220-1202 Sample Questions Answers

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The scenario involves an application that should retrieve data from a local database server but is failing to do so. This likely indicates a problem in communication between the application and the database server (such as a network issue, port misconfiguration, or service unavailability). The correct troubleshooting approach involves testing the network/service connectivity between the client and the database.

Let’s examine the options:

A. ipconfig:This command displays IP configuration details for Windows systems, such as IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway. While useful for diagnosing general network issues, it does not test service connectivity or the availability of a specific application port/service.

B. nslookup:Used to query DNS servers to resolve domain names to IP addresses. However, since the question references a local server (likely accessed via IP or static hostname), DNS is probably not involved. Also, it does not test application/service availability.

C. netstat:Displays active TCP connections, listening ports, and routing tables. It helps determine whether the local system is listening for or maintaining any network connections, but it does not initiate a connection to test availability. It’s diagnostic but not interactive for service testing.

D. curl:This is the most appropriate tool for this scenario. curl is used to test connectivity to services over protocols like HTTP, HTTPS, FTP, and more. If the application retrieves data via a web interface or API (common in database-driven applications), curl can be used to test if the application can successfully reach and retrieve data from the server. It provides immediate, testable feedback on whether the server and service are available and responsive.

Example usage:

curlhttp://localhost:8080/api/data

This command would test whether a local server's application programming interface (API) is available and responding on port 8080.

CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Reference Points:

Objective 2.4: Given a scenario, use appropriate tools to troubleshoot and support Windows OS issues.

Objective 3.3: Use appropriate tools to troubleshoot and resolve issues.

The CompTIA A+ Core 2 study guide references curl as a useful command-line utility for testing connectivity and troubleshooting application access to services.

===========================

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Content filtering allows administrators to block or allow access to websites based on categories (e.g., social media, adult content, streaming). On a SOHO (Small Office/Home Office) router, this is often built-in or available via DNS-level filtering, and is the most appropriate method for enforcing browsing policies without needing to touch each individual device.

A. Secure management access protects router admin interfaces but doesn’t control user browsing.

B. Group Policy Editor is a Windows tool, not used on routers.

D. A firewall can block specific IPs or ports, but it doesn't categorize web content.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

PXE (Preboot Execution Environment) allows workstations to boot over the network and download an OS image from a server. It is ideal for automating mass deployments using baseline images across many machines without the need for physical media.

A. An ISO is a disk image file but requires mounting or physical media.

B. Secure Boot is a security feature, not a method of deploying OS images.

C. USB requires manual installation and is not suitable for automated deployment at scale.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Once the system is cleaned, the next priority is toeducate the useron safe practices to prevent recurrence.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Post-malware remediation should include user education to prevent reinfection and identify how the malware was introduced.”

The first step the CFO should take is to verify the VPN status. When working remotely, access to internal resources such as databases, file servers, and accounting systems typically requires a secure Virtual Private Network (VPN) connection. Without an active VPN tunnel, the application cannot reach internal database servers, resulting in connection errors.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, database connectivity issues during remote work are most commonly caused by missing or disconnected VPN sessions. Internal applications are often restricted to private IP ranges that are inaccessible over the public internet.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide highlights that VPNs are designed to extend the corporate network securely to remote users. If the VPN is disconnected, authentication to internal services will fail even if the application itself launches correctly.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual further explains that restarting the PC or updating the application does not resolve network-path issues. Returning to the office is unnecessary if secure remote access is functioning as designed.

Because the error specifically indicates an inability to connect to a database—and not a corrupted application—the most logical and efficient first troubleshooting step is to confirm that the VPN is connected and authenticated.

When DHCP isn’t enabled, static IPs must be assigned manually, so the engineering team provides the IP details.

From Travis Everett – All-in-One Exam Guide:

“If DHCP is unavailable, technicians need the static IP configuration to connect devices to the network.” .

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Many modern commercial software applications (including photo editors like Adobe Photoshop) offer tiered features based on user subscriptions or license levels. If certain features are locked and prompt for a login, the issue is likely due to a missing or unassigned software license. Assigning the correct license through a centralized license management system (such as Adobe Admin Console or Microsoft 365 portal) will enable those features.

B. VPN connection does not affect local software licensing.

C. Repairing the application does not resolve license entitlement.

D. Reinstalling the software won’t help unless the license is assigned.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Thepowercfg commandis a built-in utility for controlling power settings including hibernation. It can be used in scripts and does not require domain access.

FromQUENTIN DOCTER - COMPTIA A+ COMPLETE study GUIDE:

“The powercfg command provides granular control of power settings, useful for scripting and configuring systems without Group Policy access.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) requires at least two different types of authentication factors:

Something you know (e.g., password or PIN)

Something you have (e.g., smartphone or hardware token)

Something you are (e.g., fingerprint or facial recognition)

Option A, sending a code to the user’s phone, is an example of "something you have" — a physical device that receives a one-time passcode. Combined with a password, this forms a proper MFA implementation.

B. Date of birth is another knowledge-based factor (like a password), not a second factor type.

C. Solving a math problem is not a recognized authentication factor.

D. A PIN is also "something you know" and does not count as a distinct MFA factor when paired with a password.

The correct answer is C. Change the User Account Control (UAC) settings, because the credential prompt during installation indicates that the system is requesting administrative privileges. In Windows environments, UAC is designed to prevent unauthorized system changes by prompting for administrator approval when elevated permissions are required.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, UAC acts as a security boundary between standard user activities and system-level changes such as software installation. If a user does not have sufficient privileges, the system will request administrator credentials before proceeding.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that technicians can temporarily adjust UAC settings or provide proper elevation to allow legitimate installations. This is especially common in corporate environments where users operate with standard accounts.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that restarting the computer or using a different browser does not change permission requirements. Contacting the software vendor is unnecessary when the issue is clearly related to local security controls.

Because the installation is blocked by privilege restrictions enforced by UAC, adjusting User Account Control settings or providing proper elevation is the correct and most efficient resolution, making C the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Multifactor authentication (MFA) is considered one of the most effective security measures for cloud environments. It requires users to verify their identity using two or more factors (e.g., password + phone app code), making it significantly harder for external attackers to gain access, even if the primary password is compromised.

B. Encryption is important for data protection but doesn’t prevent unauthorized logins.

C. Backups protect against data loss but don’t stop breaches.

D. Strong passwords are helpful but can still be phished or cracked — MFA adds a critical extra layer.

The correct answer is D. Enabling HTTPS-Only Mode, because HTTPS ensures that all communication between the browser and websites is encrypted using TLS (Transport Layer Security). This protects sensitive information such as usernames, passwords, and payment details from interception.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, HTTPS encrypts data in transit, preventing attackers from eavesdropping or modifying communications. HTTPS-only modes in modern browsers block or warn users when a site does not support secure connections.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide emphasizes that HTTPS is essential for protecting authentication credentials and financial information, especially on public or untrusted networks. Enforcing HTTPS-only connections ensures users cannot accidentally submit data over unencrypted HTTP.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that disabling cookies or JavaScript may break website functionality but does not guarantee encryption. Pop-up blockers address nuisance behavior, not data security.

Because the objective is to encrypt browser communications and protect sensitive data, enabling HTTPS-Only Mode is the most effective and direct solution, making D the correct answer.

A “utility failure” means the building’s AC power source has dropped out (blackout) or sagged severely, causing the workstation to lose power instantly and shut down. The best way to prevent an immediate shutdown during these events is an Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS), which contains a battery and can continue supplying AC power long enough to keep the PC running briefly and allow a graceful shutdown. Mike Meyers’ Lab Manual states that a UPS “continues to supply AC power…during both brownouts and blackouts via a battery,” preventing the computer from instantly losing power when the utility fails. Quentin Docter likewise explains that UPS devices protect against “power sags and even power outages,” using stored battery energy so the administrator (or OS integration) can safely shut down rather than crash off.

A surge suppressor protects from spikes, not outages. A redundant PSU only helps if the PSU fails, and Docter notes it cannot keep a system running during a power outage. A line voltage regulator helps stabilize voltage but doesn’t provide power when utility power is absent.

Microsoft Edge most commonly blocks “unrecognized” or “potentially unsafe” downloads through Microsoft Defender SmartScreen, which is a reputation-based protection feature integrated into Windows/Edge. When SmartScreen cannot establish trust in a downloaded file (often because the file type is commonly abused or the file has low reputation), it can warn or block the download even if the technician believes the file is legitimate. In this scenario, the technician should adjust SmartScreen settings (rather than disabling antivirus, UAC, or the firewall) to permit the download while keeping other protections intact. This aligns with Windows security management concepts: Windows includes built-in protections (Microsoft Defender and related safeguards) that can be configured through Windows Security, and technicians should tune the specific protection causing the block instead of broadly weakening system security. Also, browser security options are managed from the browser’s Settings area, reinforcing that the correct fix is changing the browser’s download/reputation protection behavior rather than network or privilege controls.

The correct answer is C. The default gateway is not set, and this is clearly indicated by the ipconfig output showing the Default Gateway: 0.0.0.0. In TCP/IP networking, the default gateway is the router address that allows a workstation to communicate with networks outside its local subnet, including the internet. Without a valid default gateway, a device can only communicate with other devices on the same local network.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, a missing or incorrect default gateway is one of the most common causes of a system being unable to access external resources. The guide explains that when a destination IP address is outside the local subnet, the workstation forwards the traffic to the default gateway. If no gateway is defined, the traffic has nowhere to go and is dropped.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide reinforces that an IP address such as 10.203.10.22 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 is valid for internal communication. The DNS suffix comptia.org is also not responsible for routing failures. DNS resolves names to IP addresses, but routing still requires a gateway.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual further clarifies that a subnet mask error would prevent even local communication, which is not indicated here. Because only external websites are unreachable, the absence of a default gateway is the definitive root cause.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Resource Monitor provides real-time monitoring of system performance and resource usage, including CPU, memory, disk, and network usage. It helps technicians identify performance bottlenecks (e.g., high memory or CPU usage) that can cause slowdowns in applications over time without producing crash errors.

A. Reliability history logs application crashes or errors — not helpful if the app doesn’t crash.

B. Computer Management is a broad utility with limited real-time monitoring capability.

D. Disk is too vague — tools like CHKDSK can help with disk errors but not general performance degradation.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Linux is an open-source operating system that is freely available and does not require traditional licensing fees. It is highly versatile and scalable, making it suitable for both workstations and servers. Many enterprise environments use Linux to reduce software costs and benefit from robust server features.

B. Windows requires per-device or per-user licensing for both workstation and server editions.

C. macOS is proprietary and limited to Apple hardware with licensing restrictions.

D. Chrome OS is designed for lightweight devices and lacks server functionality.

The correct answer is A. SOP (Standard Operating Procedure) because SOPs are specifically designed to document roles, responsibilities, workflows, and support expectations for systems and applications within an organization. When deploying a new application, clear documentation is essential to ensure consistent support, escalation, maintenance, and troubleshooting.

The Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide defines SOPs as formal documents that outline who performs specific tasks, how tasks are performed, and when escalation is required. SOPs are commonly used by IT departments to standardize support processes and ensure continuity, especially when multiple technicians or teams are involved.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that SOPs are a key component of operational maturity, ensuring that support staff understand their responsibilities and follow approved procedures when responding to incidents or service requests related to an application.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual further clarifies that documents such as NDAs focus on confidentiality, EULAs define usage rights for end users, and DRM is a technical mechanism—not a documentation framework. None of those options describe internal support roles.

Because the scenario explicitly mentions documenting roles and responsibilities, the correct and intended document type is a Standard Operating Procedure, making A the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Mobile OS updates can sometimes cause compatibility issues with specific apps, including corporate email clients. The most likely resolution is to check for and apply an update to the affected application, especially if it hasn’t been updated to support the latest OS version.

B. Registering with MDM might be required for access but wouldn’t address app crashes due to incompatibility.

C. A third-party client might help, but it’s not the best first step if the default app is expected to work.

D. Clearing the cache can help resolve some minor issues, but updating the app directly addresses compatibility concerns.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

MDR (Managed Detection and Response)provides outsourced threat monitoring and response using multiple tools. The use of athird-party providerfor protection and incident handling confirms MDR.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Study Guide:

“MDR provides 24/7 threat detection and response through outsourced experts using advanced tools across client environments.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Keychainis the built-in macOS utility that manages and stores credentials, including passwords and certificates.

According toQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Keychain Access in macOS is used for managing and storing passwords securely, similar to credential managers in Windows.”

Because the employee needs graphical interface (GUI) access to Linux servers, the best option is VNC (Virtual Network Computing). VNC is specifically designed for remote control and sharing of desktops, meaning it can present the full graphical desktop of the Linux server to the remote user and allow interaction as if they were sitting at the machine. Quentin Docter describes VNC as “a remote control tool for the sharing of desktops,” typically using TCP port 5900, and notes it is similar to RDP but is an open-source protocol; it can support encryption via plug-ins (important for secure remote use). Mike Meyers’ Lab Manual reinforces the key distinction: SSH provides command-line access, but “when you need remote access to the full graphical desktop, you need a remote desktop application,” and many of those use VNC (or RDP).

By contrast, SSH and Telnet are primarily text-console tools (Telnet is also unencrypted/insecure), and WinRM is Windows-focused remote management rather than the standard way to provide GUI access to Linux desktops.

The correct answer is B. Add the user to the local Administrators group, because this provides the necessary permissions to install software on a specific machine without granting excessive privileges across the entire domain. This approach follows the principle of least privilege while still allowing the user to perform required testing tasks.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, local administrator rights allow users to install and configure applications on a single system but do not grant access to domain-wide resources. This makes it an appropriate choice for sandboxed or test environments.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide warns against adding users to the Domain Admins group, as this grants full control over the entire Active Directory environment and poses a significant security risk. Sharing credentials or passwords violates security best practices and audit requirements.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that granting local administrative access is a common and accepted practice in controlled testing scenarios, especially when systems are isolated from production environments.

Because the goal is to allow software installation without compromising domain security, adding the user to the local Administrators group is the best and safest option, making B the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The amount of installed RAM is the key factor in determining whether a 64-bit OS is needed. A 32-bit operating system cannot effectively address more than 4GB of RAM. Since this system has 16GB of RAM, a 64-bit OS is required to utilize the full memory.

B. An Intel i7 CPU supports both 32-bit and 64-bit OS installations, so it alone doesn’t determine the need.

C. HDD size does not influence OS architecture selection.

D. Ethernet speed is a network consideration and not related to OS architecture.

The correct answer is B. Task Manager, because Task Manager allows technicians to view, manage, and terminate running processes, including those that are frozen or unresponsive. If an application process is already running but not responding, launching it again will fail until the existing process is stopped.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, Task Manager is the primary Windows tool for troubleshooting application hangs, excessive resource usage, and nonresponsive programs. Technicians can end the task and relaunch the application cleanly.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that Resource Monitor provides detailed performance metrics but is not optimized for quickly terminating frozen applications. Event Viewer logs errors but does not resolve active process issues.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that Registry Editor should never be used for live application troubleshooting due to the risk of system instability.

Because the issue involves an unresponsive background process, Task Manager is the fastest and safest tool to resolve the problem, making B the correct answer.

The correct answer is B. SSID configuration, because controlling SSID visibility and behavior directly affects which wireless networks devices can see and attempt to join. In shared office environments, multiple Wi-Fi networks may be present, increasing the risk of users accidentally connecting to the wrong network.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, SSIDs define how wireless networks are advertised and discovered. By modifying SSID settings—such as disabling broadcast or restricting auto-join behavior—technicians can prevent devices from attempting to connect to unauthorized or unintended networks.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that MDM solutions often preconfigure approved wireless profiles. Adjusting SSID configuration ensures devices only recognize and connect to sanctioned networks, reducing accidental associations and security risks.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that IP filtering, content filtering, and port forwarding are network traffic control mechanisms. They do not prevent a device from seeing or attempting to connect to nearby Wi-Fi networks.

Because the goal is to prevent accidental Wi-Fi access, not filter traffic after connection, modifying SSID configuration is the correct and most effective solution.

The correct answer is C. Switch the NIC settings from manual to automatic, which allows the computer to obtain an IP address dynamically from the DHCP server. When a static IP address is no longer required, reverting the network configuration to DHCP ensures the system integrates properly with the current network design.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, DHCP simplifies network management by automatically assigning IP addresses, subnet masks, gateways, and DNS settings. Leaving a static IP in place can cause address conflicts or connectivity issues, especially when the device is repurposed.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that DHCP reservations are used when a device must always receive the same IP address, which is unnecessary in this scenario. Creating exclusions or manually changing the static IP does not meet the requirement to remove static addressing altogether.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that switching the NIC to automatic configuration is the correct way to return a system to standard network operation and avoid manual IP management.

Because the static IP is no longer needed, enabling DHCP by setting the NIC to automatic configuration is the correct solution, making C the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

TheServicestool in Windows allows a technician to view service dependencies and status. If the print spooler can't start due to a dependency, Services is the correct tool to inspect and manage them.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“The Services console allows technicians to view, start, and configure system services, including setting recovery actions and viewing dependencies.”

The completed configuration:

1. Wireless AP (LAN side)

1. LAN IP: 192.168.10.1

2. Encryption: WPA2 PSK

2. Router (port-forward rule)

1. Allow TCP Any 3389

This forwards inbound RDP traffic (TCP/3389) from the Internet to the Windows PC, enabling Remote Desktop access.

3. Firewall (screened subnet side)

1. LAN IP: 10.100.0.1

4. Device placement

1. PC: place behind the router (where the port-forward rule points).

2. Game console: place on the Wireless AP (so it can use chat and extra services over WPA2 PSK).

3. Firewall: place in front of the screened subnet (with its 10.100.0.1 IP facing that subnet).

The Windows PC is placed in the screened subnet (behind the firewall) for enhanced security. Remote access to this PC requires port forwarding of TCP port 3389 (RDP), which is correctly configured through the router.

The Game Console is placed on the Wireless AP LAN, using WPA2 PSK for a secure wireless connection. Game consoles typically use peer-to-peer chat and online services that require open access without firewall restrictions, which is why the console is not placed behind the firewall.

CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Reference Points:

Objective 3.4: Given a scenario, implement best practices associated with data and device security.

Objective 2.4: Given a scenario, use appropriate tools to support and configure network settings.

Study Guide Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 2 guides recommend using screened subnets (a type of DMZ) for systems needing controlled external access, such as remote desktops, while placing gaming and media devices on less restricted networks for full functionality.

The correct answer is B. diskmgmt.msc, which opens the Disk Management console in Windows. Disk Management is the primary built-in tool used to create, delete, resize, and format disk partitions.

The Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide explains that disk partitioning is commonly used to separate data for organizational, security, and backup purposes. Disk Management allows technicians to divide a single physical drive into multiple logical volumes, such as one partition for the operating system and another for user data.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide states that diskmgmt.msc provides a graphical interface for managing partitions, drive letters, file systems, and volumes without requiring third-party tools. This makes it the preferred and safest option for partitioning tasks on Windows systems.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that tools like perfmon.msc monitor performance, lusrmgr.msc manages user accounts, and devmgmt.msc handles hardware devices. None of these tools can modify disk partitions.

Because the task specifically involves creating partitions, Disk Management is the correct and only appropriate tool, making B the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

These symptoms strongly suggest malware activity—likely from the newly installed app. The first action should be torun a malware scanto detect and isolate malicious software.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Study Guide:

“Signs of malware infection include rapid battery drain and overheating. The first step should be a malware scan using trusted mobile antivirus apps.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Just recognizing the device isn’t enough—audio output must be routed to it manuallyby setting it as the default playback device in sound settings.

FromMark Soper – Mike Meyers' Lab Manual:

“If audio is still playing through the internal speaker, verify that the Bluetooth headset is set as the default playback device. This can be configured under Windows Sound Settings.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

FAT32cannot support files larger than 4GB.NTFSsupports large file sizes and is compatible across Windows systems, making it the correct choice for transferring a 4.57GB file.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“NTFS is the preferred file system for large file transfers within Windows. FAT32 has a 4GB file size limit, which makes it unsuitable for modern use cases involving large files.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

If a system becomes unresponsive while opening a specific spreadsheet, the issue is likely tied to the file’s size or the complexity of its content (e.g., embedded formulas, macros, or graphics). High memory utilization caused by the file can lead to temporary freezing or application "Not Responding" messages. Checking the spreadsheet's file size and monitoring system memory in Task Manager will help isolate performance bottlenecks.

A. Anti-malware logs are important for security troubleshooting but less likely relevant to spreadsheet-related performance issues.

B. Workstation repair is for system-wide problems and not necessary for a single-file issue.

C. Bandwidth relates to network usage and wouldn’t impact opening a local file.

Host 2, Host 3, Host 4 , Host 5 ,Host 6, Host 7, Host 8 , Media Server - Stop All unwanted and malicious service (Persistance.j1zpxn Installer Service) from all the listed host and Media servers

Refer screenshot below on the required service started/stopped on host2, same service to be started and stopped across all host servers.

A screenshot of a computer AI-

A screenshot of a computer AI-

Issue: Limited network connectivity

Resolution: Refresh DHCP

Verify/Resolve: ipconfig

Issue (drop-down)

Limited network connectivity

Why this matches:

“Internet Down” most commonly indicates the workstation has lost valid Layer 3 connectivity (bad/expired DHCP lease, APIPA address, wrong gateway, etc.). In CompTIA A+ terms, this aligns best with limited connectivity symptoms (can’t reach internet resources).

Resolution (drop-down)

Refresh DHCP

Why this is the most efficient fix:

If the client has:

an expired lease

an APIPA address (169.254.x.x) because DHCP failed

an incorrect IP/gateway from a bad lease

…then the fastest first remediation is to renew DHCP to obtain a correct IP address, default gateway, and DNS servers. This is a standard CompTIA A+ troubleshooting action (quick, low-risk, high-success).

Verify/Resolve (drop-down)

ipconfig

Why this is the correct verification tool:

ipconfig is the primary Windows CLI tool to:

check current IP settings (ipconfig /all)

release/renew DHCP (ipconfig /release and ipconfig /renew)

confirm you received a valid IP + gateway + DNS, which is required for internet access.

What you would do (mapped to those choices)

Using ipconfig to complete “Refresh DHCP” and confirm the fix:

Check current addressing

ipconfig /all

Look for:

Valid IPv4 (not 169.254.x.x)

Valid Default Gateway

DNS servers present

Refresh the DHCP lease

ipconfig /release

ipconfig /renew

Verify outcome

Run ipconfig again to confirm:

You now have a correct IP for the network

Default gateway is populated

If the gateway/DNS populate correctly, internet access typically returns.

1st CLI Resolution

copy "C:\Program Files\Testing\msvcp100.dll" "User-PC02\C$\Windows\System32" /v /y

2nd CLI Resolution

regsvr32 msvcp100.dll

Why These Are the Correct Choices (Exam Logic)

Why the COPY command is first

The error explicitly states MSVCP100.dll is missing

Other users can run the app → the DLL exists on another system

The fastest, least disruptive fix (preferred by CompTIA) is to:

Copy the known-good DLL into C:\Windows\System32

The /v switch verifies the copy, and /y suppresses prompts — both are enterprise-safe defaults

This restores the missing runtime dependency immediately.

Why REGSVR32 is second

After copying a DLL, Windows may not recognize or properly load it

regsvr32 registers the DLL with the operating system

This ensures:

The Testing application can properly call the runtime library

The fix persists after reboot

Inbox mail 1 -Account Locked- Phishing - Report email to Information Security

Inbox mail 2 -Share your feedback - Legitimate - Perform no additional actions

Inbox mail 3 –Employee orientation - Legitimate - Perform no additional actions

Inbox mail 4 –Security Update – Spam - Report email to Information Security

Inbox mail 5 –Interview - Legitimate - Perform no additional actions

—

Ticket #8675310

Issue: Limited network connectivity

Resolution: Refresh DHCP

Verify/Resolve: ipconfig /renew

For the Low priority ticket #8675310 (“A small yellow triangle appeared in the taskbar. I am no longer able to access network resources.”), the Windows yellow triangle on the network icon is the classic indicator of limited connectivity (often caused by a bad/expired DHCP lease, APIPA address, missing default gateway, or DNS info not being assigned).

Correct PBQ Selections (Ticket #8675310)

Issue

Limited network connectivity

Why (CompTIA logic):

That yellow warning triangle means the NIC is connected at Layer 2 (link is up), but the system likely doesn’t have valid Layer 3 config (IP/gateway/DNS), so it can’t reach network resources.

Resolution

Refresh DHCP

Why this is the most efficient fix:

When a Windows PC can’t access network resources and shows “limited connectivity,” the fastest, lowest-risk fix is to renew DHCP so the PC can pull:

a valid IP address

default gateway

DNS servers

This directly resolves the most common root cause behind that icon.

Verify / Resolve

ipconfig /renew

Why this is the correct verification/remediation command:

ipconfig /renew is the direct command to request a fresh DHCP lease. After renewal, the user should regain access to network resources if DHCP was the issue.

What this fixes (what you’d expect to see)

Before the fix, the attachment (Output.txt) in these PBQs typically shows symptoms like:

169.254.x.x (APIPA) → DHCP failed

Missing/blank Default Gateway

DNS not present or incorrect

After ipconfig /renew, you should see a normal private IP (like 192.168.x.x / 10.x.x.x / 172.16-31.x.x) and a valid gateway/DNS.