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IIA-CRMA-ADV Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

The chief audit executive (CAE) has assigned an internal auditor to an upcoming engagement. Which of the following requirements would most likely indicate that the internal auditor was assigned to an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The assigned internal auditor must determine the objectives, scope, and techniques of the engagement.

B.

The CAE must personally obtain the needed skills, knowledge, or other competencies if the internal auditor does not have them.

C.

The assigned internal auditor must not assume management responsibilities while performing the engagement.

D.

The assigned internal auditor must maintain objectivity while performing the engagement.

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Questions 5

An organization invests its savings in a volatile stock with the potential for high gains rather than a mutual fund with a lower expected return and lower volatility. This best describes which of the following risk concepts?

Options:

A.

Risk identification.

B.

Risk appetite.

C.

Risk capacity.

D.

Risk tolerance.

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Questions 6

Which of the following control methods is effective in reducing the risk of purchasing-scheme fraud?

1. Periodically reviewing the vendor list for unusual vendors and addresses.

2. Segregating duties for amount purchasing, receiving, shipping, and accounting.

3. Validating sequential integrity of purchase orders.

4. Verifying the validity of invoices with post office box addresses.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

3 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4 only

D.

1, 2, 3, and 4

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Questions 7

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding periodic internal assessments of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Internal assessments are conducted to benchmark the internal audit activity's performance against industry best practices.

B.

Internal assessments must be performed at least once every five years by a qualified assessor.

C.

An internal auditor may perform a peer review of a colleague's workpapers, as long as the auditor wasn't involved in the audit under review.

D.

Follow-up to ensure appropriate improvements are implemented is a recommended, but not mandatory, element of internal assessments.

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Questions 8

What is the primary benefit to the internal audit activity for undertaking an internal quality assessment?

Options:

A.

To help the internal audit activity complete its annual assurance plan.

B.

To identify inefficiencies within the internal audit team.

C.

To help improve the overall quality of the internal audit activity's work.

D.

To identify key risks and areas of concern within the organization.

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Questions 9

Which of the following is an example of collusion?

Options:

A.

An employee includes a faked receipt in his expense claim, and the claim is signed by the employee's manager.

B.

A vendor inflates the price of an item and remits a portion of the excess to the purchasing manager.

C.

A vendor sends a duplicate invoice with a new invoice number, and the accounts payable system fails to detect the duplication.

D.

An employee works with the IT manager to develop a program for identifying duplicate invoice payments.

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Questions 10

Which of the following is the most common way that occupational fraud is detected?

Options:

A.

Internal audits.

B.

Whistleblower hotline.

C.

Key controls.

D.

External audits.

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Questions 11

An assurance mapping exercise helps an organization do which of the following?

1. Provide assurance to stakeholders that risks are managed and reported, and regulatory and legal obligations are met.

2. Fulfill best practices in the industry.

3. Identify and address any gaps in the risk management process.

4. Identify fraud.

Options:

A.

1 and 4.

B.

1 and 3.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

3 and 4.

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Questions 12

The internal audit activity is planning a procurement audit and needs to obtain a thorough understanding of the subcontracting process, which can involve multiple individuals in multiple countries.

Which of the following internal audit tools would be most effective to document the process and the key controls?

Options:

A.

Internal control checklist.

B.

Procurement employee survey.

C.

Cross-functional flow chart.

D.

Segregation of duties matrix.

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Questions 13

Which of the following are components of the ISO 31000 risk management process?

1. Setting the context.

2. Risk treatment.

3. Risk avoidance.

4. Communication.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only.

B.

2 and 3.

C.

3 and 4.

D.

1,2, and 4.

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Questions 14

According to The MA Code of Ethics, which of the following is one of the rules of conduct for objectivity?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors shall continually improve their proficiency and effectiveness and quality of their services.

B.

Internal auditors shall respect and contribute to legitimate and ethical objectives of the organization.

C.

Internal auditors shall not accept anything that may impair or be presumed to impair their professional judgment.

D.

Internal auditors shall be prudent in the use and protection of information acquired in the course of their duties.

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Questions 15

Which of the following factors should be considered when determining the appropriate combination of manual techniques and computer-assisted audit techniques (CAATs) to be used during an audit?

1. Acceptance of CAATs findings by entity management.

2. Computer knowledge and expertise of the auditor.

3. Time constraints.

4. Level of audit risk.

Options:

A.

1 and 4

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

1, 2, and 3

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Questions 16

An internal auditor is using a spreadsheet application to review a cash flow forecast prepared by management.

Which of the following correctly identifies the type of evidence this information represents?

Options:

A.

Competent, corroborative evidence of future working capital requirements.

B.

Sufficient, analytical evidence of the cash flow position at a given point of time in the future.

C.

Competent, documentary evidence of future cash flow changes within the organization.

D.

Sufficient, circumstantial evidence of the future solvency of the organization.

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Questions 17

According to IIA guidance, which of the following practices by the chief audit executive (CAE) best enhances the organizational independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

CAE reviews and approves the annual audit plan.

B.

CAE meets privately with The CEO at least annually.

C.

CAE meets privately with The board at least annually.

D.

CAE reports to the board regarding audit staff performance evaluation and compensation.

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Questions 18

Which of the following factors have the greatest influence on the independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Quality assessments and cultural biases of the internal audit activity.

B.

Rotational assignments and familiarity of the internal audit activity.

C.

Employee incentives and self review of the internal audit activity.

D.

Organizational positioning and scope control of the internal audit activity.

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Questions 19

Non-statistical sampling does not require which of the following?

Options:

A.

The sample to be representative of the population.

B.

The sample to be selected haphazardly.

C.

A smaller sample size than if selected using statistical sampling.

D.

Projecting the results to the population.

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Questions 20

Which of the following is an example of a risk avoidance strategy?

Options:

A.

Hedging against exchange rate variations.

B.

Limiting access to an organization's data center.

C.

Selling a nonstrategic business unit.

D.

Outsourcing a high-risk activity.

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Questions 21

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the reporting of results from an external quality assessment of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The external assessment results are reported upon completion in confidence directly to the board, and senior management is advised only of the recommendations and improvement action plans.

B.

The results of self-assessments with independent external validation are shared with the board upon completion, and monitoring of recommended improvements must be reported monthly.

C.

The external assessment results are communicated upon completion to senior management and the board, but action plans for recommended improvements do not have to be reported.

D.

The requirements for reporting quality assessment results are the same for external assessments and self-assessments with independent external validation.

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Questions 22

Which of the following types of social responsibilities is voluntary and guided purely by the organization's desire to make social contributions?

Options:

A.

The bottom of the pyramid responsibility.

B.

Innovative responsibility.

C.

Ethical responsibility.

D.

Discretionary responsibility.

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Questions 23

Which of the following responsibilities would fall under the role of the chief audit executive, rather than internal audit staff or the audit manager?

Options:

A.

Manage and support a quality assurance and improvement program.

B.

Maintain industry-specific knowledge appropriate to the audit engagements

C.

Set clear performance standards for internal auditors and the internal audit activity.

D.

Apply problem-solving techniques for routine situations.

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Questions 24

In which of the following functions would fraud be most likely to occur?

Options:

A.

Maintaining custody of inventory records.

B.

Collecting payments on accounts.

C.

Approving changes to employee records.

D.

Preparing customer statements.

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Questions 25

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements describes one of the similarities between assurance and consulting services?

Options:

A.

When planning assurance and consulting engagements, internal auditors must consider the strategies and objectives of the activity being reviewed.

B.

Internal auditors determine the engagement objectives, scope, and work program for both assurance and consulting services.

C.

Internal auditors must not provide assurance or consulting services for an activity for which they had responsibility within the previous year.

D.

Both assurance and consulting services generally involve the internal auditor, the area under review, senior management, and the board.

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Questions 26

An auditor in charge was reviewing the workpapers submitted by a newly hired internal auditor. She noted that the new auditor's analytical work did not include any rating or quantification of the risk assessment results, and she returned the workpapers for correction. Which section of the workpapers will the new auditor need to modify?

Options:

A.

Condition section.

B.

Criteria section.

C.

Effect section.

D.

Cause section.

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Questions 27

A former line supervisor from the Financial Services Department has completed six months of a two-year development opportunity with the internal audit activity (IAA). She is assigned to a team that will audit the organization's payroll function, which is managed by the Human Resources Department. Which of the following statements is most relevant regarding her independence and objectivity with respect to the payroll audit?

Options:

A.

She may participate, but only after she has completed one year with the IAA.

B.

She may participate, because she did not previously work in the Human Resources Department.

C.

She may participate, but she must be supervised by the auditor in charge.

D.

She may participate for training purposes, to build her knowledge of the IAA.

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Questions 28

An internal auditor is reviewing the accounts receivable when she discovers account balances more than three years old. The auditor was previously supervising the area during this time, and she subsequently advises the chief audit executive (CAE) of a potential conflict.

Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Replace the auditor with another audit staff member.

B.

Continue with the present auditor, as more than one year has passed.

C.

Withdraw the audit team and outsource the financial audit of the division.

D.

Work with the division's management to resolve the situation.

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Questions 29

Which of the following would be the most appropriate first step for the board to take when developing an effective system of governance?

Options:

A.

Determine the organization's overall risk appetite.

B.

Establish a governance committee.

C.

Delegate authority to members of senior management.

D.

Identify key stakeholders and their expectations.

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Questions 30

Which of the following best demonstrates the authority of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Suggesting alternatives to decision makers.

B.

Improving the integrity of information.

C.

Determining the scope of internal audit services.

D.

Achieving engagement objectives.

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Questions 31

According to the COSO enterprise risk management framework, which of the following best describes the activity that helps ensure risk responses are carried out effectively?

Options:

A.

Objective setting.

B.

Control activities.

C.

Information and communication.

D.

Event identification.

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Questions 32

Which of the following types of fraud includes embezzlement?

Options:

A.

Fraudulent statements.

B.

Bribery.

C.

Misappropriation of assets.

D.

Corruption.

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Questions 33

According to IIA guidance, which of the following must the internal auditor consider to meet the requirements for due professional care?

Options:

A.

The training courses necessary to enhance the internal auditor's knowledge, skills, and other competencies.

B.

The appropriateness of assurance procedures necessary to ensure all significant risks will be identified.

C.

The use of innovative technology and data analysis techniques.

D.

The extent of work needed to achieve the engagement’s objectives.

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Questions 34

Which of the following activities is most likely to require a fraud specialist to supplement the knowledge and skills of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Planning an engagement of the area in which fraud is suspected.

B.

Employing audit tests to detect fraud.

C.

Interrogating a suspected fraudster.

D.

Completing a process review to improve controls to prevent fraud.

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Questions 35

According to the International Professional Practices Framework, which of the following are allowable activities for an internal auditor?

1. Advocating the establishment of a risk management function.

2. Identifying and evaluating significant risk exposures during audit engagements.

3. Developing a risk response for the organization if there is no chief risk officer.

4. Benchmarking risk management activities with other organizations.

5. Documenting risk mitigation strategies and techniques.

Options:

A.

4 and 5 only.

B.

1.2, and 3 only.

C.

1.2. 4. and 5 only.

D.

2. 3. 4. and 5 only.

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Questions 36

Which of the following is the primary engagement responsibility of an entry-level internal auditor?

Options:

A.

Leadership.

B.

Documentation.

C.

Analysis.

D.

Reporting.

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Questions 37

While performing an accounts payable engagement, a senior auditor wants to conduct several tests of controls for travel expenses. Which of the following actions are most appropriate for the senior auditor to undertake?

1. Ensure all tests use a random sampling technique.

2. Consider a judgmental approach for the sample size.

3. Assess testing errors through root cause analysis.

4. Ensure that the entire data set is tested.

Options:

A.

1 and 2.

B.

1 and 3.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

2 and 4.

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Questions 38

According to IIA guidance, which of the following describes the primary reason to implement environmental and social safeguards within an organization?

Options:

A.

To enable Triple Bottom Line reporting capability.

B.

To facilitate the conduct of risk assessment.

C.

To achieve and maintain sustainable development.

D.

To fulfill regulatory and compliance requirements.

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Questions 39

Which segregation of duties would best reduce the risk of payroll fraud?

Options:

A.

Human resources personnel add employees, and payroll personnel process hours and enter employee bank account numbers. Paychecks are automatically deposited in the employee's bank account.

B.

Human resources personnel add employees, payroll personnel process hours, and human resources personnel deliver paychecks to employees.

C.

Human resources personnel add employees, review and submit payroll hours to the payroll department for processing, and deliver paychecks to employees.

D.

Human resources personnel add employees and enter employee bank information. Payroll personnel process hours, and paychecks are automatically deposited in the employee's bank account.

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Questions 40

Which of the following behaviors could represent a significant ethical risk if exhibited by an organization's board?

Options:

A.

Requesting a private meeting with senior management, without the presence of the chief audit executive.

B.

Intervening during an audit involving ethical wrongdoing.

C.

Discussing periodic reports of ethical breaches.

D.

Authorizing an investigation of an unsafe product.

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Questions 41

An internal auditor wants to sample data to test an audit theory in a cost-effective way. Which of the following sampling strategies should she use?

Options:

A.

Statistical sampling only

B.

Nonstatistical sampling only

C.

A combination of both statistical and nonstatistical sampling.

D.

Neither approach to testing the audit theory would be cost effective.

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Questions 42

The management at a national consumer goods organization implements a fair work and pay practice as well as a policy to treat employees equitably and consistently. Which common characteristics of fraud will the practice and policy most likely reduce?

Options:

A.

Pressure or incentive.

B.

Opportunity.

C.

Rationalization.

D.

Commitment.

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Questions 43

Why is a code of ethics for the internal audit profession necessary?

Options:

A.

It ensures that all members of the profession possess the same level of competence.

B.

It provides auditors with protection from lawsuits.

C.

It guides internal auditors in their service to others.

D.

It requires auditors to exhibit loyalty to their organizations.

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Questions 44

Which of the following would be considered a preventive control?

Options:

A.

A library control log.

B.

A review of exception reports.

C.

A password lock on a server.

D.

A software scan of financial records for irregularities.

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Questions 45

An organization has implemented a new automated payroll system that contains a table of pay rates that are matched to employee job classifications. Which control should an internal auditor suggest in order to ensure that the table is updated correctly, and is used only for valid pay changes?

Options:

A.

Restrict data-table access from management and line supervisors who have the authority to determine pay rates.

B.

Require a supervisor in the department, who has the ability to change the table, to compare the changes to a signed management authorization.

C.

Ensure that adequate edit and reasonableness checks are built into the automated system.

D.

Require a manager, who is independent of the system and who cannot change the table, to authorize and sign-off on any employee pay changes.

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Questions 46

During the course of an audit, an internal auditor discovers that a valuable employee in the research department has been patenting new developments in the employee's name that are unrelated to the basic business of the organization.

The organization does not have a policy addressing this specific issue, but does have a general policy that all important new discoveries by employees are the property of the organization.

Division management views the employee's actions as extra incentive to retain the employee.

A decision to include the employee's action in the engagement final communication would be:

1. A violation of the IIA Code of Ethics.

2. A violation of the reporting requirements in the Standards.

3. Justified and necessary, according to the IIA Code of Ethics and Standards.

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

2 only

C.

3 only

D.

1 and 2 only

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Questions 47

An accounts receivable clerk receives cash payments, posts the payments to customer accounts, and prepares the daily cash deposit.

The clerk has been stealing some cash and manipulating the customer payments to hide the theft.

This fraud could be detected with which of the following controls?

Options:

A.

Monthly bank reconciliations are performed by the clerk on a timely basis.

B.

Total cash deposits for the month are reconciled to the cash receipts journal.

C.

Names, amounts, and dates on remittance advices are reconciled with the names, amounts, and dates recorded in the cash receipts journal.

D.

Total cash deposits are compared with the bank reconciliation.

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Questions 48

Which of the following is an example of a transaction-level control?

Options:

A.

Human resource policies.

B.

Tone at the top.

C.

Reconciliations of primary accounts.

D.

Inventory counts.

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Questions 49

Which of the following actions does not violate the IIA Code of Ethics or Standards?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor performing an audit on an operation that they managed less than a year ago.

B.

An internal auditor performing an audit on procedures that they were responsible for creating.

C.

An internal auditor disclosing details of an audit report to colleagues from a different organization.

D.

An internal auditor disclosing confidential information in response to a lawsuit.

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Questions 50

Which the following activities should be performed by the internal audit activity to facilitate an effective relationship with the audit committee?

1. Periodically report about the accounting standards followed by the organization.

2. Provide assurance to the audit committee that its charter, activities, and processes are appropriate.

3. Ensure that the role and activities of the internal audit activity are clearly understood and responsive to the needs of the audit committee.

4. Maintain open and effective communications with the audit committee.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

3 and 4 only

C.

1, 3, and 4 only

D.

2, 3, and 4 only

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Questions 51

Management of a publicly-held organization requires the internal audit activity to be involved with quarterly financial statements, which are made public and used internally. Which of the following explanations of management's decision is least plausible?

Options:

A.

Management may be concerned about its reputation in the financial markets.

B.

Management is following best-practice protocol, as stipulated by the Standards, which states that internal auditors must review quarterly financial statements.

C.

Management may be concerned about potential penalties that could occur if quarterly financial statements are misstated.

D.

Management may perceive that having quarterly financial information examined by the internal auditors enhances the information's value to internal decision making.

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Questions 52

Which of the following is a second line of defense in effective risk management and control?

Options:

A.

Purchasing department.

B.

Compliance department.

C.

Credit department.

D.

Internal audit department.

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Questions 53

The internal audit supervisor is reviewing the workpapers prepared by the staff. According to the Standards, which of the following statements regarding workpaper supervision is not true?

Options:

A.

Review notes of questions that arise during the review process must be retained.

B.

Dating and initialing each workpaper provides evidence of review.

C.

Workpaper review allows for staff training and development.

D.

Workpapers may be amended during the review process.

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Questions 54

An internal audit activity (IAA) provided assurance services for an activity it was responsible for during the preceding year.

As a result, which IIA Code of Ethics principle is presumed to be impaired?

Options:

A.

Competence.

B.

Flexibility.

C.

Objectivity.

D.

Independence.

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Questions 55

The audit committee is concerned that the small size of the internal audit activity (IAA) makes it impractical to achieve full conformance with the Standards. To address this concern, which of the following actions is most appropriate for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

The CAE should agree with the audit committee and implement only those standards appropriate to the size of the IAA.

B.

The CAE should request the audit committee to review the Standards to identify specifically which are creating the greatest concern.

C.

The CAE should seek sufficient funding to increase audit resources to meet the minimum requirements of the Standards.

D.

The CAE should explain that conformance with the Standards is essential and not dependent upon the size of the IAA.

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Questions 56

Which of the following scenarios would represent the greatest threat to the authority of the internal audit activity (IAA)?

Options:

A.

A change was implemented requiring the IAA to report administratively to the organization's chief legal counsel rather than the board.

B.

Responsibility for risk management processes were removed from the IAA and placed under a newly created chief risk officer.

C.

The IAA was denied access to expenditure and budget requirement reports because the reports were considered to be financial administrative matters.

D.

An internal auditor was informed by the chief financial officer that client survey results would be unfavorable unless the auditor changed a finding in the report.

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Questions 57

Which of the following would provide the best guidance to a chief audit executive who is setting internal audit staff requirements?

Options:

A.

A review of audit staff education and training records.

B.

Information about the audit staff size and composition of comparable organizations.

C.

Results from discussions of audit needs with executive management and the audit committee.

D.

The results of the audit staff's most recent performance reviews.

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Questions 58

When conducting an interview, an internal auditor is most likely to ask open-ended questions in order to:

Options:

A.

Obtain specific answers and maximize efficiency.

B.

Gather factual data on several different topics.

C.

Determine agreement or disagreement with a stated viewpoint.

D.

Obtain information based on the person's own perspective.

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Questions 59

Which of the following activities best reflects the scope and status of the internal audit activity as defined in the internal audit policy statement?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor reviews the physical access to merchandise during an inventory count.

B.

The audit manager conducts an internal quality assessment of the internal audit activity’s adherence to the Standards.

C.

The audit manager refrains from assigning an auditor who was a former payroll clerk to conduct a payroll audit.

D.

The board approves the annual performance evaluation of the chief audit executive.

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Questions 60

While reviewing the workpapers of a new auditor, the auditor in charge discovered that additional audit procedures might be necessary. According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be most relevant for the auditor in charge to consider when making this decision?

Options:

A.

Resource management.

B.

Coordination.

C.

Due professional care.

D.

Engagement supervision.

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Questions 61

Which of the following is a preventive control?

Options:

A.

Creating an audit trail.

B.

Placing controls on physical access to inventory.

C.

Reconciling purchase orders with approvals.

D.

Reviewing expense accounts for irregularities.

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Questions 62

Which of the following is not a standard technique that the chief audit executive (CAE) would use to provide evidence of supervisory review of working papers?

Options:

A.

The CAE initials and dates every working paper after it has been reviewed.

B.

The CAE completes an engagement working paper checklist.

C.

The CAE prepares a memorandum discussing the results of the working paper review.

D.

The CAE utilizes an external third party to make an objective recommendation after each working paper review.

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Questions 63

Why is it important for the chief audit executive to periodically review the audit charter and present the results to senior management and the board?

Options:

A.

Because management requires the review to measure effectiveness of the internal audit activity.

B.

So that the individual objectivity of the internal audit staff can be more clearly established.

C.

So that there is assurance of the internal audit staff's proficiency to complete audit activities.

D.

Because changes in the organization may impair the internal audit activity's ability to meet its objectives.

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Questions 64

Management has asked the chief audit executive (CAE) to provide assurance on the organization's automated control system related to financial data. The current audit staff does not have the expertise needed to conduct this type of engagement. Which of the following would be the best response by the CAE?

Options:

A.

Accept the assignment and use control self-assessment to complete the project.

B.

Do not accept the assignment because the internal audit activity lacks the competency to perform the engagement with due professional care.

C.

Accept the assignment and use an external provider with the necessary knowledge and skills to perform the engagement.

D.

Accept the assignment if the engagement is included in the current audit plan, but inform senior management that the current audit staff does not have the knowledge and skills required.

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Questions 65

Which of the following audit procedures would provide the most relevant information to identify discrepancies between budgeted versus actual raw material consumption in a production facility?

Options:

A.

Analytical review.

B.

Inquiry.

C.

Document verification.

D.

Observation.

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Questions 66

An internal auditor notes that employees are able to download files from the internet. According to IIA guidance, which of the following strategies would best protect the organization from the risk of copyright infringement and licensing violations resulting from this practice?

Options:

A.

Apply antivirus and patch management software.

B.

Utilize dedicated and encrypted network connections.

C.

Install a software inventory management application.

D.

Utilize secure socket layer encryption.

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Questions 67

According to the Standards, which of the following best describes why initial audit test results should be reported to the auditor-in-charge prior to advising management?

Options:

A.

It increases the likelihood of obtaining the audit client's agreement with the results.

B.

It ensures that an appropriate chain of evidence is maintained through the workpapers.

C.

It helps ensure that appropriate professional judgments and conclusions are made.

D.

It is required to demonstrate that effective engagement supervision has occurred.

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Questions 68

Which of the following controls is not appropriate for sales in a manufacturing organization?

Options:

A.

Customers' orders are recorded promptly.

B.

Goods shipped are matched with valid customer orders.

C.

Goods returned are inspected for damage by the receiving department for proper disposition.

D.

Sales department approval is required for credit sales transactions.

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Questions 69

An internal audit manager of a furniture manufacturing organization is planning an audit of the procurement process for kiln-dried wood. The procurement department maintains six procurement officers to manage 24 different suppliers used by the organization.

Which of the following controls would best mitigate the risk of employees receiving kickbacks from suppliers?

Options:

A.

The periodic rotation of procurement officers' assignments to supplier accounts.

B.

A pre-award financial capacity analysis of suppliers.

C.

An automated computer report, organized by supplier, of any invoices for the same amount.

D.

Periodic inventories of kiln-dried wood at the organization's warehouse.

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Questions 70

An organization's chief audit executive (CAE) determines that the internal audit staff does not have the requisite skills to conduct an audit of the financial derivatives area. Which of the following would be the best course of action for the CAE to follow?

Options:

A.

Outsource the audit engagement to a qualified external auditing firm without burdening the audit committee with the decision.

B.

Determine the requisite knowledge needed, and obtain the proper training for auditors, even if the training will significantly push back the project's timeframe as outlined by the audit committee.

C.

Notify the audit committee of the problem, and assign the most competent auditors on staff to perform the audit engagement.

D.

Employ the skills of a financial derivatives expert to consult on the project, and supplement the consulting with a local seminar on financial derivatives.

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Questions 71

Which of the following is not one of the 10 core competencies identified in the IIA Competency Framework?

Options:

A.

Governance, risk, and control.

B.

Performance management.

C.

Business acumen.

D.

Internal audit delivery.

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Questions 72

Which of the following actions indicates a lack of due professional care by an internal auditor performing an audit of a store's cash function?

Options:

A.

The audit report included a well-supported recommendation for a reduction in staff even though such a reduction might adversely impact morale.

B.

The auditor tested samples of transactions to test the cash function's process flows.

C.

After determining that the cash function internal controls were strong, the audit report assured senior management that fraud was not present.

D.

The auditor discovered an instance of potential fraud and reported it immediately to management, but did not alert authorities outside the organization.

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Questions 73

Which of the following would most likely be considered a red flag for fraud?

Options:

A.

An organization lacks a whistleblower hotline for reporting suspicious activity.

B.

A senior manager has been delegating the authority to sign-off on small dollar amount purchases to a subordinate.

C.

An employee in charge of payroll disbursements has rotated these duties with several colleagues.

D.

An employee with significant personal debt is in charge of handling large wire transfers for the organization.

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Questions 74

The results of an internal audit activity's (IAA) quality assurance and improvement program are favorable and an external assessment was completed within the last five years. Which of the following statements may the IAA use to describe its work?

Options:

A.

"Completed with the advance certification of the External Assessors Association for Auditing Review."

B.

"Conforms with the International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing."

C.

"Certified 100% accuracy, per the International Standards of External Assessment."

D.

"Compliant with all domestic and international legal statutes, and certified quality assured for ten years."

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Questions 75

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the best example of a system application control?

Options:

A.

A physical security control over a data center.

B.

A system development life cycle control.

C.

A program change management control.

D.

An input control over data integrity.

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Questions 76

An internal audit charter describes the mission and scope of the internal audit activity (IAA), responsibilities of the IAA, accountability of the chief audit executive, independence of the IAA, and standards followed by the IAA. Which of the following also should be included in the charter?

Options:

A.

The purpose of the IAA.

B.

The IAA's right to have unrestricted access to functions, records, personnel, and physical property.

C.

A detailed audit plan or program for the year.

D.

The job specifications and descriptions of the internal audit staff.

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Questions 77

A chief audit executive (CAE) learns that the brother-in-law of a senior auditor who audits the procurement process was hired as the head of the procurement department six months prior. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

The CAE should not interfere because there is no evidence that a conflict of interest has occurred.

B.

The CAE should remind the senior auditor of his obligation to be objective and impartial.

C.

The CAE should change the senior auditor's assignment and take corrective action for the auditor's failure to disclose the conflict of interest.

D.

The CAE should require the senior auditor to disclose the relationship in writing before continuing his responsibility for monitoring procurement.

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Questions 78

What is the primary purpose of a fishbone diagram?

Options:

A.

To depict the areas of responsibility for departments in an organization.

B.

To plan and control complex projects, such as internal audits.

C.

To represent the frequencies of adverse conditions in a given process.

D.

To identify the possible causes of adverse conditions.

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Questions 79

A chief audit executive (CAE) of an international charity reports functionally to the audit committee of the board of directors and administratively to the charity's chief financial officer (CFO).

Which of the following would impair the internal audit function's independence?

Options:

A.

The CFO determines the scope of internal audit work in the accounting department.

B.

The CFO manages the accounting of the budget for the internal audit function.

C.

The CFO administers the annual evaluation process for the internal auditors.

D.

The CFO provides feedback on the CAE's audit reports.

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Questions 80

Which of the following is not a role of the internal audit activity in facilitating risk identification and evaluation?

Options:

A.

Evaluating risk management processes.

B.

Recommending accountability for risk management.

C.

Providing assurance that risks are evaluated correctly.

D.

Supporting managers to identify ways to mitigate risks.

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Questions 81

Which of the following are components of the COSO enterprise risk management framework?

1. Objective setting.

2. External environment.

3. Data collection.

4. Control activities.

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

2 and 4 only

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Questions 82

A government agency's policy states that board members' travel and hospitality expenses must be audited annually. Which of following people or groups is most appropriate to perform this audit?

Options:

A.

The government's independent auditor.

B.

The external auditors from an accounting firm.

C.

The internal audit activity.

D.

The agency's chief compliance officer.

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Questions 83

Which of the following does not need to be defined in the internal audit charter?

Options:

A.

The audit engagements to be performed during the upcoming year.

B.

The internal audit activity's position within the organization.

C.

The scope of internal audit activities.

D.

Management and the board of directors' agreement regarding the roles and responsibilities of the internal audit activity.

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Questions 84

An internal auditor is reviewing employee travel data to identify opportunities to cut costs while ensuring adequate participation at conferences to support the organization's mission. Which of the following pieces of evidence would be sufficient for completing this task?

Options:

A.

A log from the last year that includes dates of travel, conference titles, and conference objectives, all of which correspond with employee names and costs per trip.

B.

A log that includes titles of conferences that all employees were invited to attend in the last year, along with the dates of those conferences and average costs per traveler.

C.

A log of conferences titles, dates of travel for each employee, and a detailed summary of conference objectives and how they relate to the organization's mission needs.

D.

A log of employee travel requests, which include the title of each conference, the conference objectives, anticipated dates of travel, and estimated costs.

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Exam Code: IIA-CRMA-ADV
Exam Name: Certification in Risk Management Assurance
Last Update: Apr 14, 2026
Questions: 283
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