any limitations

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Questions 66

In a large US bank, an individual leads a team in charge of overseeing the governance and effectiveness of the bank's transaction monitoring approach.

Which strategies should the team implement? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Periodic and ad hoc cooperation with the legal team to appropriately investigate and monitor the transactions of subjects of subpoenas or government inquiries

B.

Periodic review of client profiles to ensure that the most up-to-date information is on file for high-risk clients in line with the bank's internal policies and procedures

C.

Periodic review of suspicious activity reports (SARs) filed with FinCEN to determine whether any should be withdrawn

D.

Periodic review of the transaction monitoring scenarios and their productivity to ensure that appropriate AML typologies are reflected

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Questions 67

The first line of defense is responsible for:

Options:

A.

collecting complete customer information.

B.

ongoing screening of customers.

C.

suspicious activity and sanctions reporting.

D.

evaluating the effectiveness of compliance controls.

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Questions 68

A law enforcement agency submits several requests to a financial institution.

Which request is legitimate and requires the bank to respond?

Options:

A.

Keep an account open upon verbal request

B.

Produce documents and testimony without a subpoena

C.

Seize privileged documents upon written request

D.

Freeze an account in terms of a court order

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Questions 69

Benefits of using artificial intelligence (AI) in conjunction with or in place of traditional rules-based transaction monitoring include that AI can: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Increase the number of false positive alerts

B.

Create unbiased scenarios during the machine training phase

C.

Identify changes in customer behavior to more accurately assess risk

D.

Generate customer risk scores to predict potential financial crime activity

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Questions 70

A trust and company services provider that offers a variety of services to businesses is approached by a client interested in establishing a new company. The client requests assistance with the incorporation process, a local business address, annual maintenance services, and the designation of individuals to serve in official capacities for the new company.

Which of the following services involves a higher money laundering risk?

Options:

A.

Appointing individuals to serve in official capacities of the company

B.

Annual maintenance services

C.

Provision of a local business address

D.

Company incorporation services

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Questions 71

What is the first step in designing an effective controls framework using a risk-based approach?

Options:

A.

Establishing risk controls

B.

Assessing risk controls

C.

Ongoing risk monitoring

D.

Conducting a risk assessment

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Questions 72

According to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) methodology, which situations would require a financial institution (FI) to consider filing a suspicious activity report?

Options:

A.

A beneficiary of a transaction is a politically exposed person.

B.

A FI is unable to verify the relevant customer due diligence documents.

C.

A FI identifies the payer is a dealer in precious metals or stones.

D.

A transaction involves funds exchanged from crypto to fiat currencies.

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Questions 73

Which risk factors are associated with acquiring and servicing the banking activities of customers considered higher risk for financial crime activities? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Reputational risk

B.

Operational risk

C.

Sanctions risk

D.

Compliance risk

E.

Lending risk

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Questions 74

Which of the following is a primary objective of public sector groups in the fight against money laundering?

Options:

A.

Advising private financial institutions on how to enhance their profitability through AML efforts

B.

Establishing and enforcing legal frameworks to detect, prevent, and punish money laundering and related financial crimes

C.

Providing funding to private and non-governmental organizations (NGOs) for the development of advanced compliance technologies

D.

Acting as intermediaries between private sector firms and non-governmental organizations (NGOs) to streamline AML compliance programs

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Questions 75

An employee in a corporation's finance department hears news of an internal investigation into potential fraud within the company, quits her job, and disappears.

If they had been observed before her resignation, which characteristics of the employee would have been considered red flags? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The employee was originally from a high-risk jurisdiction

B.

The employee had friends in high-risk industries

C.

The employee had a lavish lifestyle for her income

D.

The employee was constantly evasive about the reasons for leaving her previous corporate finance job

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Questions 76

A high volume of incoming wire transfers generates an alert about a client. The funds are immediately debited by cash withdrawals and outgoing wire transfers.

Which information should be reviewed first to investigate this alert/case?

Options:

A.

Open source information

B.

Customer profile

C.

Adverse media search

D.

Account activity

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Questions 77

Risks associated with real estate transactions include (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

cross-border purchases.

B.

purchases in the name of a natural person.

C.

paying true market price for a property.

D.

non-financed purchases.

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Questions 78

Which of the following actions is specifically permitted or required under FinCEN section 314(b) for financial institutions (FIs) to enhance their efforts in combating money laundering and terrorist financing?

Options:

A.

FIs may disclose customer information to any third party

B.

FIs may provide information about their internal compliance programs to law enforcement agencies without any limitations

C.

FIs are required to report all transactions involving foreign entities to FinCEN so that FinCEN can share this information with other financial institutions

D.

FIs may share information about suspected money laundering activities with other FIs to aid in identifying and reporting suspicious transactions

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Questions 79

The compliance officer at a casino in Taiwan discovers that the casino received multiple cash deposits from a customer just below the Large-Amount Transaction Report (LTR) limit on consecutive days. The customer used three different betting accounts.

What is the appropriate next step?

Options:

A.

Make a note in the customer's account that the customer's gambling activities are frequently conducted below the reporting limit

B.

Follow internal reporting procedures to escalate the activity as suspicious and report to appropriate authorities

C.

Inform the customer their activity Is suspicious and request an explanation

D.

Contact law enforcement to launch an Investigation into the customer's financial activities

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Questions 80

Which suspicious activity may be the strongest indicator of money laundering through a casino?

Options:

A.

A privately held company originates funds transfers through the casino into the betting accounts of multiple patrons

B.

A patron requests the casino to transfer their winnings to another gambling operator

C.

A patron purchases a large amount of chips at a blackjack table using cash

D.

A patron routinely places multiple bets on the same sporting events

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Questions 81

The role of FATF-style regional bodies (FSRBs) is to; (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

identify and address the current financial crime trends through the issuance of typologies originating in members outside of their FSRB's Jurisdiction.

B.

provide AM L/C FT technical assistance needed by members in their FSRB junsdiction.

C.

coordinate technical assistance for members in their FSRB jurisdiction

D.

set and amend the FATF 40 Recommendations for members in their FSRB jurisdiction.

E.

identify and address any gaps in the AML/CFT policies for members outside of their FSRB jurisdiction.

F.

offer mutual evaluation and follow-up processes for members in their FSRB Jurisdiction.

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Questions 82

The law enforcement agency (LEA) of a foreign jurisdiction contacts a financial institution (FI) regarding one of the FI's clients. The LEA advises that the client is currently wanted for prosecution as a result of a series of human trafficking charges.

What should the FI do? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Inform local LEA and regulator of the request for awareness

B.

Close the client's accounts immediately to avoid any undue risk

C.

Review the client's activity, determine if suspicious activity exists, and report accordingly

D.

Advise the LEA that the government needs to be contacted for extradition

E.

Comply immediately with the foreign jurisdiction and turn over all client information

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Questions 83

Which of the below is a core function of a financial intelligence unit (FIU) as described in FATF Recommendation 29?

Options:

A.

Sponsoring the research and development of advanced technological surveillance tools to be used nationally

B.

Prosecuting significant cases of money laundering or terrorist financing falling under national jurisdiction

C.

Sharing real-time criminal intelligence gathered from national law enforcement agencies with the private sector

D.

Serving as a national center for the collection and analysis of suspicious activity

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Questions 84

Who bears the ultimate responsibility for approving a financial institution's relationship with a politically exposed person?

Options:

A.

KYC analyst

B.

Senior management

C.

Relationship manager

D.

Enhanced due diligence compliance officer

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Questions 85

What are the primary advantages of using open-source tools in financial crime investigations? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Partial automation of data collection and analysis

B.

Cost-effective access to a wide range of data

C.

Real-time monitoring of selected transactions and data sources

D.

Ability to conduct investigations with minimal human oversight

E.

Enhanced ability to identity connections across various data sets

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Questions 86

A customer of a financial Institution (Fl) complained that they had received multiple emails appearing to originate from the Fl urging them to click on a link or open a remittance attachment for confirmation. After opening the attachment, the customer later realized that funds had been systematically transferred out of their bank account without their knowledge

Which type of cybercrime is described in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Vishing

B.

Pharming

C.

SMSishing

D.

Spear phishing

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Questions 87

Which of the following best describes one of the principal threats of proliferation financing?

Options:

A.

Adversary governments using sophisticated attacks to threaten critical infrastructure and sectors, including finance, health care and energy

B.

Networks of individuals and entities exploiting financial systems to move funds that will be used to acquire weapons of mass destruction or their components

C.

Transnational criminal organizations expanding their engagement into more varied types of illicit activities, including human trafficking and corruption

D.

Networks of individuals and entities raising funds to further proliferate their ideological goals wholly or in part through unlawful acts of force or violence

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Questions 88

The degree of attraction that a company holds to criminal organizations is influenced by the (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

amount of annual fees associated with the jurisdiction.

B.

permissibility of bearer shares.

C.

rules governing the disclosure of beneficial ownership by the jurisdiction.

D.

ease of travel to the jurisdiction.

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Questions 89

A Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) serves as a national center for the receipt and analysis of suspicious activity reports (SARs) and can obtain additional information from other reporting entities relevant to:

Options:

A.

public administration.

B.

legal assessment.

C.

law enforcement.

D.

legal activity.

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Questions 90

Why is it important to use multiple sanctions lists, such as United Nations (UN), Office of Foreign Assets Control ("OFAC"), and European Union ("EU") lists, in name screening systems?

Options:

A.

To avoid sanctions breach related to payments

B.

To avoid onboarding customers previously exited due to true match

C.

To meet international regulatory requirements and identify risks across jurisdictions

D.

To be in line with the risk appetite statement

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Questions 91

Which of the following activities are identified by the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) as being potentially indicative of money laundering through the real estate sector? (Select Four.)

Options:

A.

Use of mortgage products

B.

Use of commercial properties inconsistent with stated business purposes

C.

Use of complex loans or credit finance

D.

Use of corporate vehicles or complex ownership structures

E.

Unexplained cash payments

F.

Use of agricultural land in rural areas

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Questions 92

Which statement best describes an organizational challenge for law enforcement agencies and Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs) when conducting cross-border money laundering (ML) investigations?

Options:

A.

Defining a common communication approach and language between all involved parties.

B.

Delays in the investigation due to a foreign FIU awaiting the results of queries performed by third parties.

C.

Conducting an investigation in all countries through which ML funds were transferred when one or more of the countries do not have an FIU.

D.

Investigations which involve high-ranking politicians, who often have influence over the local FIU.

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Questions 93

Potential risk indicators for a trade counterparty in trade-based money laundering include: (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Irregular or inconsistent trade volume and frequency that does not align with the historical trading behavior of the counterparty

B.

Contracts, invoices, or other trade documents containing detailed descriptions of the traded commodities

C.

Cash deposits or other transactions consistently below the relevant reporting thresholds

D.

Engaging in transactions and shipping routes or methods that are not in line with standard business practices

E.

Transparent pricing structures with additional information provided to the receiving bank when pricing fluctuates by ±10%

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Questions 94

Which of the following conditions contribute to a politically exposed person (PEP) posing greater risk than a typical high-risk bank customer? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The family members and close associates of PEPs may be involved in illicit activities.

B.

PEPs are granted unlimited credit and financial immunity under international banking regulations.

C.

PEPs may exploit embassy activities to conceal bribery and corruption transactions.

D.

PEPs can have illegitimate fund sources but are legally protected from having their accounts closed for activities outside a bank's risk appetite.

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Questions 95

The effectiveness of AML/CFT measures can be best measured by the extent to which systems and controls:

Options:

A.

Comply with relevant laws and regulations

B.

Minimize operational burden placed on the financial institution

C.

Mitigate the risks and threats of financial crime

D.

Are implemented in a cost-effective way

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Questions 96

The Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) in a country has received a suspicious activity report (SAR) which involves significant suspicious fund transfers, not only within its jurisdiction but also in a foreign country. Further information is required from the foreign country to determine whether the matter needs to be referred for prosecution locally.

Which of the following statements is true in this scenario?

Options:

A.

It is against international laws on data protection to access information from foreign countries

B.

Sovereignty of nations means that information cannot be accessed from foreign countries

C.

Any information related to money laundering can be received from any organization at any time regardless of jurisdiction

D.

Countries that are members of the Egmont Group can request assistance for information from each other

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Questions 97

A financial institution is conducting an enterprise-wide risk assessment (EWRA) and has identified a high inherent risk of money laundering associated with its private banking division due to the clientele's high net worth and complex financial structures. However, the institution has implemented robust customer due diligence (CDD) and enhanced due diligence (EDD) procedures, along with sophisticated transaction monitoring systems.

How would these controls impact the assessment of residual risk?

Options:

A.

The residual risk would be significantly reduced due to the effectiveness of the controls in place

B.

The residual risk would be moderately reduced, but further controls may be necessary to achieve an acceptable level

C.

The residual risk would remain high due to the inherent nature of the private banking business

D.

The residual risk would be eliminated entirely because the controls are sufficient to mitigate all potential risks

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Questions 98

A financial institution is conducting an enterprise-wide risk assessment (EWRA) and has identified a high inherent risk of money laundering associated with its private banking division due to the clientele’s high net worth and complex financial structures. However, the institution has implemented robust customer due diligence (CDD) and enhanced due diligence (EDD) procedures, along with sophisticated transaction monitoring systems.

How would these controls impact the assessment of residual risk?

Options:

A.

The residual risk would be eliminated entirely because the controls are sufficient to mitigate all potential risks

B.

The residual risk would be significantly reduced due to the effectiveness of the controls in place

C.

The residual risk would remain high due to the inherent nature of the private banking business

D.

The residual risk would be moderately reduced, but further controls may be necessary to achieve an acceptable level

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Questions 99

Correspondent banking is considered a higher-risk banking sector because correspondent banking transactions:

Options:

A.

Are made primarily to and from high-risk jurisdictions

B.

Can be made anonymously and without beneficial ownership information

C.

Typically include less information than domestic payments

D.

Are made cross-border and on behalf of third parties

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Questions 100

Professions such as lawyers, accountants, and trust and company service providers (TCSPs) are sometimes referred to as "gatekeepers" because they:

Options:

A.

often do not understand and are not covered by money laundering laws and regulations, unwittingly allowing criminals to enter the legitimate economy.

B.

are an entry point to the financial system and a first line of defense against the infiltration of illicit funds into the legitimate economy.

C.

are required under money laundering laws and regulations in all jurisdictions to stop any criminals from being able to integrate illicit funds into the legitimate economy.

D.

are high-risk actors who can deliberately allow criminals to enter the legitimate economy.

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Questions 101

A US bank recently received a regulatory order to remediate its AML programs, which included several violations of law.

What degree of accountability is it possible for the bank's senior management and employees to face?

Options:

A.

The bank's designated AML compliance officer is likely to face criminal prosecution because the bank received a regulatory order

B.

The bank's designated AML compliance officer and senior management can face civil prosecution but not criminal prosecution for violation of AML laws

C.

The bank's designated AML compliance officer and senior management may face personal liability if they failed to take actions while aware of AML violations at the bank

D.

The bank's designated AML compliance officer is the only individual in the company's senior management team that can face personal liability for violation of AML laws

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Questions 102

Financial crime risk related to the use of "hawalas" can stem from: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

remote verification of identity by third-party program managers

B.

heavy usage by senior political figures.

C.

heightened risks of returned transactions.

D.

informal networks used for cross-border transactions outside of the formal banking system

E.

difficulty in tracking the originator recipient, and source of transactions.

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Questions 103

Which of the following presents the highest money laundering risk from a money services business (MSB)?

Options:

A.

Some MSBs provide bureau de change services to retail customers after they complete a due diligence process.

B.

Some MSBs process large, individual cash transactions on behalf of customers.

C.

Some MSBs allow regular and frequent transactions to the same family members based in another country

D.

Some MSBs process small remittance payments on behalf of workers based abroad sending money home.

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Questions 104

Which of the following corporate structures present a higher money laundering risk because of reduced transparency? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

A limited liability company incorporated in a foreign jurisdiction

B.

A private company that has no activity in a tax haven jurisdiction

C.

A company with nominee shareholders and directors in a local jurisdiction

D.

A company with bearer shares incorporated in a tax haven jurisdiction

E.

A private investment company incorporated in a tax haven jurisdiction with strict secrecy laws

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Questions 105

A compliance officer at a financial institution (FI) is reviewing a new client application for a virtual asset service provider (VASP).

Which details should be part of the risk assessment to determine whether the customer falls within the FI’s financial crimes risk appetite? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Whether the VASP’s procedures are sufficient for protecting client personally identifiable information

B.

What percentage of the VASP’s clients are classified as higher-risk

C.

Which registered institutions act on behalf of the VASP as operators of virtual asset wallets and virtual asset exchange offices

D.

Whether the VASP is utilizing central bank digital currencies

E.

Who the VASP’s clients are, including the breakdown of foreign and domestic individuals

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Questions 106

It is essential to identify any "family members" or "close associates" of politically exposed persons (PEPs) as part of the KYC/CDD process because they could be:

Options:

A.

executing cross-border transactions for their own business which is not commensurate to the PEP's wealth.

B.

in a position to provide more information regarding the PEP's whereabouts and hidden properties.

C.

travelling to offshore jurisdictions often on holiday which exposes them to higher risks for AML.

D.

used as intermediaries to facilitate bribery or corruption or to conceal the illicit wealth of the PEP.

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Questions 107

Which persons must always comply with all Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) regulations? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Permanent US resident aliens regardless of location

B.

Merchants that offer US-origin goods for sale regardless of location

C.

Non-US financial institutions that offer accounts in USD regardless of location

D.

US citizens regardless of location

E.

US incorporated entities and their foreign branches

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Questions 108

Challenges in the implementation of new technologies for AML/CFT include: (Select Four.)

Options:

A.

data privacy.

B.

enhanced due diligence (EDD) policies.

C.

the Travel Rule.

D.

data quality.

E.

complexity.

F.

regulatory.

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Questions 109

Which is a key goal of the EU's Directives on money laundering?

Options:

A.

Address control of payments in EU countries to reduce money laundering.

B.

Build a network of financial institutions that work together to prevent money laundering across the EU.

C.

Establish a consistent regulatory environment across the EU to prevent money laundering.

D.

Allow member states to discuss the draft legislation with the cooperation of the EU financial intelligence units.

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Questions 110

Which regulation is the cornerstone of AML/CFT legislation in the United States and requires financial institutions (FIs) to establish and maintain robust AML programs, including customer identification and due diligence procedures, as well as record-keeping and reporting of certain transactions to the Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (FinCEN)?

Options:

A.

USA PATRIOT Act

B.

Bank Secrecy Act (BSA)

C.

Money Laundering Control Act (MLCA)

D.

Markets in Crypto-Assets Regulation (MiCA)

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Questions 111

Which of the following entities could potentially pose a higher money laundering risk and require additional review prior to onboarding? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

A large multinational corporation with extensive, documented wire transfer activity

B.

A local convenience store that replenishes the onsite automated teller machine (ATM) with cash from its till

C.

A local used car sale lot that allows individuals to pay their monthly bill in cash

D.

A virtual asset service provider (VASP), facilitating peer-to-peer cryptocurrency transactions

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Questions 112

An annual risk assessment includes inherent risk, effectiveness of controls, and residual risk. The inherent risk is assessed as “moderate,” and the effectiveness of controls is “less than satisfactory.”

What would the residual risk conclusion most likely be?

Options:

A.

“Medium,” because weak controls would result in the residual risk remaining unchanged

B.

“High,” because weak controls would result in increased residual risk

C.

“Moderate,” because the risk conclusions for specific areas may be increased

D.

“Low,” because controls would lower the risk

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Questions 113

Risks associated with real estate transactions include: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

cross-border purchases

B.

purchases in the name of a natural person

C.

paying true market price for a property

D.

non-financed purchases

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Questions 114

An AML analyst at a financial institution is examining an alert generated by the automated transaction monitoring system to determine whether the alert should be escalated to the AML unit for further investigation or whether it can be archived as a false positive.

Which action might be reasonable for the AML analyst to take?

Options:

A.

Restrict the client's access to the account

B.

Request information from the relationship manager assigned to the account that caused the alert

C.

Perform below-the-line testing to ensure the automated monitoring system is operating effectively

D.

Send a request for information to the counterparty bank involved in the transaction that caused the alert

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Questions 115

Cryptocurrency-related technologies that can be exploited by money launderers include: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

generative copilots.

B.

small language models.

C.

privacy coins.

D.

crypto-mixers.

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Questions 116

A customer frequently deposits large amounts of cash into an online gambling account and requests withdrawals shortly after with minimal gambling activity.

What is the most likely money laundering risk associated with this behavior in the gambling and gaming industry?

Options:

A.

The customer is attempting to convert illicit funds into “clean” withdrawals

B.

The customer is attempting to avoid high fees by minimizing gambling activity

C.

The customer is testing the gaming platform’s payout system for potential fraud

D.

The customer is a high-risk gambler who regularly places large bets

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Questions 117

A periodic review has been completed for an existing virtual asset service provider (VASP) customer.

Which of the following are indicators of potential money laundering? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Use of shell companies for deposits and withdrawals into the VASP

B.

Using a peer-to-peer network to reduce costs associated with server maintenance and data storage

C.

Rapid market fluctuations resulting in quick changes in the value of underlying assets

D.

Frequent use of mixers and tumblers for holdings and transactions

E.

Receiving funds from countries known for weak money laundering regulations and frameworks

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Questions 118

Ateam overseeing the governance and effectiveness of a bank’s transaction monitoring approachshould implement which strategies? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Periodic review of suspicious activity reports (SARs) filed with FinCEN to determine whether any should be withdrawn.

B.

Periodic and ad hoc cooperation with the legal team to appropriately investigate and monitor the transactions of subjects of subpoenas or government inquiries.

C.

Periodic review of client profiles to ensure that the most up-to-date information is on file for high-risk clients in line with the bank’s internal policies and procedures.

D.

Periodic review of the transaction monitoring scenarios and their productivity to ensure that appropriate AML typologies are reflected.

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Exam Code: CAMS
Exam Name: Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (CAMS7 the 7th edition)
Last Update: Feb 27, 2026
Questions: 395
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