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PMI-002 Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

A project is considered successful when _______________.

Options:

A.

The project meets or exceeds the expectations of the stakeholders

B.

The product of the project has been manufactured

C.

The project sponsor announces the completion of the project

D.

None of the above

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Questions 5

Which of the following can generate a milestone list?

Options:

A.

Define Activities

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Estimate Activity Durations

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Questions 6

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding various Activity Scheduling tools?

Options:

A.

PDM allows for conditional branching and iteration of activities.

B.

PDM uses activity-on-node (AON) diagramming method.

C.

PDM allows for conditional branching and iteration of activities.

D.

PDM uses analogous methods as an estimation technique.

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Questions 7

Which of the following statements is false?

Options:

A.

Uncertainty and risk are greatest at the start of the project and lowest at the end.

B.

The amount at stake Is lowest at the end of the project and greatest at the start.

C.

Expected monetary value can be expressed as the product of the risk event probability and the risk event value.

D.

Opportunities are positive outcome of risks.

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Questions 8

Which of the following activities is not part of Plan Risk Management?

Options:

A.

Updating risk register

B.

Determining risk roles and responsibilities

C.

Identifying risk categories

D.

Developing a risk management plan

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Questions 9

Based on the PMBOK, who is ultimately responsible for the project quality?

Options:

A.

Project team

B.

Project manager

C.

QA manager

D.

Validation engineer

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Questions 10

You are project manger of an existing project. You have been with your company for several years but not in the area where this project is occurring. A Project Management Plan is in place. The project has not exceeded many baseline change thresholds. The customer is not happy with the status of the project. Which of the following is the BEST initial action?

Options:

A.

Prepare a corrective action plan

B.

Conduct team-building with all stakeholders

C.

Verify the customer's needs and expectations

D.

None

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Questions 11

Key Management skills include:

Options:

A.

Leading

B.

Communicating

C.

Negotiating

D.

All of the above

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Questions 12

The Critical Path Method of scheduling is:

Options:

A.

A mathematical analysis technique for Develop Schedule

B.

A technique that uses weighted averages to calculate project duration

C.

A technique that uses sequential network logic for schedule

D.

A technique that allows for probabilistic treatment of both network logic and activity duration estimates

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Questions 13

Which of the following statements concerning acceptance sampling is false?

Options:

A.

Used when expensive and time-consuming to test the product 100%.

B.

The number of allowable defects before lot is rejected is predetermined.

C.

Inspection and test standards must be established to ensure that procedures can adequately determine conformance and non-conformance.

D.

All of the above are true.

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Questions 14

Percent complete is calculated by ___________.

Options:

A.

ACWP/BAC

B.

BCWP-ACWP

C.

BCWP/BAC

D.

EAC/BAC

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Questions 15

Which of the following best describes a sub network?

Options:

A.

Fragment Network

B.

ADM

C.

PDM

D.

A0N

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Questions 16

Which of the following is not true about change requests?

Options:

A.

They always require additional funding.

B.

They happen while the project work is being done.

C.

They can be written or verbal.

D.

They can be requested by a stakeholder.

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Questions 17

Which of the following must be measured regularly to identify variances from the plan.

Options:

A.

Stakeholder requirements

B.

Project performance

C.

Control Schedule

D.

Project controls

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Questions 18

Project Managers have maximum authority in which type of organization?

Options:

A.

Weak Matrix organization

B.

Strong Matrix

C.

Balanced Matrix organization

D.

None

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Questions 19

In which type of organization the team building is likely to be most difficult?

Options:

A.

Functional

B.

Projectized

C.

Matrix

D.

Project Expediter

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Questions 20

Complete final contract performance reporting and verify product is done in _______.

Options:

A.

Plan Procurements

B.

Conduct Procurements

C.

Administer Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

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Questions 21

If a project has an 80% chance of having the scope defined by a certain date and a 70% chance of obtaining approval for the scope by a certain date, what is the probability of both events occurring?

Options:

A.

75%

B.

65%

C.

50%

D.

56%

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Questions 22

Estimated at Completion is determined by which of the following?

Options:

A.

ETC + ACWP

B.

BAC"ETC

C.

BAC/CPI

D.

Both A and c

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Questions 23

Completion of the _____________ scope is measured against the project management plan.

Options:

A.

Project

B.

Technical

C.

Product

D.

Baseline

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Questions 24

Which of the following is NOT a tool or technique used during the Perform quantitative risk analysis Process?

Options:

A.

Expected Monetary Value Analysis

B.

Risk Categorization

C.

Interviewing

D.

Sensitivity Analysis

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Questions 25

The ability of a product to be used for different purposes at different capacities and under different conditions determines its __________.

Options:

A.

Usability

B.

Flexibility

C.

Operability

D.

Availability

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Questions 26

Team motivation, problem resolution, and space verification occur during which process?

Options:

A.

Initiation

B.

Planning

C.

Execution

D.

Close

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Questions 27

Which of the following are examples of indirect costs?

Options:

A.

Salaries of corporate executives

B.

Salaries of full-time project staff

C.

Overhead costs

D.

Both a and c

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Questions 28

You are the controller on your project. Your project manager has requested that you provide him with a forecast of project costs for the next 12 months. He needs this information to determine if the budget should be increased or decreased on this major construction project. In addition to the usual information sources, which of the following should you also consider?

Options:

A.

Cost estimates from similar projects

B.

The WBS

C.

Long-range weather forecasts

D.

Existing change requests

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Questions 29

All of the following aid in achieving consensus EXCEPT __________.

Options:

A.

Maintaining a focus on the problem, not each other

B.

Avoiding conflict

C.

Seeking facts

D.

Avoiding voting, trading, or averaging

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Questions 30

To shorten project duration, resources have been added to tasks on the critical path. The plan should then be reviewed for the __________.

Options:

A.

Lagging time on other paths

B.

Emergence of a new critical path

C.

Resource assigned to other tasks on the critical path

D.

Longest task remaining in the plan

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Questions 31

80% of the problems are found in 20% of the work is a concept of ___________.

Options:

A.

Edward Deming

B.

PhiliP Crosby

C.

Juran

D.

Pareto

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Questions 32

During the execution phase, a resource is added to the project team. What effect will this have on the project?

Options:

A.

The effect cannot be determined

B.

The project duration will be shortened

C.

A scope change will be required

D.

The quality of the project will be increased

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Questions 33

Communication is the PRIME responsibility of a Project ___________.

Options:

A.

Manager in a weak matrix

B.

Manager in a projectized environment

C.

Coordinator

D.

Expeditor

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Questions 34

Legitimate power is __________.

Options:

A.

Power derived from a person's formal position in the organization.

B.

Power bestowed due to a person's personal qualities and abilities.

C.

Power earned based on a person's technical knowledge, skill, or expertise in a particular area.

D.

Power to distribute information as one sees fit.

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Questions 35

Which of the following is not considered a cost of non-conformance to quality?

Options:

A.

Scrap

B.

Rework

C.

Expediting

D.

Process control

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Questions 36

Which of the following are not functions of the project kick off meeting?

Options:

A.

Identifying project goals

B.

Obtaining commitment

C.

Presenting the project cost

D.

Introducing the stakeholders

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Questions 37

The seller delivers a fixed price plus incentive fee project at a cost of $90,000. The terms of the contract are a ceiling price of $120,000, a target cost of $ 100,000, a target profit of $10,000, and a target price of $110,000. The share ratio is 70/30. The final price (your total reimbursement) is _________.

Options:

A.

$93,000

B.

$96,000

C.

$97,000

D.

None of the above

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Questions 38

Who is responsible for the creation of the final project plan?

Options:

A.

Project Manager

B.

Team Leader

C.

Sponsor

D.

Project Team

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Questions 39

How much time does a typical project manager spend communicating both formally and informally?

Options:

A.

40-60%

B.

50-70%

C.

60-80%

D.

75-90%

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Questions 40

Which of the following subsidiary plan contains the quality objectives for the project?

Options:

A.

Quality baseline

B.

Quality management plan

C.

Process improvement plan

D.

QA checklist

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Questions 41

Which of the following plans is not done during the writing of a project plan?

Options:

A.

Executive Communication

B.

Risk Management

C.

Quality Management

D.

Scope Statement

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Questions 42

______________ provides details about how the project scope may be changed.

Options:

A.

Control Scope system

B.

VeiirV Scope

C.

Scope Charter

D.

Scope Management plan

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Questions 43

A unilateral contract under which the seller is paid a preset amount per unit of service is called _________.

Options:

A.

A cost reimbursable contract

B.

A lumP sum contract

C.

A unit price contract

D.

A fixed price contract

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Questions 44

A leadership style in which the project manager shares problems with team members and formulates solutions as a group is called _________.

Options:

A.

Autocratic

B.

Consultation In a group

C.

Consensus

D.

One-to-one consultation

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Questions 45

Which process is not included in the Project Time Management process?

Options:

A.

Define Activities

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Develop Schedule and Control Schedule

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

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Questions 46

If a project with a CPI of 1.6, what you tell?

Options:

A.

The project is consuming fewer resources than anticipated

B.

The project is using fewer resources than anticipated.

C.

The project is falling behind.

D.

The project is running ahead of schedule.

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Questions 47

Project just went into inclusion mode. This means that project __________.

Options:

A.

Has become part of the business processes

B.

Has been accepted by the sponsor and the client

C.

Will be closed due to lack of resources

D.

None of the above

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Questions 48

The buyer and seller are bound by the ________.

Options:

A.

Contract

B.

Responsibilities

C.

WBS

D.

Identification

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Questions 49

An activity that consumes no time or resource and shows only that a dependency exists between two activities is called:

Options:

A.

A milestone

B.

A hammock

C.

A dummy activity

D.

a and c

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Questions 50

Which of the following is NOT considered a cost of non-conformance to quality?

Options:

A.

Scrap

B.

Rework

C.

Liabilities

D.

Training

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Questions 51

Knowledge of best practices in a particular area is most likely to give rise to which of the following dependencies:

Options:

A.

Finish-to-Start dependency

B.

External dependency

C.

Mandatory dependency

D.

Soft Logic

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Questions 52

If you are a project manager and a change request has been denied, you should:

Options:

A.

Record it and save it.

B.

Pass on to the project team.

C.

Forget it

D.

None

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Questions 53

Legitimate power is ____________.

Options:

A.

Power derived from a person's formal position in the organization

B.

Power bestowed due to a person's personal qualities and abilities

C.

Power earned based on a person's technical knowledge, skill, or expertise in a particular area

D.

Power to distribute information as one sees fit

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Questions 54

The major project scope management processes include:

Options:

A.

Change order control

B.

Initiation

C.

Program evaluation

D.

Scope validation

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Questions 55

Which of the following is a method for quantifying qualitative data in order to minimize the effect of personal prejudice on source selection?

Options:

A.

Weighting System

B.

Screening System

C.

Selecting System

D.

None of the above

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Questions 56

A tool that analyzes the inputs to a process to identify the causes of errors is called ______________________.

Options:

A.

Cause and effect diagram

B.

Fishbone diagram

C.

Ishikawa diagram

D.

All of the above

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Questions 57

All of the following are outputs from Report Performance EXCEPT _________.

Options:

A.

Trend analysis

B.

"S" curves, histograms, bar charts, and tables

C.

Performance reports

D.

Change requests

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Questions 58

What is the purpose of the WBS?

Options:

A.

To show which work elements have been assigned to organizational units.

B.

To ensure that all work within a project is identified and defined within a common framework.

C.

To show the organizational structure of a program.

D.

all of the above

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Questions 59

The closing process scope includes:

Options:

A.

Contract closeout

B.

Final reporting

C.

Activity List

D.

Exit interview

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Questions 60

In an optimal organization structure, the project manager is:

Options:

A.

Functional

B.

Weak matrix

C.

Piojectized

D.

Dedicated project team

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Questions 61

Which of the following is NOT an output of the Control Schedule:

Options:

A.

Schedule updates

B.

Revisions

C.

Corrective action

D.

Lessons learned

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Questions 62

Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of chances of ________ which will adversely affect project objectives.

Options:

A.

Likely events

B.

Complex activities

C.

Complex schedules

D.

Uncertain occurrences

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Questions 63

All of the following are outputs from Report Performance EXCEPT _________.

Options:

A.

Trend analysis

B.

"S" curves, histograms, bar charts, and tables

C.

Performance reports

D.

Change requests

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Questions 64

Which of the following are inputs of Develop Project Charter process?

Options:

A.

Project statement of work, Contract, Business case and organizational process assets

B.

Project SOW, project selection methods, and enterprise environmental factors

C.

Contract, project selection methods, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets

D.

Contract, project SOW, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets

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Questions 65

A cost management plan is ____________.

Options:

A.

A Plan for describing how cost variances will be managed

B.

A subsidiary element of the project charter

C.

An input to the Estimate Costs process

D.

Al1 of the above

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Questions 66

The practice of ceasing mass inspections and ending awards based on price is credited to _____________.

Options:

A.

Edward Deming

B.

PhiliP Crosby

C.

Juran

D.

Pareto

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Questions 67

Tools and techniques used during the Plan Quality process include ___________.

Options:

A.

Benefit/Cost analysis

B.

Benchmarking

C.

Quality Audits

D.

Both A and B

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Questions 68

A technique for resolving conflict in which the parties agree to have a neutral third party hear the dispute and make a decision is called ____________.

Options:

A.

Negotiation

B.

Arbitration

C.

Smoothing

D.

Forcing

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Questions 69

Which of the following is not a process of project human resource management?

Options:

A.

Organizational Planning

B.

staff Acquisition

C.

Distribute Information

D.

Team Development

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Questions 70

Employees in a balanced matrix often report to ______________.

Options:

A.

Two or more managers

B.

One manager

C.

Only functional manager

D.

None

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Questions 71

Group brainstorming encourages all of the following except _________.

Options:

A.

Team building

B.

Analysis of alternatives

C.

Convergent thinking

D) Q Uninhibited verbalization

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Questions 72

All of the following aid in achieving consensus EXCEPT _________.

Options:

A.

Maintaining a focus on the problem, not each other

B.

Avoiding conflict

C.

Seeking facts

D.

Avoiding voting, trading, or averaging

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Questions 73

Which of the following is not an input into organizational planning?

Options:

A.

Recruitment practices

B.

Project interfaces

C.

Staffing requirements

D.

Constraints

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Questions 74

Which of the following technique to identify the underlying cause of a problem and take steps to prevent further occurrence?

Options:

A.

Root cause analysis

B.

Quality audits

C.

Project audits

D.

Risk audits

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Questions 75

Most schedule simulations are based on some form of which of the following?

Options:

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Questions 76

You are creating your WBS and keep decomposing tasks into smaller units. How can you tell when you are done?

Options:

A.

Keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that is small enough to reliably estimate required resources and duration.

B.

Keep decomposing work until you reach a predetermined number of hierarchy levels to keep the WBS balanced.

C.

Keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that can be accomplished in one DAY.

D.

Keep decomposing tasks until you reach an amount of work that can be accomplished in one WEEK.

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Questions 77

You are in charge of developing a new product for a bank. Your quality metrics are based on the 80th percentile of each of the last three products developed. This is an example of:

Options:

A.

Statistical sampling

B.

Metrics

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Operational definitions

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Questions 78

A process that is not part of a Project Risk Management is:

Options:

A.

Identification

B.

Solicitation

C.

Quantification

D.

Response Development

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Questions 79

During the execution of a software project, the vendor proposes an upgrade of a part of project without a change in the schedule or cost. After the change is approved, where would this change BEST be documented?

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Procurement Management plan

C.

Work breakdown structure

D.

Quality assurance plan

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Questions 80

___________ is a group of processes required to purchase or acquire the products, services, or results needed from outside the project team to perform the work.

Options:

A.

Procurement Management

B.

Planning Management

C.

Scope Management

D.

Control Management

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Questions 81

The adjustment of task schedules in order to deploy human resource more effectively is called resource _______.

Options:

A.

Tracking

B.

Loading

C.

Crashing

D.

Levelling

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Questions 82

Techniques for conducting product analysis include:

Options:

A.

Technical benefit analysis

B.

Value engineering

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Alternatives identification

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Questions 83

Identification of Mandatory Dependencies is done during which of the following process:

Options:

A.

Sequence Activities

B.

Develop Schedule

C.

Define Activities

D.

Estimate Activity Durations

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Questions 84

A complex project will fit best in what type of an organization?

Options:

A.

Functional

B.

Cross-functional

C.

Matrix

D.

Balanced

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Questions 85

With triangular distribution, the low, likely and high values are 20, 30 and 40, respectively. The mean is _____.

Options:

A.

30.0

B.

22.5

C.

25.0

D.

27.5

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Questions 86

You are a project manager of a company. You are taking over a project during the planning process, and you discovered that many individuals have signed the project charter. Which of the following should be areas of concern for you?

Options:

A.

Who will be a member of the change control board?

B.

Who are the stakeholders for the project?

C.

Need to spend more time on configuration management.

D.

Determining the reporting structure.

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Questions 87

The amount of time that an activity can be delayed from its early start without delaying the project end date is called:

Options:

A.

Negative Float

B.

Total Float

C.

Float

D.

c and b

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Questions 88

Which of the following Enterprise Environmental factors are not the inputs for the Develop Human Resource Plan process:

Options:

A.

Organizational Chart Tempates

B.

Reduced Training Funds

C.

Hiring Freeze

D.

Technical competencies of project staff

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Questions 89

Which of the following relationship is used in the Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM] :

Options:

A.

Start-to-Finish

B.

Finish-to-Start

C.

Start-to-Start

D.

Finish-to-Finish

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Questions 90

Which of the following is not a tool or technique for a Source Selection?

Options:

A.

Contract negotiation

B.

Weighting system

C.

Payment system

D.

Screening system

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Questions 91

Name the ethical code you'll be required to adhere to as a CAPM.

Options:

A.

Project Management Policy of Ethics

B.

Project Management Professional Standards

C.

Project Management Code of Professional Ethics and Standards

D.

Project Management Professional Code of Professional Conduct

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Questions 92

A modification of a logical relationship that allows an acceleration of the successor task is represented by:

Options:

A.

Lead time

B.

Lag time

C.

Negative Lag

D.

a or g

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Questions 93

A major assumption of all network scheduling methods is that the activity duration must be _____.

Options:

A.

Statistically dependent

B.

Variance distributed

C.

Statistically independent

D.

Deterministic

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Questions 94

Activity Resource Requirements is an input to ____________ :

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Durations

B.

Control Schedule

C.

Sequence Activities

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

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Questions 95

Which of the following includes the process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete a project successfully.

Options:

A.

Project plan update

B.

Project scope management

C.

Control Scope

D.

Product description

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Questions 96

Which of the following is a common characteristic of most project life cycle descriptions?

Options:

A.

Cost and staffing are low at the start, higher towards the end. and drop rapidly as the project nears completion.

B.

The probability of successfully completing the project is highest at the start of the project.

C.

Stakeholders have the most influence on the final characteristics of the product at the end of the project.

D.

a and b

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Questions 97

An input of the Collect Requirements process is a/an:

Options:

A.

Project Charter

B.

Project schedule

C.

Strategic plan

D.

Historical information

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Questions 98

A graphic display of resource usage hours is called a/an_________________.

Options:

A.

Organizational chart

B.

Responsibility matrix

C.

WBS

D.

Histogram

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Questions 99

The most rapid Estimate Costs technique is:

Options:

A.

Square foot estimating

B.

Template estimating

C.

Computerized estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

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Questions 100

Another term for top down estimating is:.

Options:

A.

Analogous estimating

B.

Life-cycle costing

C.

Parametric modeling

D.

Bottom up estimating

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Questions 101

A Resource Leveling is a technique for:

Options:

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Sequence Activities

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Questions 102

Which of the following is true regarding IRR?

Options:

A.

IRR is a constrained optimization method.

B.

IRR assumes reinvestment at the cost of capital.

C.

IRR is the discount rate when NPV is greater than zero.

D.

IRR is the discount rate when NPV is equal to zero.

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Questions 103

You are project manager and the monthly report to the client showed zero schedule variance. However, member of the team know that a milestone has been missed which will cause an overall delay to the project. Which one of the following is being inadequately reported?

Options:

A.

Communication plan variance

B.

Resource management plan

C.

Critical path status

D.

Risk analysis

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Questions 104

Your selection committee is debating between two projects. Project A has a payback period of 20 months. Project B has a cost of $150,000, with expected cash inflows of $50,000 the first year and $25,000 per quarter after that. Which project should you recommend?

Options:

A.

Either Project A or Project B, because the payback periods are equal

B.

Project A, because Project B's payback period is 24 months

C.

Project A, because Project B's payback period is 20 months

D.

Project A, because Project B's payback period is 21 months

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Questions 105

During ___________ project management process, stakeholder's ability to influence project results is high?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Executing

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Questions 106

Mathematical models using linear, dynamic, integer, or algorithm models are considered

Options:

A.

Project selection methods

B.

Project selection criteria

C.

A form of expert judgment

D.

A form of historical information

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Questions 107

Activity duration estimates include all of the following EXCEPT for:

Options:

A.

Project team knowledge.

B.

Time studies.

C.

Information from previous experience.

D.

Commercial duration databases.

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Questions 108

All of the statements regarding control accounts and planning packages are true EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Control accounts and planning packages are tools and techniques of Develop Schedule process.

B.

A control account is an assigned WBS level used to monitor cost and schedule performance of significant element of work.

C.

Planning packages reflect a future segment of work within a control account that has not yet been decomposed into detailed work packages.

D.

As work becomes more clearly defined, planning packages are converted into work packages.

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Questions 109

Which of the following is needed to develop a detailed project cost estimate?

Options:

A.

Management plan

B.

Resource requirements

C.

Project character

D.

Cost Plan

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Questions 110

Bar charts generally illustrate:

Options:

A.

Progress of status.

B.

The critical path.

C.

Budget relation ships.

D.

Logical relationships.

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Questions 111

Which of the following statements are FALSE about cost reimbursable contracts?

Options:

A.

cost-reimbursable contracts generally carry the highest risks to the buyer, as the total costs are uncertain

B.

cost-reimbursable contracts often includes incentives for meeting or exceeding project objectives

C.

cost-reimbursable contracts resemble fix unit agreements when the unit rates are preset by the buyer and seller

D.

cost-reimbursable contracts are contracts that involves payments to the seller for actual costs, plus a fee representing the sellers profit

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Questions 112

Based on the PMBOK, who is ultimately responsible for the project quality?

Options:

A.

Project team

B.

Project manager

C.

QA manager

D.

Validation engineer

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Questions 113

Which of the following situations will cause schedule activity duration estimates to directly influence the cost estimates EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

When resource cost rate information is unavailable from commercial databases

B.

When resources are applied per unit of time of duration of schedule activity

C.

When union labor with regularly expiring collective bargaining agreements are involve

D.

When seasonal cost variations are involve

E.

When project budget includes interest rate changes

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Questions 114

You are in process of developing an approximation of the costs of resources needed to complete each schedule activity. Which of the following is the least helpful input?

Options:

A.

WBS, WS dictionary

B.

Market place conditions, commercial databases

C.

Estimate Costs policies/ templates, historical information, project team knowledge

D.

Activity cost estimates, activity cost estimate supporting detail

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Questions 115

What type of organizational structure usually experiences the MOST team nervousness at project close-out?

Options:

A.

Weak matrix

B.

Projectized

C.

Strong matrix

D.

Functional

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Questions 116

Which of the following conflict resolution approaches is likely to lead to the MOST long-lasting solutions?

Options:

A.

Negotiating

B.

Smoothing

C.

Problem solving

D.

Compromising

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Questions 117

Which of the following are not the tools and techniques for source selection?

Options:

A.

a weighting system.

B.

Organizational policies

C.

Independent estimates.

D.

A screening system.

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Questions 118

What is the BEST way to accomplish resource planning?

Options:

A.

Identify required resources and allocate them to all project activities.

B.

Identify required resources in the project charter.

C.

Identify available resources and allocate them to all activities in the current phase of the project.

D.

Identify the resources that performed past similar projects, and allocate them to all project activities.

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Questions 119

After preparing a probability distribution of cost outcomes for a project, the estimate with a 20% probability of being exceeded is approximately one standard deviation:

Options:

A.

Below the mean.

B.

Above the mean.

C.

Below the median.

D.

Above the median.

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Questions 120

Which statement is not true regarding the issue logs?

Options:

A.

Issue logs are written logs that document person responsible for resolving for specific issue by a target date.

B.

Issue logs are tool of Manage Stakeholder Expectations process.

C.

Issue logs are tool of manage project team process.

D.

Issue logs describe the ground rules and conflict management procedures to manage the project.

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Questions 121

You have a piece of equipment that was purchased for your ptoject recently for $5,000 and is expected to last 5 years in production. At the end of the five years the expected worth of the equipment is $2,000. Using straight-line deprecation, what is the amount that can be written off each year?

Options:

A.

$600

B.

$1200

C.

$3000

D.

Zero

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Questions 122

In project planning, which one of the following is the LEAST applicable to the resource assignment matrix?

Options:

A.

The lines of communication both with in and outside the project

B.

The compensation level of participants

C.

The assignment of responsibilities to the work breakdown stricture

D.

The authority to approve at various completion stages

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Questions 123

Developing alternative activity sequences is an example of:

Options:

A.

Polling wave.

B.

Risk aversion.

C.

Rework.

D.

Contingency planning.

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Questions 124

You are project manager of a project. A customer requests a scope change in the project . In order to determine the impact of the requested change, you will need a work breakdown structure, change request, scope management plan, and:

Options:

A.

Performance reports.

B.

A responsibility matrix.

C.

A Pareto diagram

D.

A Monte Carlo simulation.

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Questions 125

To determine the impact of a change that has occurred, which of the following should be taken?

Options:

A.

Re-evaluate the work breakdown structure.

B.

Assess the communication policy.

C.

Review the earned value

D.

Performance measurement

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Questions 126

___________ is a group of processes required to purchase or acquire products, services, or results needed outside the project team to perform the work.

Options:

A.

Procurement Management

B.

Planning Management

C.

Scope Management

D.

Control Management

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Questions 127

In the arrow diagramming method, which of the following requires an expenditure of the resources?

Options:

A.

Histograms

B.

Milestone events

C.

Path activities

D.

Accounting support costs.

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Questions 128

You are a project manager for a manufacturing firm . You discover a design error during a test production run on your latest project. Which of the following is the most likely response to this problem?

Options:

A.

Reduce the technical requirements so that the error Is no longer valid.

B.

Go forward with production, and ignore the error.

C.

Go forward with production, but inform the customer of the problem.

D.

Develop alternative solutions to address the error.

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Questions 129

Which process involves coordinating people and other resources to carry out a plan?

Options:

A.

Executing processes

B.

Planning processes

C.

Controlling Processes

D.

Closing processes

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Questions 130

The MOST important selection criterion to select a project manager for a large project in a technical industry is:

Options:

A.

Communication and Integration skills.

B.

Specific technical specialization.

C.

Financial management experience.

D.

Industry and business experience.

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Questions 131

The work breakdown structure:

Options:

A.

Is used to break down the project Into manageable pieces

B.

Is set and does not change throughout the project

C.

Is needed as part of the project charter

D.

None of the above

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Questions 132

Estimated at Completion is determined by ___________.

Options:

A.

ETC + ACWP

B.

BAC - ETC

C.

BAC/CPI

D.

Both A and C

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Questions 133

Complete final contract performance reporting and verify product is done in _______.

Options:

A.

Plan Procurements

B.

Conduct Procurements

C.

Administer Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

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Questions 134

Which of the following is not a process of Project Communications Management?

Options:

A.

Identify stakeholders

B.

Report Performance

C.

Distribute Information

D.

Conflict Management

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Questions 135

Collect Requirements includes alternatives identification, which can be conducted by the common technique of

Options:

A.

Lateral thinking

B.

Value engineering

C.

Cost/benefit analysis

D.

Constraints analysis

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Questions 136

Which of the following statement is true about Quality control?

Options:

A.

Monitoring specific project results to determine If they comply with relevant quality standards

B.

Evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis

C.

Taking action to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of the project

D.

Identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project

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Questions 137

A is the correct answer. Trend analysis is a tool and technique used in Monitor and Control Risks.

Options:

A.

Financial records

B.

Inspection specifications

C.

Project charter

D.

Project reports

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Questions 138

A project is defined as ________________.

Options:

A.

A process of considerable scope that implements a plan

B.

An endeavour, which is planned, executed, and controlled, performed by people and constrained by limited resources

C.

A temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique product or service

D.

An objective based effort of temporary nature

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Questions 139

Which of the following statements concerning bottom up estimating is true?

Options:

A.

The cost and accuracy of bottom-up estimating is driven by the size of the individual work items

B.

Smaller work items increase both cost and accuracy

C.

Larger work items increase both cost and accuracy

D.

Both A and B are true

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Questions 140

Ideally, resource levelling should be limited to activities ________.

Options:

A.

With negative float

B.

Witn zero float

C.

0n tne critical path

D.

With positive float

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Questions 141

The core planning processes include:

Options:

A.

Collect Requirements, Sequence Activities, and Plan Communications

B.

Plan Quality, Plan Communications, and Risk Response Development

C.

Define Scope, Estimate Activity Durations, and Determine Budget

D.

Collect Requirements, Define Activities, Estimate Costs, Plan Quality, and Plan Risk Responses

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Questions 142

Analogous estimating ___________.

Options:

A.

Uses bottom-up estimating techniques.

B.

Uses the actual costs from a previous, similar project

C.

Is synonymous with top-down estimating

D.

Both B and c

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Questions 143

The one document that should always be used to help identify risk is _______.

Options:

A.

Risk Management Plan

B.

WBS

C.

Scope Statement

D.

Project Charter

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Questions 144

Work packages are described in the __________.

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Work charter

C.

Statement of work

D) Q Work project plan

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Questions 145

The project manager's leadership style should be matched to the corresponding developmental level of the project team and should move through successive steps in the following order:

Options:

A.

Disciplinary, autocratic, and participative

B.

Staff planning, team training, and performance monitoring

C.

Team building, team development, and responsibility assignment

D.

Directing, coaching, supporting, and delegating

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Questions 146

The party that needs the change resulting from the project, and who will be its custodian on completion is the _______.

Options:

A.

Owner

B.

Sponsor

C.

Customer

D.

client

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Questions 147

A risk response which involves eliminating a threat is called

Options:

A.

Mitigation

B.

Deflection

C.

Avoidance

D.

Transfer

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Questions 148

You are the project manager of a project. The project plan has been developed. A project end date has been established. The customer later requesters additional work to be included in the project, but will not renegotiate the end date. Cost is not a factor. What should the project team do immediately?

Options:

A.

Invoke the change control process

B.

Initiate contingency plans

C.

Modify the original project scope to include the additional work

D.

Commit to original project scope and open a new project to handle additional work

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Questions 149

A technique for resolving conflict in which the parties agree to have a neutral third party hear the dispute and make a decision is called __________.

Options:

A.

Negotiation

B.

Arbitration

C.

Smoothing

D.

Forcing

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Questions 150

Administrative Closure should occur ___________.

Options:

A.

At the end of each phase of the project

B.

At the end of the whole project

C.

At the end of 50% of the project

D.

At the end of 100% of the project

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Questions 151

A Risk Register is a part of the ________.

Options:

A.

Project Scope Statement

B.

Project Management plan

C.

Project Scheduling plan

D.

Project Charter

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Questions 152

How many communication channels will be required in a project in which 5 individual are participating?

Options:

A.

10

B.

12

C.

4

D.

5

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Questions 153

Who has the responsibility for informing the final deliverable to all stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Project Manager

B.

Sponsor

C.

Team Lead

D.

Management

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Questions 154

Which process must occur after a project manager has been assigned to the project?

Options:

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Develop the project charter

C.

Develop the project statement of work

D.

Develop project closing document

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Questions 155

A Risk Register is a part of the ________.

Options:

A.

Project Scope Statement

B.

Project Management plan

C.

Project Scheduling plan

D.

Project Charter

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Questions 156

Which risk response is most likely to involve contingency reserves?

Options:

A.

Acceptance

B.

shaie

C.

Mitigate

D.

Transfer

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Questions 157

Which type of network diagram is also referred to activity-on-arrow (AOA) diagrams?

Options:

A.

Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)

B.

Gant Cnart Diagram (GCD)

C.

Dependency Diagramming Method (DDM)

D.

Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)

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Questions 158

Which of the following does not provided by scope statement?

Options:

A.

Project justification

B.

Project product

C.

Project manager authority

D.

Project objective

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Questions 159

Which of the following is NOT an input of close project process?

Options:

A.

Project management plan

B.

Contract documentation

C.

Deliverables

D.

WBS

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Questions 160

Conformance to specifications document is one description of _________.

Options:

A.

Quality

B.

Scope

C.

Integration

D.

Procurement

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Questions 161

You are project manager of a project. During the process of selecting the sellers, you reject one vendor because it doesn't have the manufacturing capability. This is an example of which selection tool?

Options:

A.

Weighting system

B.

Screening system

C.

Seller rating system

D.

Expert judgment

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Questions 162

In which phase you define the final deliverable?

Options:

A.

Closing

B.

Execution

C.

Planning

D.

Initiation

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Questions 163

A document which describes how project scope will be managed and how scope changes will be integrated into the project is: (choose the best answer)

Options:

A.

A project plan

B.

A risk analysis

C.

A scope management plan

D.

A scope statement

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Questions 164

What is the primary purpose of a milestone chart?

Options:

A.

To show task dependencies.

B.

To show resource constraints.

C.

To show significant events in the project such as completion of key deliverables.

D.

To highlight the critical path.

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Questions 165

The scope management provides:

Options:

A.

A basis for future decisions about the project.

B.

A baseline to accomplish verification measures.

C.

A baseline to evaluate potential scope changes.

D.

All of the above.

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Questions 166

Which of the following is not a part of the project cost baseline but is included in the project budget?

Options:

A.

Management Contingency Reserve

B.

Management Overheads

C.

Project Management Planing

D.

Activity Cost Contingency Reserve

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Questions 167

The Collect Requirements process is:

Options:

A.

Developing a plan from major stakeholders

B.

Developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions

C.

Formalizing acceptance of the project scope

D.

Planning project milestones

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Questions 168

Which is the Estimate Costs technique used most frequently in the early stages of a project.

Options:

A.

Analogous estimating

B.

Life-cycle costing

C.

Parametric modeling

D.

Bottom up estimating

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Questions 169

At which stage, stakeholders have the maximum influence on a project?

Options:

A.

Initial stage

B.

Closing stage

C.

Execution stage

D.

None of the above

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Questions 170

Adjusting Leads and Lags is a technique for:

Options:

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Sequence Activities

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Questions 171

Which of the following is not used to document team member roles and responsibilities ?

Options:

A.

Text-oriented Format

B.

Functional Chart

C.

Hierarchical-type Organizational Chart

D.

Matrix-based Responsibility Chart

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Questions 172

A document which describes how project scope will be managed and how scope changes will be integrated into the project is: (choose the best answer)

Options:

A.

A project plan

B.

A risk analysis

C.

A scope management plan

D.

A scope statement

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Questions 173

Scoring models, comparative approaches and benefit contribution are all part of:

Options:

A.

Constrained optimization models for selecting a project

B.

Benefit measurement models for selecting a project

C.

Quality measurement techniques

D.

Distribute Information tools

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Questions 174

A project success can be achieved only if:

Options:

A.

There is a clear link between the project deliverables and the business strategy.

B.

The project sponsor leads the initiatives.

C.

The project manager is an expert in managing resources.

D.

Allof the above

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Questions 175

What is the key difference between a contract close-out and an administrative closure?

Options:

A.

Contract close-out formalizes project completion.

B.

Contract close-out includes updating records with final results.

C.

Administrative closure includes procurement audits.

D.

Contract close-out includes product verification.

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Questions 176

You are project manager and during the course of a project, the number of team members increases from six to ten. How many ADDITIONAL lines of communication channels now exist?

Options:

A.

10

B.

35

C.

30

D.

55

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Questions 177

You are project manager and working on gathering requirements and estimating for the project. Which process group are you in?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Executing

D.

Initiating

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Questions 178

Overall project performance is measured by the:

Options:

A.

Gantt chart.

B.

Work breakdown structure.

C.

PERT chart.

D.

Earned value chart.

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Questions 179

According to the PMBOK guide, the project statement of work(SOW) should contain or reference to all the following elements except ?

Options:

A.

Business need, strategic plan, product scope description

B.

Requirements, business need, stakeholder expectations

C.

Strategic plan, product scope description, stakeholder influences, and business need

D.

Project purpose, business case, stakeholder influences, product scope description

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Questions 180

Which of the following are not essential for project close out ?

Options:

A.

Documenting formal acceptance of the product.

B.

Documenting the lessons learned

C.

Documenting the final project scope

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Questions 181

A response to a risk event that was not defined in advance of is occurrence is called a:

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation response.

B.

Workaround response.

C.

Corrective action response.

D.

Contingency response.

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Questions 182

Which of the following are not indirect costs?

Options:

A.

Payroll tax cost.

B.

Subcontract costs.

C.

Insurance costs.

D.

Accounting support costs.

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Questions 183

Duration estimates indicate:

Options:

A.

How many work periods an activity is expected to last.

B.

How many hours a resource will work on an activity.

C.

When an activity is likely to finish.

D.

When an activity is likely to start.

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Questions 184

Which of the following methods is a technique used to predict project duration by analyzing which sequence of activities has the least amount of scheduling flexibility?

Options:

A.

Dependency diagramming

B.

PERT

C.

Critical Path

D.

Grant chart

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Questions 185

With respect to earned value analysis, which of the following is the value of work actually completed?

Options:

A.

Actual Cost (AC)

B.

planed Value (PV)

C.

Cost Variance (CV)

D.

Earned Value (EV)

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Questions 186

Which of the following is useful in Identify Risks because it permits a systemic evaluation of the work?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure.

B.

Design specification

C.

Project flow chart

D.

Project chart

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Questions 187

The process to change a contract clause is _______ the project change control system.

Options:

A.

Not related to

B.

An input to

C.

The same as

D.

Integrated within

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Questions 188

Which is not true about change requests :

Options:

A.

They always require additional funding.

B.

They happen while the project work is being done.

C.

They can be written or verbal.

D.

They can be requested by a stakeholder.

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Questions 189

Which process involves Monitoring, measuring, and taking corrective action?

Options:

A.

Executing processes

B.

Planning processes

C.

Controlling Processes

D.

Closing processes

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Questions 190

On any project, who creates the Lessons Learned document?

Options:

A.

Customers

B.

Project team

C.

Project sponsor

D.

Stakeholders

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Questions 191

Estimate Costs ______________.

Options:

A.

Involves developing an estimate of the costs of the resources needed to complete project activities

B.

Includes identifying and considering various costing alternatives

C.

Involves allocating the overall estimates to individual work items

D.

Both A and c

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Questions 192

The ability of a product to be used for different purposes at different capacities and under different conditions determines its ____________.

Options:

A.

Usability

B.

Flexibility

C.

Operability

D.

Availability

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Questions 193

If you are project manager for a Project and will need as many inputs to the initiation phase as possible. Of the following, which is the best source of information for your project?

Options:

A.

Historical information

B.

WBS

C.

Business plans

D.

RBS

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Questions 194

Customer formally accepts the deliverables of each project phase. This process is known as ________.

Options:

A.

Verify Scope

B.

Quality Assurance

C.

Quality Control

D.

Quality Measurement

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Questions 195

In PMBOK, the seller is ________ to the project team.

Options:

A.

Internal

B.

External

C.

Outside

D.

Assigned

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Questions 196

Create Procurement document is done in _______.

Options:

A.

Plan Procurements

B.

Conduct Procurements

C.

Administer Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

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Questions 197

Which type of network diagram is also referred to Activity-on-Node (AON) diagrams?

Options:

A.

Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)

B.

Gantt Cnart Diagram (GCD)

C.

Dependency Diagramming Method (DDM)

D.

Arrow Diagramming Method (ADM)

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Questions 198

Make-or-buy decisions measure the costs of both options. What are the two options?

Options:

A.

Direct ar|d Indirect

B.

Tactical and Strategic

C.

Management and Project

D.

0n|y Tactical

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Questions 199

You are the project manager for the software Project. This project must be completed within one year. This is an example of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Schedule

B.

Assumption

C.

Constraint

D.

Planning process

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Questions 200

Which of the following is the most important task of the project manager during the Execution and Control phase?

Options:

A.

Information management

B.

Maintain scope statement

C.

Maintain Charter

D.

Maintain Closing document

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Questions 201

Which document formally authorizes a project?

Options:

A.

The project charter

B.

Project scope statement

C.

The P'oject contract

D.

Project closing document

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Questions 202

Who has the responsibility for Plan Quality?

Options:

A.

Project manager

B.

QA manager

C.

Project planner

D.

Team 'ead

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Questions 203

You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Collect Requirements and Define Scope. What should you do next?

Options:

A.

Create WBS

B.

Vei*

C.

Value analysis

D.

Control Scope

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Questions 204

Purchasing insurance is an example of __________.

Options:

A.

Transfer

B.

Acceptances

C.

Mitigation

D.

Contingency

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Questions 205

If a project with a SPI of 1.8, what you tell?

Options:

A.

The project is running ahead of the schedule

B.

The project is running behind of the schedule

C.

Resources assigned to the project cost 1.8 units

D.

None

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Questions 206

You are the project manager of a project that just went into extinction mode. This means that your project __________.

Options:

A.

Has ended before its stated objective

B.

's st'" cunning but missing resources

C.

Will be closed due to lack of resources

D.

None of the above

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Questions 207

You are the project manager of a project and the project is a month into the executing phase. There are some cliques forming among the team members. Which leadership style you follow for best outcome?

Options:

A.

Supporting

B.

Delegating

C.

Coaching

D.

Directing

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Questions 208

ISO Stands for __________.

Options:

A.

International Organization for Standardization

B.

International Standardized Organization

C.

'n Standardized Organization

D.

Indiana Standardized Organization

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Questions 209

You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Collect Requirements and Define Scope. What should you do next?

Options:

A.

Create WBS

B.

Vei*

C.

Value analysis

D.

Control Scope

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Questions 210

The main purpose of project initiation is to ________.

Options:

A.

Assign the project manager to the project

B.

Formally describe the project

C.

Produce the project charter

D.

Formally authorize the project

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Questions 211

Which one of the following comes first in the project plan?

Options:

A.

Scope Statement

B.

Quality Plan

C.

WBS

D.

Development Plan

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Questions 212

The main purpose of project initiation is to ________.

Options:

A.

Assign the project manager to the project

B.

Formally describe the project

C.

Produce the project charter

D.

Formally authorize the project

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Questions 213

Which of the following statements are false about Expected Monetary Value Analysis (EMV).

Options:

A.

EMV is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome of project outcomes based on various assumptions and scenarios.

B.

Decision tree analysis is a type of EMV analysis.

C.

EMV is a tool/technique of Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

D.

EMV is calculated by multiplying the value of each possible outcome by its probability of occurrence, and summing them together.

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Questions 214

AOA refers to _____________.

Options:

A.

Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM]

B.

Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]

C.

Fragment Network

D.

None

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Questions 215

Life cycle costing __________________.

Options:

A.

Includes acquisition, operating, and disposal costs when evaluating various alternatives

B.

Includes only the cost of the development or acquisition of a product or service

C.

Does not take into consideration the effect of project decisions on the cost of using the resulting product

D.

Botn B and c are correct

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Questions 216

The belief that management's high levels of trust, confidence and commitment to workers leads to high levels of motivation and productivity on the part of workers is a part of which motivation theory?

Options:

A.

Theory Y

B.

Theory Z

C.

Theory X

D.

Contingency Theory

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Questions 217

Collocation can mean _______________.

Options:

A.

All, or almost all, team members are moved to a central physical location for the life of the project.

B.

Active team members may be at different physical locations, but meet on a regular basis.

C.

A war room is established where team members can meet periodically.

D.

Both A and c are correct.

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Questions 218

Which process involves coordinating people and other resources to carry out plan?

Options:

A.

Executing processes

B.

Planning processes

C.

Controlling Processes

D.

Closing processes

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Questions 219

A contingency plan is executed when _____________.

Options:

A.

A risks is identified

B.

An identified risk occurs

C.

When a workaround is needed

D.

Al1 of the above

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Questions 220

Which of the following is not a tool or technique used during the Risk Quantification Process?

Options:

A.

Expected Monetary Value

B.

Contingency planning

C.

Decision Trees

D.

Statistical sums

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Questions 221

A schedule activity may start 5 days before the predecessor activity finishes. This is an example of ______________.

Options:

A.

Finish-to-Start

B.

Finish-to-Finish

C.

Start-to-Start

D.

Start-to-Finish

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Questions 222

When should the project expeditor form of organization be used?

Options:

A.

The project is extremely important to the organization.

B.

A project's cost and importance are relatively low.

C.

The project manager has a lot of responsibility and accountability.

D.

The organization's primary source of revenue is derived from projects

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Questions 223

A document or tool which describes when and how human resources will be brought onto and taken off the project team is called ____________.

Options:

A.

Staffing Management Plan

B.

Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)

C.

Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)

D.

Resource Assignment Chart

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Questions 224

During project integration activities, a project sponsor's role can best be described as doing which one of the following?

Options:

A.

Helping the project manager and stakeholders to resolve any issues

B.

Acting as a sounding board for the project stakeholders

C.

Showing management the project progress and status reports

D.

None

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Exam Code: PMI-002
Exam Name: Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Certification
Last Update: Jun 16, 2024
Questions: 748
$64  $159.99
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