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CCDS Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

For FY 2026 Hospital Value-Based Purchasing, each of the four scored domains generally contributes what percentage to the Total Performance Score when all four domains are scored?

Options:

A.

10%

B.

20%

C.

25%

D.

40%

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Questions 5

A patient has hypertension and acute on chronic diastolic heart failure documented during the same admission. The physician does not explicitly link the conditions and does not state that they are unrelated. Which statement is MOST accurate?

Options:

A.

A query is always required before hypertensive heart disease can be coded

B.

ICD-10-CM generally presumes a relationship between hypertension and qualifying heart disease unless documented as unrelated

C.

Hypertension should not be coded when heart failure is present

D.

Only systolic heart failure can be presumed related to hypertension

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Questions 6

A 34-year-old female was admitted from a group home with uncontrolled diabetes. A CDI specialist must query to specify the patient's mental incapacity since it makes management of the diabetes more difficult. Which of the following terminology recognized by ICD-10-CM could result in the assignment of a comorbid condition?

Options:

A.

acute mental incapacity

B.

severe intellectual disability

C.

severe mental challenge

D.

acute intellectual disability

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Questions 7

A patient is admitted with fever and weakness. On hospital day 3, final blood cultures identify an infection that the physician documents was present at the time of admission. Which statement about present-on-admission status is MOST accurate?

Options:

A.

The diagnosis cannot be POA because it was not identified until hospital day 3

B.

A condition may be POA even when it is diagnosed after admission

C.

All diagnoses first documented after admission receive POA indicator N

D.

Only the principal diagnosis can receive POA indicator Y

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Questions 8

A CDI program is piloting a new query form to better capture the documentation of pneumonia specificity. Which of the following would be the BEST indicator to determine the effectiveness of the query form?

Options:

A.

Increased provider response rate

B.

Increased provider agreement rate

C.

Increased volume of cases in the simple pneumonia DRGs

D.

Increased volume of cases in the respiratory infection DRGs

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Questions 9

Respiratory failure is documented in a patient's initial progress notes. There are no clinical indicators in the record to support this diagnosis. According to the AHIMA/ACDIS Practice Brief Guidelines for Achieving a Compliant Query Practice, the MOST appropriate action by the CDI specialist is which of the following?

Options:

A.

Assign a code for respiratory failure

B.

Do not assign a code for respiratory failure

C.

Query the provider for validation of the diagnosis

D.

Review for documentation of CPAP to support respiratory failure

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Questions 10

A patient is admitted with chest pain and borderline elevation of troponins. The patient also reports a history of GERD. The physician documents that the chest pain is “likely GI in origin” and prescribes omeprazole. Based on the clinical indicators, which of the following actions should the CDI specialist take?

Options:

A.

Query for chest pain due to AMI

B.

Query for the condition requiring admission

C.

No query needed, GERD is the principal diagnosis

D.

No query needed, chest pain is the principal diagnosis

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Questions 11

The PRIMARY goal of a CDI specialist's work is to support complete and specific documentation that results in:

Options:

A.

accurate reflection of the acuity, severity, and outcome of the patient

B.

maximum reimbursement for charges incurred

C.

reduction in the occurrence of HACs

D.

improved communication between health care providers

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Questions 12

A CDI team identifies that orthopedic surgeons frequently document “postoperative anemia” without specifying whether blood loss is acute, expected, chronic, or clinically insignificant. What is the BEST educational strategy?

Options:

A.

Provide targeted education using deidentified orthopedic cases and clinically relevant documentation examples

B.

Send surgeons a complete list of all anemia ICD-10-CM codes

C.

Tell surgeons to document acute blood loss anemia on every postoperative patient with decreased hemoglobin

D.

Stop querying postoperative anemia to reduce physician burden

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Questions 13

A patient's hemoglobin decreases from 13.1 g/dL before surgery to 7.4 g/dL afterward. Estimated intraoperative blood loss is 1,200 mL, and the patient receives two units of packed red blood cells. The physician documents only “postoperative anemia.” Which clarification is MOST appropriate?

Options:

A.

Acute blood loss anemia versus another explanation for the anemia

B.

Hemolytic anemia only

C.

Chronic iron deficiency anemia only

D.

No clarification because transfusion establishes the diagnosis

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Questions 14

A patient is admitted with sepsis due to an E. coli urinary tract infection. The provider also documents acute kidney injury due to the sepsis and “severe sepsis without septic shock.” Which sequencing is most appropriate?

Options:

A.

Severe sepsis code first, followed by acute kidney injury

B.

Sepsis first, followed by severe sepsis and acute kidney injury

C.

Urinary tract infection first, followed by sepsis

D.

Acute kidney injury first, followed by urinary tract infection

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Questions 15

Which of the following is included among the FY 2026 Hospital-Acquired Condition Reduction Program measures?

Options:

A.

CMS PSI 90

B.

Case mix index

C.

Query response rate

D.

Patient satisfaction survey completion rate

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Questions 16

A patient with an indwelling urinary catheter develops fever, pyuria, and a positive urine culture during hospitalization. The physician documents “UTI” but does not state whether the infection is related to the catheter. What should the CDI specialist do?

Options:

A.

Automatically classify the UTI as catheter-associated because the catheter is present

B.

Query the provider to clarify whether a cause-and-effect relationship exists

C.

Remove the UTI because catheterized patients commonly have bacteriuria

D.

Code a catheter complication whenever a urine culture is positive

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Questions 17

A physician is completing rounds when a CDI specialist identifies conflicting documentation that can be clarified immediately. Which approach is MOST appropriate?

Options:

A.

Avoid verbal discussion because all queries must be electronic

B.

Discuss the issue professionally with the physician and ensure the clarification process meets organizational query documentation requirements

C.

Tell the physician which diagnosis produces the correct MS-DRG

D.

Wait until final billing because concurrent clarification is inappropriate

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Questions 18

The progress note on hospital day 2 of a patient's admission states that the patient got up from the bed to go to the bathroom just after housekeeping had mopped the floor. The patient slipped and fell onto the floor, sustaining a broken wrist. The diagnosis of a fractured wrist will:

Options:

A.

Be coded and assigned a POA of “U”

B.

Not be recognized as a CC because it was a hospital-acquired condition

C.

Be considered a CC for calculation of the final MS-DRG

D.

Not be coded because it is a hospital-acquired condition

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Questions 19

A hospital's mortality report shows 125 observed deaths and 100 expected deaths. The observed-to-expected mortality ratio is 1.25. Which interpretation is MOST accurate?

Options:

A.

Observed mortality is 25% lower than expected

B.

Observed mortality is 25% higher than expected

C.

Expected mortality is 125% higher than observed

D.

The hospital's mortality performance exactly matches expected mortality

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Questions 20

A neurologist documents acute cerebral infarction. A qualified stroke nurse records the NIH Stroke Scale score in the medical record. Which statement is MOST accurate?

Options:

A.

The NIHSS score cannot be coded unless repeated by the physician

B.

The NIHSS score may be obtained from qualified non-provider documentation when the related diagnosis is documented by the provider

C.

The nurse's NIHSS documentation establishes the cerebral infarction diagnosis independently

D.

NIHSS scores are not reportable in ICD-10-CM

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Questions 21

A patient is admitted with pneumonia. On hospital day 3, the patient deteriorates and the physician documents that sepsis developed after admission as a consequence of the pneumonia. Which diagnosis is generally sequenced first?

Options:

A.

Sepsis

B.

Pneumonia

C.

Severe sepsis

D.

Acute respiratory failure

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Questions 22

A patient is admitted with sepsis due to osteomyelitis and evidence of organ failure. Which of the following is the correct principal diagnosis?

Options:

A.

Osteomyelitis

B.

Unspecified septicemia

C.

Sepsis

D.

Severe sepsis

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Questions 23

The attending physician documents “severe protein-calorie malnutrition.” The dietitian's assessment documents normal nutritional intake, stable body weight, no fat loss, and no muscle wasting. What should the CDI specialist do?

Options:

A.

Accept the diagnosis because it was documented by the physician

B.

Delete the diagnosis

C.

Submit a clinical validation query

D.

Ask the dietitian to change the assessment

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Questions 24

When a physician documents the abbreviation “HCAP” in the health record, the BEST action for a CDI specialist to take is to:

Options:

A.

Assign the working code for pneumonia

B.

Query the physician for the specificity of the pneumonia

C.

Query the physician for healthcare-acquired pneumonia

D.

Assign the working code for complex pneumonia

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Questions 25

A patient develops a surgical-site infection after abdominal surgery and is admitted with sepsis. The surgeon clearly documents “sepsis due to postoperative wound infection.” Which diagnosis category is generally sequenced first?

Options:

A.

The systemic sepsis code

B.

The postprocedural infection code identifying the surgical-site infection

C.

Severe sepsis

D.

Fever

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Questions 26

A patient's past medical history lists remote peptic ulcer disease. During the current admission, the condition receives no evaluation, treatment, diagnostic workup, extended length of stay, or increased nursing monitoring. Which statement is MOST accurate?

Options:

A.

It must be reported because all past medical-history conditions are secondary diagnoses

B.

It should be reported because it appears in the medical record

C.

It generally does not meet the criteria for a reportable additional diagnosis

D.

It automatically qualifies as a CC because it is a chronic condition

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Questions 27

Which pressure-ulcer category is specifically included in the traditional CMS HAC payment policy when the condition is not present on admission?

Options:

A.

Stage 1 and stage 2 pressure ulcers

B.

Stage 3 and stage 4 pressure ulcers

C.

All pressure injuries regardless of stage

D.

Healed pressure ulcers only

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Questions 28

A patient presents with crushing substernal chest pain, diaphoresis, ST-segment depression, and a significant rise and fall in cardiac troponin. The cardiologist documents acute coronary syndrome but does not specify the final diagnosis. Which clarification is MOST clinically appropriate?

Options:

A.

NSTEMI versus unstable angina or another diagnosis

B.

GERD only

C.

Chronic stable angina only

D.

Old myocardial infarction

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Questions 29

A physician documents obesity. A registered dietitian records a BMI of 38.4 kg/m². Which statement is MOST accurate?

Options:

A.

The BMI cannot be used because only physicians may document BMI

B.

The BMI may be obtained from the dietitian's documentation when the associated diagnosis is appropriately documented

C.

The BMI alone allows the coder to diagnose obesity

D.

BMI should never be reported during an inpatient admission

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Questions 30

During a quarter, a CDI department issued 800 provider queries. Providers answered 720 queries, and 540 of those responses agreed with the clarification proposed by the clinical evidence. What was the provider query response rate?

Options:

A.

67.5%

B.

75%

C.

90%

D.

96%

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Questions 31

A patient's record contains fever, tachycardia, hypotension, positive blood cultures, and treatment with IV antibiotics and fluids. No corresponding diagnosis has been documented. Which query format is MOST appropriate?

Options:

A.

“Does the patient have sepsis? Yes or No.”

B.

“Please document sepsis because the clinical criteria are present.”

C.

A neutral multiple-choice query presenting the clinical indicators and reasonable diagnostic alternatives

D.

No query, because CDI specialists may only clarify diagnoses already documented

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Questions 32

A hospital records 72 observed deaths, while its risk-adjustment model predicts 90 expected deaths. What is the observed-to-expected mortality ratio?

Options:

A.

0.80

B.

1.20

C.

1.25

D.

1.80

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Questions 33

Which statement BEST defines the principal diagnosis for an inpatient hospitalization?

Options:

A.

The diagnosis with the highest MS-DRG relative weight

B.

The first condition documented in the emergency department

C.

The condition established after study to be chiefly responsible for occasioning the hospital admission

D.

The diagnosis requiring the greatest number of medications

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Questions 34

Which CMS resource contains the complete FY 2026 lists of diagnoses classified as MCCs and CCs for MS-DRG purposes?

Options:

A.

Hospital Consumer Assessment survey

B.

FY 2026 IPPS Final Rule Tables, including Tables 6I and 6J

C.

Medicare Physician Fee Schedule only

D.

National Coverage Determination manual

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Questions 35

Under the Inpatient Prospective Payment System, the PACT rule affects MS-DRG payment. PACT is an acronym for which of the following?

Options:

A.

Post-Acute Care Transition

B.

Post-Admission Compliance Transfer

C.

Pre-Admission Care Transition

D.

Post-Acute Care Transfer

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Questions 36

A patient who underwent abdominal surgery one week ago is readmitted specifically for treatment of a postoperative wound infection documented by the surgeon as a complication of the procedure. Which condition should generally be considered for principal diagnosis selection?

Options:

A.

The original condition that required surgery

B.

The postoperative wound infection/complication

C.

Fever

D.

Abdominal pain

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Questions 37

A patient's chest x-ray shows pulmonary vascular congestion and pleural effusions. These findings are most consistent with which of the following conditions?

Options:

A.

COPD

B.

Cor pulmonale

C.

Heart failure

D.

Pulmonary embolism

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Questions 38

Under the FY 2026 Hospital Value-Based Purchasing Program, hospital performance is organized into which of the following four domains?

Options:

A.

Mortality, readmissions, reimbursement, and compliance

B.

Clinical outcomes, person and community engagement, safety, and efficiency and cost reduction

C.

Patient safety, documentation quality, case mix, and physician engagement

D.

Clinical care, claims accuracy, readmissions, and utilization management

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Questions 39

A patient with sepsis has acute confusion, impaired attention, fluctuating mental status, and no focal neurologic findings. CT of the head is negative. The provider documents only “AMS secondary to infection.” Which clarification would be MOST clinically appropriate?

Options:

A.

Acute metabolic encephalopathy

B.

Chronic dementia

C.

Cerebral infarction

D.

Transient global amnesia

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Questions 40

A wound care nurse documents an assessment and care of a pressure ulcer. For coding purposes, the wound care nurse's documentation can be used to assign which of the following?

Options:

A.

POA status

B.

The diagnosis

C.

Location

D.

Stage

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Questions 41

Which of the following conditions demonstrates the greatest risk of mortality in a 77-year-old patient?

Options:

A.

History of tobacco use, admitted with COPD exacerbation and respiratory failure

B.

History of hypertension and diabetes mellitus, admitted with NSTEMI with acute systolic heart failure

C.

History of diabetes mellitus, admitted with UTI and metabolic encephalopathy

D.

History of mastectomy 10 years ago, admitted with sepsis and a UTI

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Questions 42

At discharge, the attending physician documents, “Probable aspiration pneumonia causing the patient's respiratory symptoms.” The patient is an inpatient. No subsequent documentation rules out aspiration pneumonia. How should the diagnosis be handled for inpatient coding?

Options:

A.

Code only the respiratory symptoms

B.

Code aspiration pneumonia as if established

C.

Query because “probable” diagnoses can never be coded

D.

Code unspecified pneumonia only

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Questions 43

A patient undergoes outpatient surgery at 9:00 AM. At 1:00 PM, while still in outpatient status, the patient develops an acute complication. The physician writes an inpatient admission order at 4:00 PM. The complication remains present at that time. How is the condition generally treated for POA purposes?

Options:

A.

POA = N because it occurred in the hospital

B.

POA = Y because it was present when inpatient admission occurred

C.

POA = U because it began during outpatient care

D.

POA cannot apply to complications

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Questions 44

A CDI specialist drafts the following query:

“Please document acute respiratory failure because the patient's oxygen saturation is 84% and this diagnosis will qualify as an MCC.”

What is the MOST appropriate action?

Options:

A.

Submit the query because the clinical indicator is valid

B.

Remove the reimbursement language and construct a neutral clinically supported query

C.

Submit the query only after obtaining coding-manager approval

D.

Replace “MCC” with “CC” and submit the query

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Questions 45

The attending physician documents acute respiratory failure. The patient has normal respiratory effort, oxygen saturation of 97% on room air, no supplemental oxygen requirement, and no ventilatory support. What is the MOST appropriate CDI action?

Options:

A.

Delete the diagnosis from the medical record

B.

Ignore the discrepancy because provider documentation can never be questioned

C.

Initiate a clinical validation query

D.

Change the diagnosis to hypoxemia

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Exam Code: CCDS
Exam Name: Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist
Last Update: Oct 24, 2026
Questions: 150

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