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CCSP Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

What are SOC 1/SOC 2/SOC 3?

Options:

A.

Audit reports

B.

Risk management frameworks

C.

Access controls

D.

Software developments

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Questions 5

Which of the following roles involves overseeing billing, purchasing, and requesting audit reports for an organization within a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Cloud service user

B.

Cloud service business manager

C.

Cloud service administrator

D.

Cloud service integrator

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Questions 6

SOC Type 1 reports are considered "restricted use," in that they are intended only for limited audiences and purposes.

Which of the following is NOT a population that would be appropriate for a SOC Type 1 report?

Options:

A.

Current clients

B.

Auditors

C.

Potential clients

D.

The service organization

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Questions 7

The BC/DR kit should include all of the following except:

Options:

A.

Annotated asset inventory

B.

Flashlight

C.

Hard drives

D.

Documentation equipment

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Questions 8

What type of data does data rights management (DRM) protect?

Options:

A.

Consumer

B.

PII

C.

Financial

D.

Healthcare

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Questions 9

What type of segregation and separation of resources is needed within a cloud environment for multitenancy purposes versus a traditional data center model?

Options:

A.

Virtual

B.

Security

C.

Physical

D.

Logical

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Questions 10

Which attribute of data poses the biggest challenge for data discovery?

Options:

A.

Labels

B.

Quality

C.

Volume

D.

Format

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Questions 11

Which of the following is the sole responsibility of the cloud customer, regardless of which cloud model is used?

Options:

A.

Infrastructure

B.

Platform

C.

Application

D.

Data

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Questions 12

Which process serves to prove the identity and credentials of a user requesting access to an application or data?

Options:

A.

Repudiation

B.

Authentication

C.

Identification

D.

Authorization

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Questions 13

What does the REST API use to protect data transmissions?

Options:

A.

NetBIOS

B.

VPN

C.

Encapsulation

D.

TLS

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Questions 14

Which audit type has been largely replaced by newer approaches since 2011?

Options:

A.

SOC Type 1

B.

SSAE-16

C.

SAS-70

D.

SOC Type 2

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Questions 15

Which security concept is focused on the trustworthiness of data?

Options:

A.

Integrity

B.

Availability

C.

Nonrepudiation

D.

Confidentiality

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Questions 16

Which of the following is NOT a factor that is part of a firewall configuration?

Options:

A.

Encryption

B.

Port

C.

Protocol

D.

Source IP

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Questions 17

Which value refers to the percentage of production level restoration needed to meet BCDR objectives?

Options:

A.

RPO

B.

RTO

C.

RSL

D.

SRE

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Questions 18

Which security concept is based on preventing unauthorized access to data while also ensuring that it is accessible to those authorized to use it?

Options:

A.

Integrity

B.

Availability

C.

Confidentiality

D.

Nonrepudiation

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Questions 19

What concept does the "D" represent with the STRIDE threat model?

Options:

A.

Data loss

B.

Denial of service

C.

Data breach

D.

Distributed

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Questions 20

Which of the cloud deployment models offers the easiest initial setup and access for the cloud customer?

Options:

A.

Hybrid

B.

Community

C.

Private

D.

Public

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Questions 21

Over time, what is a primary concern for data archiving?

Options:

A.

Size of archives

B.

Format of archives

C.

Recoverability

D.

Regulatory changes

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Questions 22

Which of the cloud cross-cutting aspects relates to the ability for a cloud customer to easily remove their applications and data from a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Reversibility

B.

Availability

C.

Portability

D.

Interoperability

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Questions 23

Which one of the following threat types to applications and services involves the sending of requests that are invalid and manipulated through a user's client to execute commands on the application under the user's own credentials?

Options:

A.

Injection

B.

Missing function-level access control

C.

Cross-site scripting

D.

Cross-site request forgery

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Questions 24

A DLP solution/implementation has three main components.

Which of the following is NOT one of the three main components?

Options:

A.

Monitoring

B.

Enforcement

C.

Auditing

D.

Discovery and classification

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Questions 25

During which phase of the cloud data lifecycle is it possible for the classification of data to change?

Options:

A.

Use

B.

Archive

C.

Create

D.

Share

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Questions 26

A crucial decision any company must make is in regard to where it hosts the data systems it depends on. A debate exists as to whether it's best to lease space in a data center or build your own data center--and now with cloud computing, whether to purchase resources within a cloud.

What is the biggest advantage to leasing space in a data center versus procuring cloud services?

Options:

A.

Regulations

B.

Control

C.

Security

D.

Costs

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Questions 27

With a cloud service category where the cloud customer is responsible for deploying all services, systems, and components needed for their applications, which of the following storage types are MOST likely to be available to them?

Options:

A.

Structured and hierarchical

B.

Volume and object

C.

Volume and database

D.

Structured and unstructured

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Questions 28

Where is a DLP solution generally installed when utilized for monitoring data in transit?

Options:

A.

Network perimeter

B.

Database server

C.

Application server

D.

Web server

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Questions 29

Different types of audits are intended for different audiences, such as internal, external, regulatory, and so on.

Which of the following audits are considered "restricted use" versus being for a more broad audience?

Options:

A.

SOC Type 2

B.

SOC Type 1

C.

SOC Type 3

D.

SAS-70

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Questions 30

Which data state would be most likely to use digital signatures as a security protection mechanism?

Options:

A.

Data in use

B.

Data in transit

C.

Archived

D.

Data at rest

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Questions 31

Many aspects and features of cloud computing can make eDiscovery compliance more difficult or costly.

Which aspect of cloud computing would be the MOST complicating factor?

Options:

A.

Measured service

B.

Broad network access

C.

Multitenancy

D.

Portability

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Questions 32

What does a cloud customer purchase or obtain from a cloud provider?

Options:

A.

Services

B.

Hosting

C.

Servers

D.

Customers

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Questions 33

If a cloud computing customer wishes to guarantee that a minimum level of resources will always be available, which of the following set of services would compromise the reservation?

Options:

A.

Memory and networking

B.

CPU and software

C.

CPU and storage

D.

CPU and memory

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Questions 34

Which of the following is NOT one of the main intended goals of a DLP solution?

Options:

A.

Showing due diligence

B.

Preventing malicious insiders

C.

Regulatory compliance

D.

Managing and minimizing risk

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Questions 35

Which of the following is not a risk management framework?

Options:

A.

COBIT

B.

Hex GBL

C.

ISO 31000:2009

D.

NIST SP 800-37

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Questions 36

Three central concepts define what type of data and information an organization is responsible for pertaining to eDiscovery.

Which of the following are the three components that comprise required disclosure?

Options:

A.

Possession, ownership, control

B.

Ownership, use, creation

C.

Control, custody, use

D.

Possession, custody, control

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Questions 37

Many of the traditional concepts of systems and services for a traditional data center also apply to the cloud. Both are built around key computing concepts.

Which of the following compromise the two facets of computing?

Options:

A.

CPU and software

B.

CPU and storage

C.

CPU and memory

D.

Memory and networking

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Questions 38

Which cloud storage type is typically used to house virtual machine images that are used throughout the environment?

Options:

A.

Structured

B.

Unstructured

C.

Volume

D.

Object

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Questions 39

What is the best source for information about securing a physical asset's BIOS?

Options:

A.

Security policies

B.

Manual pages

C.

Vendor documentation

D.

Regulations

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Questions 40

Which of the following represents a control on the maximum amount of resources that a single customer, virtual machine, or application can consume within a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Share

B.

Reservation

C.

Provision

D.

Limit

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Questions 41

Which of the following threat types can occur when baselines are not appropriately applied or unauthorized changes are made?

Options:

A.

Insecure direct object references

B.

Unvalidated redirects and forwards

C.

Security misconfiguration

D.

Sensitive data exposure

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Questions 42

What must be secured on physical hardware to prevent unauthorized access to systems?

Options:

A.

BIOS

B.

SSH

C.

RDP

D.

ALOM

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Questions 43

What expectation of data custodians is made much more challenging by a cloud implementation, especially with PaaS or SaaS?

Options:

A.

Data classification

B.

Knowledge of systems

C.

Access to data

D.

Encryption requirements

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Questions 44

Which of the following service capabilities gives the cloud customer the most control over resources and configurations?

Options:

A.

Desktop

B.

Platform

C.

Infrastructure

D.

Software

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Questions 45

The SOC Type 2 reports are divided into five principles.

Which of the five principles must also be included when auditing any of the other four principles?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Privacy

C.

Security

D.

Availability

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Questions 46

Which of the following may unilaterally deem a cloud hosting model inappropriate for a system or application?

Options:

A.

Multitenancy

B.

Certification

C.

Regulation

D.

Virtualization

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Questions 47

Which of the following is the optimal humidity level for a data center, per the guidelines established by the America Society of Heating, Refrigeration, and Air Conditioning Engineers (ASHRAE)?

Options:

A.

30-50 percent relative humidity

B.

50-75 percent relative humidity

C.

20-40 percent relative humidity

D.

40-60 percent relative humidity

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Questions 48

Which of the following cloud aspects complicates eDiscovery?

Options:

A.

Resource pooling

B.

On-demand self-service

C.

Multitenancy

D.

Measured service

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Questions 49

GAAPs are created and maintained by which organization?

Options:

A.

ISO/IEC

B.

AICPA

C.

PCI Council

D.

ISO

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Questions 50

From a legal perspective, what is the most important first step after an eDiscovery order has been received by the cloud provider?

Options:

A.

Notification

B.

Key identification

C.

Data collection

D.

Virtual image snapshots

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Questions 51

Which aspect of cloud computing makes data classification even more vital than in a traditional data center?

Options:

A.

Interoperability

B.

Virtualization

C.

Multitenancy

D.

Portability

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Questions 52

Which of the following actions will NOT make data part of the create phase of the cloud data lifecycle?

Options:

A.

Modify data

B.

Modify metadata

C.

New data

D.

Import data

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Questions 53

If a company needed to guarantee through contract and SLAs that a cloud provider would always have available sufficient resources to start their services and provide a certain level of provisioning, what would the contract need to refer to?

Options:

A.

Limit

B.

Reservation

C.

Assurance

D.

Guarantee

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Questions 54

Within an IaaS implementation, which of the following would NOT be a metric used to quantify service charges for the cloud customer?

Options:

A.

Memory

B.

Number of users

C.

Storage

D.

CPU

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Questions 55

Which United States program was designed to enable organizations to bridge the gap between privacy laws and requirements of the United States and the European Union?

Options:

A.

GLBA

B.

HIPAA

C.

Safe Harbor

D.

SOX

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Questions 56

Which United States law is focused on data related to health records and privacy?

Options:

A.

Safe Harbor

B.

SOX

C.

GLBA

D.

HIPAA

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Questions 57

Which of the following roles is responsible for obtaining new customers and securing contracts and agreements?

Options:

A.

Inter-cloud provider

B.

Cloud service broker

C.

Cloud auditor

D.

Cloud service developer

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Questions 58

Which of the following security technologies is commonly used to give administrators access into trust zones within an environment?

Options:

A.

VPN

B.

WAF

C.

IPSec

D.

HTTPS

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Questions 59

Which of the following best describes the purpose and scope of ISO/IEC 27034-1?

Options:

A.

Describes international privacy standards for cloud computing

B.

Serves as a newer replacement for NIST 800-52 r4

C.

Provides on overview of network and infrastructure security designed to secure cloud applications.

D.

Provides an overview of application security that introduces definitive concepts, principles, and processes involved in application security.

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Questions 60

You need to gain approval to begin moving your company's data and systems into a cloud environment. However, your CEO has mandated the ability to easily remove your IT assets from the cloud provider as a precondition.

Which of the following cloud concepts would this pertain to?

Options:

A.

Removability

B.

Extraction

C.

Portability

D.

Reversibility

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Questions 61

Which of the following is the concept of segregating information or processes, within the same system or application, for security reasons?

Options:

A.

Cell blocking

B.

Sandboxing

C.

Pooling

D.

Fencing

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Questions 62

What type of solution is at the core of virtually all directory services?

Options:

A.

WS

B.

LDAP

C.

ADFS

D.

PKI

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Questions 63

Which of the following components are part of what a CCSP should review when looking at contracting with a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

Redundant uplink grafts

B.

Background checks for the provider’s personnel

C.

The physical layout of the datacenter

D.

Use of subcontractors

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Questions 64

Which of the following is NOT one of the components of multifactor authentication?

Options:

A.

Something the user knows

B.

Something the user has

C.

Something the user sends

D.

Something the user is

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Questions 65

Which protocol operates at the network layer and provides for full point-to-point encryption of all communications and transmissions?

Options:

A.

IPSec

B.

VPN

C.

SSL

D.

TLS

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Questions 66

When an organization is considering a cloud environment for hosting BCDR solutions, which of the following would be the greatest concern?

Options:

A.

Self-service

B.

Resource pooling

C.

Availability

D.

Location

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Questions 67

When using an IaaS solution, what is the capability provided to the customer?

Options:

A.

To provision processing, storage, networks, and other fundamental computing resources when the consumer is able to deploy and run arbitrary software, which can include OSs and applications.

B.

To provision processing, storage, networks, and other fundamental computing resources when the auditor is able to deploy and run arbitrary software, which can include OSs and applications.

C.

To provision processing, storage, networks, and other fundamental computing resources when the provider is able to deploy and run arbitrary software, which can include OSs and applications.

D.

To provision processing, storage, networks, and other fundamental computing resources when the consumer is not able to deploy and run arbitrary software, which can include OSs and applications.

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Questions 68

Which of the following best describes a cloud carrier?

Options:

A.

The intermediary who provides connectivity and transport of cloud providers and cloud consumers

B.

A person or entity responsible for making a cloud service available to consumers

C.

The person or entity responsible for transporting data across the Internet

D.

The person or entity responsible for keeping cloud services running for customers

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Questions 69

Which of the following areas of responsibility always falls completely under the purview of the cloud provider, regardless of which cloud service category is used?

Options:

A.

Infrastructure

B.

Data

C.

Physical

D.

Governance

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Questions 70

Which cloud service category most commonly uses client-side key management systems?

Options:

A.

Software as a Service

B.

Infrastructure as a Service

C.

Platform as a Service

D.

Desktop as a Service

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Questions 71

Above and beyond general regulations for data privacy and protection, certain types of data are subjected to more rigorous regulations and oversight.

Which of the following is not a regulatory framework for more sensitive or specialized data?

Options:

A.

FIPS 140-2

B.

FedRAMP

C.

PCI DSS

D.

HIPAA

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Questions 72

Countermeasures for protecting cloud operations against internal threats include all of the following except:

Options:

A.

Mandatory vacation

B.

Least privilege

C.

Separation of duties

D.

Conflict of interest

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Questions 73

Which type of audit report is considered a "restricted use" report for its intended audience?

Options:

A.

SAS-70

B.

SSAE-16

C.

SOC Type 1

D.

SOC Type 2

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Questions 74

What is an often overlooked concept that is essential to protecting the confidentiality of data?

Options:

A.

Strong password

B.

Training

C.

Security controls

D.

Policies

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Questions 75

BCDR strategies do not typically involve the entire operations of an organization, but only those deemed critical to their business.

Which concept pertains to the amount of services that need to be recovered to meet BCDR objectives?

Options:

A.

RSL

B.

RTO

C.

RPO

D.

SRE

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Questions 76

Which ITIL component focuses on ensuring that system resources, processes, and personnel are properly allocated to meet SLA requirements?

Options:

A.

Continuity management

B.

Availability management

C.

Configuration management

D.

Problem management

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Exam Code: CCSP
Exam Name: Certified Cloud Security Professional (CCSP)
Last Update: Apr 15, 2024
Questions: 512
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