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CCDS-O Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

CMS-HCCs are used to

Options:

A.

reimburse physicians based on the principal diagnosis.

B.

distribute reimbursement to providers based on quality of care.

C.

determine capitation payments to insurers that administer Medicare Advantage health plans.

D.

adjust capitation payments to physicians, excluding advanced practice providers.

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Questions 5

A patient with stage 3 CKD presents to the clinic for evaluation. Upon review of labs, an elevated iPTH and a normal phosphorus level are noted. Which of the following diagnoses may be appropriately queried based upon these lab values?

Options:

A.

Secondary hyperparathyroidism of renal origin

B.

Primary hyperparathyroidism

C.

CKD stage 3 with hypoparathyroidism

D.

Hyperparathyroidism secondary to hypophosphatemia

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Questions 6

An established patient is defined as one who has received professional services from the same or another physician or qualified healthcare professional from the exact same specialty and sub-specialty and belongs to the same group practice, within the past how many years?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Questions 7

Which of the following encounters is billed as an outpatient encounter?

Options:

A.

ED visit that leads to inpatient admission

B.

ED visit that leads to observation stay

C.

Ambulatory surgery encounter for scheduled sigmoid resection

D.

Admission for COPD exacerbation with length of stay less than two midnights

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Questions 8

Which diagnosis and treatment plan may generate a query?

Options:

A.

Prostate carcinoma and luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone

B.

Atrial fibrillation and amiodarone

C.

Malnutrition and parenteral nutrition

D.

Severe major depressive disorder and immunotherapy

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Questions 9

Which of the following is a form of a cardiac condition that may be treated with a beta-blocker?

Options:

A.

Third degree heart block

B.

Coronary artery disease

C.

Sinus bradycardia

D.

Cardiomyopathy

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Questions 10

Symbicort® is used to treat which of the following conditions?

Options:

A.

Degenerative osteoarthritis

B.

Persistent asthma

C.

Diabetic neuropathy

D.

Congestive heart failure

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Questions 11

An 81-year-old is seen by his family physician for continued confusion and poor memory. PMH includes HTN, GERD, and Parkinson’s. The provider reviews the neurologist’s consultation notes, evaluates the patient’s current mental state, and addresses the diagnoses of HTN, GERD, and Parkinson’s. The provider’s problem list included: Dementia, GERD, HTN, and Parkinson’s. Which of the following is the first-listed diagnosis?

Options:

A.

HTN

B.

GERD

C.

Dementia

D.

Parkinson’s

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Questions 12

After a CDI specialist describes how RAF is calculated, a provider states, “I just don’t see how this impacts patient care.” Which of the following is the MOST appropriate response related to the RAF score?

Options:

A.

“It determines what you will be reimbursed.”

B.

“It predicts expected resources needed to care for the patient.”

C.

“It determines the patient’s out of pocket expenses.”

D.

“It predicts medical necessity of ordered procedures/treatments.”

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Questions 13

The primary purpose of the RADV program is to

Options:

A.

ensure risk-adjusted payment integrity and accuracy.

B.

verify medical necessity of care provided.

C.

identify over-payments rendered to individual physicians.

D.

support accuracy of Evaluation and Management billing.

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Questions 14

The majority of E/M services are based on which of the following criteria?

Options:

A.

New/established, site of service, and level of service

B.

New/established, site of service, and time

C.

New/established, physician specialty, and level of service

D.

New/established, level of service, and age of patient

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Questions 15

Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the impact of a CDI program on Clinic A using the table below?

Options:

A.

Providers are more engaged in 2023 than in 2022.

B.

Treated a more complex population than any of the other clinics in 2023.

C.

Served a sicker population in 2023 than in 2022.

D.

Consistently captured a higher RAF percentage each month in 2023 than in 2022.

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Questions 16

A patient presents with pulmonary rales, pulmonary edema found on chest x-ray, and bilateral ankle edema. Which of the following conditions will the provider MOST likely evaluate further?

Options:

A.

Pleural effusion

B.

Heart failure

C.

Pneumonia

D.

Pulmonary hypertension

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Questions 17

In a year over year comparison, the total number of patients with the more specific diagnosis of morbid obesity versus unspecified obesity increased from 10,000 patients to 11,000 patients. Which of the following is the hypothetical increase in yearly reserve for that patient population? (Morbid obesity HCC value = 0.186 and PMPM = $800.00)

Options:

A.

$148,800

B.

$3,291,200

C.

$1,785,600

D.

$17,785,600

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Questions 18

Which of the following illustrates an example of a compliant, prospective query?

Options:

A.

“Dr.: Your patient has a past medical history of CHF noted in her problem list. A review of her medication list shows Lasix 20 mg QD. Please review this diagnosis for pertinence and relevance during her upcoming visit and specify the type and acuity of the CHF if the diagnosis is still being addressed.”

B.

“Dr.: Your patient was ordered an echocardiogram at her last visit. Can you please document that the CHF was addressed as the basis for the study?”

C.

“Dr.: Your patient has chronic diastolic heart failure documented in her problem list. Can you please add this diagnosis to your progress note from her office visit?”

D.

“Dr.: Your patient was here for her Annual Wellness Visit. A review of her medication list shows a new order for Lasix 20mg QD. A review of your progress note from that visit notes 2+ pitting edema bilaterally and that the patient complains of shortness of breath at night requiring her to sleep on 2 pillows. Please add CHF to the problem list if this is the diagnosis you are treating with the Lasix.”

E.

F.

G.

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Questions 19

Which of the following is the MOST compliant provider query?

Options:

A.

“Noted that this patient is being referred for a colonoscopy. She has no documented GI symptoms and has a family history of colon cancer. When this patient is seen, please clarify whether this is a screening colonoscopy or diagnostic colonoscopy.”

B.

“The patient has a past medical history of CAD, HF, and COPD. Please document these conditions during the encounter today if they are still being treated.”

C.

“According to a visit last year, this patient has a history of alcohol use; quit two years ago; previously drank 6-9 beers daily, 10-12 beers on weekend. Patient now attends AA meetings. Is the patient’s alcohol use now in remission?”

D.

“Noted that the patient has skin that is ‘warm and dry with no rashes or lesions’; however, nursing documentation describes a ‘stage 3 sacral pressure ulcer’ requiring wet-to-dry dressing changes. Please add the pressure ulcer to your ED assessment note if appropriate.”

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Questions 20

Documentation states: “Patient with history of STEMI five weeks ago. Returning to office for follow-up. Problem list includes CAD, hypertension, heart failure, leukemia, malnutrition, and atrial fibrillation, all were relevant to the encounter. CBC and WBC reviewed and referred to oncologist. Follow-up with dietitian to further evaluate nutritional status.” Which of the following is the MOST impactful risk adjusted query opportunity?

Options:

A.

Status (remission, or relapse) and acuity of leukemia

B.

Type (diastolic, systolic, combined) and acuity of heart failure

C.

Differentiation of atrial fibrillation (paroxysmal, persistent, permanent)

D.

Severity of the malnutrition (mild, moderate, severe)

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Questions 21

Which of the following health record elements impacts HHS-HCC risk scores?

Options:

A.

CPT codes

B.

Discharge status

C.

Gender

D.

Ethnicity

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Questions 22

A patient with a PMH of DM, GERD, and HTN is seen in the clinic with complaints of stuffy nose, fever, and feeling tired for the past four days. The patient’s medication list includes SSI, Prilosec, and Diovan. The provider documented: “Congestion, fever, malaise, DM, GERD, HTN. Continue OTC medications for congestion and fever. Rest. Return to the clinic in one week if symptoms persist.” Which of the following ICD-10-CM guidelines BEST applies to how this scenario should be coded?

Options:

A.

Selection of first-listed condition

B.

Codes that describe symptoms and signs

C.

Uncertain diagnoses

D.

Encounters for general medical examination with abnormal finding

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Questions 23

A morbidly obese patient with a BMI of 45 who is reliant on CPAP at night is likely to have which of the following conditions?

Options:

A.

Heart failure

B.

Essential hypertension

C.

Alveolar hypoventilation

D.

Pulmonary edema

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Questions 24

The table below provides data indicating the use of Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) diagnosis code assignment for years 1 and 2 of an ambulatory CDI program. Based on the data and if the HCC value assigned to MDD was 0.299, which of the following should be inferred?

Options:

A.

The number of patients increased with an equal increase in use of MDD specified and a decrease in MDD, unspecified, not impacting future cost benchmarking.

B.

The number of patients increased with an increase in use of MDD specified and a decrease in MDD, unspecified, impacting future cost benchmarking.

C.

The number of patients increased with the difference between MDD specified and MDD, unspecified insignificant, not impacting future cost benchmarking.

D.

The number of patients increased with an increase in use of MDD specified and an increase in MDD, unspecified, impacting future cost benchmarking.

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Questions 25

Which of the following Medicare patients demonstrates the highest level of risk based on the above chart?

Options:

A.

65-year-old female, living at home, history includes diabetes type 2, obesity, and depression

B.

64-year-old female, living at home, disabled due to chronic pain, history includes diabetes type 2, peripheral neuropathy, obesity, and depression

C.

72-year-old female, living in skilled nursing facility, history includes diabetes type 2, peripheral neuropathy, morbid obesity, and depression

D.

94-year-old female, living in skilled nursing facility, history includes diabetes type 2, peripheral neuropathy, morbid obesity, and depression

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Questions 26

A CDI specialist is following up on a query while the provider is seeing patients in the clinic. The BEST action that will support a quick and compliant response to the query is to

Options:

A.

wait to speak with the provider during the next scheduled meeting.

B.

catch the provider in the hallway between patients.

C.

discuss in a private room with the door closed.

D.

leave a sticky note on the chart of the next patient.

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Questions 27

A female patient presents for her yearly wellness check-up. Her vital signs are within normal limits with the exception of dyspnea. Her weight is 165 lbs, up 10 lbs from her previous clinic visit 2 weeks prior. Problem list includes diagnoses of obesity, COPD, heart failure, and diabetes without complications. The patient’s A1c noted 9.2 up from 7.2 from previous year wellness exam. Based on the clinical indicators, which of the following medications should be evaluated and addressed during this clinic visit?

Options:

A.

Megace and ferrous sulfate

B.

Metformin and methotrexate

C.

NovoLog and Lasix

D.

Wellbutrin and Allegra

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Questions 28

Which of the following best differentiates inpatient from outpatient coding guidelines?

Options:

A.

Outpatient guidelines focus on principal diagnoses

B.

Inpatient guidelines emphasize diagnosis sequencing and MS-DRGs

C.

Both use the same guidelines with no differences

D.

Outpatient coding ignores encounter diagnoses

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Questions 29

A CDI specialist manager is reviewing the productivity metrics of the outpatient team and notes that one of the CDI specialists has a high query rate and a good physician response, but a low physician agree rate compared to the rest of the team. This likely indicates which of the following?

Options:

A.

The data is not stratified enough to show a true picture of the productivity.

B.

The CDI specialist is writing leading queries.

C.

The CDI specialist is creating poor quality queries.

D.

The cases the CDI specialist is reviewing are more complex than other clinics.

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Questions 30

While away on vacation, a patient sustained a compound right femoral shaft fracture requiring ORIF. Upon the patient’s return home, the fracture site is determined by the orthopedist to be healing well without any complication. Which of the following diagnoses is MOST appropriate for this office follow-up?

Options:

A.

Unspecified fracture of shaft of right femur, initial encounter, closed fracture

B.

Unspecified fracture of shaft of right femur, initial encounter, open fracture type I or II

C.

Unspecified fracture of shaft of right femur, subsequent encounter for routine healing, closed fracture type I or II

D.

Unspecified fracture of shaft of right femur, subsequent encounter for routine healing, open fracture type I or II

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Questions 31

A prospective record review of a problem list states: “Upper respiratory infection (resolved), fractured right femoral head (resolved), metastatic melanoma (followed by oncology), hypertension, morbid obesity, and bipolar disorder.” Which of the following query opportunities would provide the highest risk adjusted impact?

Options:

A.

Body mass index

B.

Sequelae related to fracture femur

C.

Specificity of bipolar disorder

D.

Status of metastatic melanoma

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Questions 32

Clinic documentation states: “Follow-up for post-induction chemotherapy for metastatic uterine cancer.” To BEST identify the conditions being monitored and treated, a CDI specialist should

Options:

A.

clarify the morphology of the tumor.

B.

evaluate diagnostic lab results.

C.

review the record for MRI results.

D.

query for secondary sites.

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Questions 33

Clinic visit documentation describes patient complaints of increased shortness of breath, following recent inpatient admission for pneumonia. Diagnoses include COPD - GOLD stage 3. Increase home O2 to 3 liters. Home health follow-up to begin home nebulizers, and Solu-Medrol ordered. Which of the following is the MOST significant query opportunity?

Options:

A.

Specificity of the organism causing the pneumonia

B.

Acuity of the COPD

C.

Presence of chronic respiratory failure

D.

Oxygen dependence

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Questions 34

Which of the following is true of the RAF metric?

Options:

A.

It predicts how much the individual provider will be reimbursed for the concurrent practice year.

B.

It is based only on demographic factors such as Medicaid status, gender, or aged/disabled.

C.

It is a relative measure of the probable costs to meet the healthcare needs of the individual beneficiary.

D.

It is used to calculate each primary care office visit reimbursement based on documentation of chronic conditions.

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Questions 35

What stage of pressure ulcer describes necrosis of soft tissue through the underlying muscle?

Options:

A.

2

B.

3

C.

4

D.

5

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Questions 36

A patient is seen in the obstetrical clinic, 6 weeks postpartum. She presents with resting heart rate of 58 BPM, initial blood pressure of 154/90, and respiratory rate of 20. She also complains of slight headaches, denies visual changes, and has no evidence of peripheral edema. History is significant for smoking and obesity. A blood pressure reading of 160/88 is taken at the end of the visit. The provider documents hypertension. Which of the following query opportunities is MOST appropriate?

Options:

A.

A more specific diagnosis, such as pre-eclampsia or eclampsia

B.

Whether the hypertension was pre-existing or developed during pregnancy

C.

Association of hypertension to smoking

D.

Hypertensive crisis - unspecified

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Questions 37

Which of the following physician performance metrics BEST illustrates provider engagement with outpatient CDI specialist?

Options:

A.

Query response rates and problem list updates

B.

Problem list updates and RAF capture rates

C.

Physician MIPS scores and query response rates

D.

Physician RAF scores and RAF capture rates

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Questions 38

E/M services must meet specific medical necessity criteria as defined by

Options:

A.

National Medical Specialty Societies.

B.

National Coverage Determinations and Local Coverage Determinations.

C.

American Medical Association and American Hospital Association.

D.

American Health Information Management Association.

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Questions 39

Which of the following is a key component that is used to calculate Relative Value Units (RVUs)?

Options:

A.

Time with the patient

B.

Physician specialty type

C.

Malpractice expense

D.

Medical decision making

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Questions 40

Which of the following diabetic complications requires the assignment of a combination code plus the code for the specific complication?

Options:

A.

Nephropathy

B.

Retinopathy

C.

Dermatitis

D.

Osteomyelitis

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Questions 41

What is the goal of an MSSP program?

Options:

A.

Optimize risk score

B.

Share in savings

C.

Improve transitions of care

D.

Increase fee schedule payment

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Questions 42

Which of the following is a strategy that is often used by ACOs to improve their performance in the Readmission Reduction program?

Options:

A.

Encourage providers to avoid reporting chronic conditions on subsequent admissions.

B.

Educate providers about the importance of capturing chronic conditions in documentation.

C.

Work with IT to increase the unspecified code choices in pick lists in the EHR.

D.

Flag qualifying patients upon arrival to ED to be placed in observation status vs. admission.

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Exam Code: CCDS-O
Exam Name: Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient (CCDS-O)
Last Update: Apr 5, 2026
Questions: 140
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