N10-009 Sample Questions Answers

IPSec (Internet Protocol Security) is the best choice for secure communication over the internet, as it provides encryption, authentication, and data integrity. It is widely used in VPNs and site-to-site secure tunnels.

Breakdown of Options:

A. DCI (Data Center Interconnect) – A general term for linking data centers, but it doesn’t specify a secure tunneling protocol.

B. GRE (Generic Routing Encapsulation) – Encapsulates traffic but lacks encryption, making it less secure than IPSec.

C. VXLAN (Virtual Extensible LAN) – Used for Layer 2 network overlays, not for securing communication over the internet.

D. IPSec – ✅ Correct answer. Provides encryption, authentication, and integrity for data over the internet.

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is the primary protocol used to route traffic on the public internet. It allows ISPs and large networks to exchange routing information, making it an Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP).

Breakdown of Options:

A. BGP – Correct answer. Used for internet routing and exchanges routing information between ISPs.

B. OSPF – An Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) used for routing within an autonomous system (not the public internet).

C. EIGRP – Cisco’s proprietary IGP, used within private networks, not the public internet.

D. RIP – An older distance-vector protocol, not scalable for the internet.

A UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply) provides backup power to devices during a power outage, allowing for continuous operation and protecting against sudden shutdowns that could cause data loss or equipment damage. The document confirms:

“A UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply) is essential for maintaining power to critical devices during an outage, protecting data and ensuring continuous operation until power is restored or a safe shutdown can be performed.”

To support at least 260 hosts, you need at least 512 total IP addresses (accounting for network/broadcast overhead).

/23 (255.255.254.0) gives 510 usable IPs, ideal for 260 devices with minimal waste.

/24 (255.255.255.0) gives only 254 usable — not enough.

/22 (1022 usable) and /21 (2046 usable) would work but result in significant address waste.

???? Reference:

CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Objectives: 2.1 – Given a scenario, configure and apply IP addressing schemes.

The user’s inability to access the marketing department’s shared drives, despite having internet access, suggests a network segmentation issue. The most likely cause is an incorrect VLAN assignment. The computer is physically located on the accounting department floor, and the switchport is likely configured for the accounting VLAN, not the marketing VLAN. VLANs segment network traffic, and if the computer is in the wrong VLAN, it cannot communicate with the marketing department’s resources.

Why not Mismatched switchport duplex? Duplex mismatches cause performance issues (e.g., packet loss) but not specific access denials to shared drives.

Why not Misconfigured gateway settings? Incorrect gateway settings would prevent internet access, which the user has.

Why not SVI is assigned to the wrong IP address? A Switch Virtual Interface (SVI) with an incorrect IP address affects inter-VLAN routing, but this would likely impact multiple users, not just one.

When extending a network beyond the primary equipment location, additional access/distribution switches are typically placed in an IDF (Intermediate Distribution Frame). Network+ (N10-009) infrastructure objectives differentiate between the MDF and IDF: the MDF is the main, central wiring/equipment location (often where core switches, routers, WAN demarcation, and main cross-connects reside). As a building grows or spans multiple floors/areas, an IDF is used as a secondary wiring closet to reduce cable runs, provide local switching, and aggregate user access connections back to the MDF using backbone cabling (often fiber). This supports scalability, cable management, and performance by keeping horizontal runs within recommended distance limits.

VPC (Virtual Private Cloud) is a cloud networking construct, not a physical wiring location. VXLAN is an overlay tunneling technology used in virtualized/data center networks, not where you physically install switches. The question specifically references extending the network beyond the primary equipment location, which is a classic use case for deploying an IDF to host additional switches closer to endpoint areas while uplinking back to the MDF.

802.1X is a port-based Network Access Control (NAC) method that enforces authentication before allowing access to the network. It uses a RADIUS server for identity verification and policy enforcement, ensuring only authorized users/devices gain access.

A. Standard ACL filters traffic by IP, not identity.

B. MAC filtering controls devices by hardware address but can be spoofed.

D. SSO (Single Sign-On) provides user convenience across services, not network-level access control.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Security — NAC, 802.1X authentication, identity-based access.

A rogue DHCP server occurs when an unauthorized or misconfigured DHCP server assigns incorrect IP addresses, default gateways, or DNS settings to clients.

•In this scenario:

•The user can ping the gateway, meaning local network communication is working.

•However, they cannot access network resources, which suggests incorrect IP configuration (likely due to a rogue DHCP server assigning the wrong gateway or DNS).

•Why not the other options?

•VLAN hopping (A): This is an attack that exploits VLAN configurations to gain access to unauthorized VLANs. It would not typically cause multiple users to lose network access.

•Distributed DoS (C): A DDoS attack floods a network or service with traffic, but this issue is more likely misconfigured IP settings than an actual attack.

•Evil twin (D): This refers to a fraudulent Wi-Fi network mimicking a legitimate one. Since the users are on a wired network (ipconfig output checked), this is not applicable.

•The issue described is a network bottleneck due to increased traffic after a merger.

•A collapsed core architecture consolidates the core and distribution layers into a single layer to improve efficiency and reduce latency.

•Until the 40GB switch is acquired, Link Aggregation (LAG) (IEEE 802.3ad / LACP) can be used to combine multiple physical links into a single logical link, increasing bandwidth and reducing bottlenecks.

•FHRP (First Hop Redundancy Protocol) (A) is used for gateway redundancy, not link aggregation.

•Route selection metric changes (B) help with routing decisions but don’t address physical link congestion.

•Load balancers (C) distribute traffic for applications, not network links.

????Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Documentation – Network Architecture and Performance Optimization.

A modern replacement for traditional remote-access VPN for users is SASE (Secure Access Service Edge). Network+ highlights trends in remote connectivity and security where organizations move away from backhauling all user traffic through a VPN concentrator and instead use cloud-delivered security and access controls closer to the user. SASE combines networking and security capabilities—commonly including ZTNA (Zero Trust Network Access), secure web gateway (SWG), CASB, firewall-as-a-service (FWaaS), and centralized policy enforcement—so remote users can securely access applications without relying on a classic “connect to the corporate network first” VPN model.

SD-WAN primarily optimizes connectivity between sites and to cloud services, often for branch networks; it’s not typically the direct replacement for remote user VPN access. Site-to-site VPN connects networks (locations) and is not intended for individual remote users. A reverse proxy can publish specific internal web applications externally and provide some security functions, but it does not replace VPN broadly for remote user access to multiple internal resources the way SASE/Zero Trust access solutions do. Therefore, SASE is the best answer as the likely replacement for traditional remote-access VPN.

Multi-factor authentication (MFA) requires two or more different categories of authentication factors:

Something you know (password, PIN)

Something you have (smart card, hardware token)

Something you are (biometric)

The only valid second factor here is a hard token (e.g., a key fob generating one-time codes).

A. PIN is still “something you know,” the same category as a password.

B. Favorite color is a weak knowledge-based factor, not a true second factor.

D. Mother’s maiden name is also “something you know” and insecure.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Security — Authentication methods, MFA factor categories.

Jumbo frames are Ethernet frames with a payload greater than the standard 1,500 bytes. Using jumbo frames reduces the number of frames transmitted over the network, thereby reducing the overhead associated with frame headers and processing. The document explains:

“Jumbo frames are used in storage networks to reduce device overhead by lowering the number of frames required for data transfer, which can increase overall throughput and performance.”

Quality of Service (QoS): This is a feature used in networking to prioritize certain types of traffic. By configuring QoS, network administrators can allocate higher bandwidth to time-sensitive applications like VoIP, video conferencing, or critical business applications during peak usage times. This helps to reduce latency and packet loss, which are often caused by congestion.

Load Balancing (A): While load balancing is useful in distributing traffic across multiple servers or paths, it does not address congestion on a single switch.

Port Mirroring (B): This is used for monitoring network traffic for troubleshooting and diagnostics but does not alleviate congestion.

Spanning Tree Protocol (D): STP prevents switching loops in redundant network topologies, but it is not designed to handle traffic prioritization or congestion issues.

To support about 800 workstations with minimal IP waste, you choose the smallest subnet that provides at least 800 usable host addresses. In IPv4, usable hosts per subnet are calculated as 2^(host bits) − 2 (subtracting network and broadcast addresses). A /22 leaves 10 host bits (32 − 22 = 10), providing 2^10 − 2 = 1024 − 2 = 1022 usable addresses—enough for 800 devices with relatively low waste.

Check the other options: /23 leaves 9 host bits, giving 2^9 − 2 = 512 − 2 = 510 usable addresses, which is not enough. A /21 provides 2^11 − 2 = 2048 − 2 = 2046 usable addresses—enough, but wastes more than /22. A /20 provides 2^12 − 2 = 4096 − 2 = 4094 usable addresses—much more waste.

Therefore, 10.0.100.0/22 is the best choice that meets the workstation requirement while minimizing unused addresses.

A mesh network is the best solution for providing reliable wireless service to public safety vehicles. In a mesh network, each node (vehicle) can connect to multiple other nodes, providing multiple paths for data to travel. This enhances reliability and redundancy, ensuring continuous connectivity even if one or more nodes fail. Mesh networks are highly resilient and are well-suited for dynamic and mobile environments such as public safety operations.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials.

The CompTIA troubleshooting methodology includes steps like identifying the problem, establishing a theory of probable cause, testing the theory, creating a plan of action, implementing the solution, verifying functionality, and documenting findings. Establishing a theory involves analyzing the problem and considering possible causes, often by systematically checking each level of the OSI model (Physical, Data Link, Network, etc.) to pinpoint the root cause.

Why not Implement the solution? This step involves applying the fix, not analyzing the OSI model.

Why not Create a plan of action? This step focuses on planning the solution, not diagnosing the cause.

Why not Verify functionality? This step confirms the solution worked, not analyzing the OSI model.

Tailgating is a physical security breach where someone follows an authorized person into a restricted area without proper credentials. Once inside, the attacker can install rogue devices like unauthorized APs.

A. Evil twin is a wireless attack where an attacker sets up a fake AP.

B. Honeytrap is used to attract attackers for analysis.

C. Wardriving involves scanning for unsecured Wi-Fi networks while driving, not physical intrusion.

???? Reference:

CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Objectives: 4.2 – Identify common security threats and vulnerabilities.

A site-to-site VPN is used to securely connect two networks over an untrusted network, most commonly the public internet. In Network+ (N10-009) objectives, VPNs are described as providing confidentiality and integrity for data in transit by creating an encrypted tunnel between sites (for example, headquarters and a branch office). This allows systems at both locations to communicate as if on the same private WAN, while preventing eavesdropping or tampering by intermediate networks. Typical implementations use IPsec tunneling and rely on negotiated encryption/authentication parameters to protect traffic end-to-end between VPN gateways.

Encrypting data at rest refers to storage encryption (disk/database), not VPN tunneling. Filtering traffic between two internal subnets is usually handled by ACLs, firewalls, or segmentation controls, not a site-to-site VPN. Hosting public-facing applications is a DMZ / reverse proxy / WAF design concern; a VPN is not the primary control for exposing public services (and generally you would not require the public to use a VPN to reach a public website). Therefore, securing site connectivity across an untrusted network is the best match.

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UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is a connectionless protocol that does not provide built-in mechanisms for error detection, retransmission, or acknowledgments. If a UDP packet is lost in transit, the protocol itself does not handle retransmission. However, some applications using UDP (e.g., TFTP or custom streaming protocols) may implement their own mechanisms to detect packet loss and request retransmission if needed.

Why not A? The data link layer (Layer 2) handles frame-level errors within a single network segment, not end-to-end packet loss across networks.

Why not B? The IP TTL (Time to Live) field prevents routing loops by decrementing with each hop, but IP does not handle retransmission.

Why not C? UDP does not use acknowledgments, so the sender does not expect or receive them.

The correct answer is Load balancer because it is specifically designed to distribute incoming network traffic across multiple backend servers that provide the same application or service. According to CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) objectives under network infrastructure, load balancing improves performance, scalability, and high availability by preventing any single server from becoming overwhelmed.

A load balancer can operate at Layer 4 (transport layer, based on IP address and port) or Layer 7 (application layer, based on content such as HTTP headers or URLs). It uses various algorithms such as round-robin, least connections, or weighted distribution to efficiently allocate client requests among servers. If one server fails, the load balancer can redirect traffic to healthy servers, ensuring service continuity.

A router (Option A) forwards packets between different networks but does not distribute traffic among servers running the same application. A switch (Option B) forwards frames within a local network based on MAC addresses. A firewall (Option C) filters traffic based on security rules but does not perform traffic distribution for load-sharing purposes.

Therefore, a load balancer is the correct solution for redistributing traffic among multiple servers.

Definition of GDPR:

General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a regulation in EU law on data protection and privacy for all individuals within the European Union and the European Economic Area. It also addresses the transfer of personal data outside the EU and EEA areas.

Scope and Objectives:

GDPR aims to give individuals control over their personal data and to simplify the regulatory environment for international business by unifying the regulation within the EU.

It enforces rules about data protection, requiring companies to protect the personal data and privacy of EU citizens for transactions that occur within EU member states.

Comparison with Other Options:

SCADA (Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition): Refers to control systems used in industrial and infrastructure processes, not related to personal data protection.

SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language): A standard for exchanging authentication and authorization data between parties, not specifically for personal data protection.

PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard): A set of security standards designed to ensure that all companies that accept, process, store or transmit credit card information maintain a secure environment, not specific to personal data protection in Europe.

Key Provisions:

GDPR includes provisions for data processing, data subject rights, obligations of data controllers and processors, and penalties for non-compliance.

MIB (Management Information Base): A MIB is a database used for managing the entities in a communication network. The MIB is used by Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) to translate events into a readable format, enabling network administrators to manage and monitor network devices effectively.

Function of MIB: MIBs contain definitions and information about all objects that can be managed on a network using SNMP. These objects are defined using a hierarchical namespace containing object identifiers (OIDs).

CompTIA Network+ materials discussing SNMP and MIB functionality​​.

The three-tier hierarchical model in network design consists of three layers: access, distribution, and core. The access layer is where devices like PCs and printers connect to the network. The distribution layer aggregates the data received from the access layer switches before it is transmitted to the core layer, which is responsible for high-speed data transfer and routing. This approach improves scalability and performance in larger networks. References: CompTIA Network+ Exam Objectives and official study guides.

Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is designed to detect and prevent Layer 2 loops by blocking redundant paths. If loops are possible in the design, enabling STP ensures network stability.

B. Port security controls endpoint MAC addresses, not loops.

C. Speed limits address bandwidth, not loop prevention.

D. 802.1Q tagging allows VLAN separation but does not resolve loops.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Operations — Loop prevention, spanning tree, switch design.

A captive portal is designed to present terms, conditions, or usage rules to users and require them to acknowledge/accept those rules before granting network or internet access. In Network+ (N10-009) security and access control concepts, captive portals are commonly associated with guest wireless or public access scenarios, where users are redirected to a web page that displays acceptable-use language and requires a click-through acceptance (and sometimes authentication). This provides a technical enforcement point: users must actively accept the rules to proceed, which supports organizational policy compliance and creates a recordable control in many implementations.

An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) is the document that defines the rules, but by itself it does not technically force a user to acknowledge them at the time of access. NAC controls who/what can connect and can enforce posture and segmentation, but it does not inherently ensure users “accept” usage rules unless paired with a portal workflow. DNS filtering blocks or allows domain access categories (malware, adult content, etc.), which enforces browsing restrictions but does not guarantee user acceptance of rules. Therefore, the best answer to ensure users accept the rules is captive portal.

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A Content Delivery Network (CDN) stores cached versions of content in edge locations to deliver data faster and more reliably to users based on geographical proximity.

From Andrew Ramdayal’s guide:

“CDNs distribute content to multiple, geographically dispersed servers. This enhances performance and reliability for end-users by reducing latency and load times.”

A /21 subnet mask means 21 bits are network bits:

8 + 8 + 5 = 21 → leaves 11 bits for hosts.

Subnet mask in binary: 11111111.11111111.11111000.00000000

Converted to decimal: 255.255.248.0

Therefore:

A. /19 = 255.255.224.0

B. /20 = 255.255.240.0

✅ C. /21 = 255.255.248.0 ← correct

D. /22 = 255.255.252.0

Answer correction: The correct option is C. 255.255.248.0, not B.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Networking Concepts — Subnetting, CIDR notation, dotted decimal masks.

To provide a complete solution for configuring the access layer switches, let's proceed with the following steps:

Identify the correct VLANs for each device and port.

Enable necessary ports and disable unused ports.

Configure fault-tolerant connections between the switches.

Port 1 Configuration (Uplink to Core Switch)

Status: Enabled

LACP: Enabled

Speed: 1000

Duplex: Full

VLAN Configuration: Tagged for VLAN60, VLAN90, VLAN120, VLAN150, VLAN220

Port 2 Configuration (Uplink to Core Switch)

Status: Enabled

LACP: Enabled

Speed: 1000

Duplex: Full

VLAN Configuration: Tagged for VLAN60, VLAN90, VLAN120, VLAN150, VLAN220

Port 3 Configuration (Server Connection)

Status: Enabled

LACP: Disabled

Speed: 1000

Duplex: Full

VLAN Configuration: Untagged for VLAN90 (Servers)

Port 4 Configuration (Server Connection)

Status: Enabled

LACP: Disabled

Speed: 1000

Duplex: Full

VLAN Configuration: Untagged for VLAN90 (Servers)

Port 5 Configuration (Wired Users and WLAN)

Status: Enabled

LACP: Enabled

Speed: 1000

Duplex: Full

VLAN Configuration: Tagged for VLAN60, VLAN120, VLAN150

Port 6 Configuration (Wired Users and WLAN)

Status: Enabled

LACP: Enabled

Speed: 1000

Duplex: Full

VLAN Configuration: Tagged for VLAN60, VLAN120, VLAN150

Port 7 Configuration (Voice and Wired Users)

Status: Enabled

LACP: Enabled

Speed: 1000

Duplex: Full

VLAN Configuration: Tagged for VLAN60, VLAN90, VLAN120, VLAN220

Port 8 Configuration (Voice, Printers, and Wired Users)

Status: Enabled

LACP: Enabled

Speed: 1000

Duplex: Full

VLAN Configuration: Tagged for VLAN60, VLAN90, VLAN120, VLAN220

Port 1 Configuration (Unused)

Status: Disabled

LACP: Disabled

Port 2 Configuration (Unused)

Status: Disabled

LACP: Disabled

Port 3 Configuration (Connection to Device)

Status: Enabled

LACP: Disabled

Speed: 1000

Duplex: Full

VLAN Configuration: Untagged for VLAN1 (Default)

Port 4 Configuration (Connection to Device)

Status: Enabled

LACP: Disabled

Speed: 1000

Duplex: Full

VLAN Configuration: Untagged for VLAN1 (Default)

Port 5 Configuration (Connection to Device)

Status: Enabled

LACP: Disabled

Speed: 1000

Duplex: Full

VLAN Configuration: Untagged for VLAN1 (Default)

Port 6 Configuration (Connection to Device)

Status: Enabled

LACP: Disabled

Speed: 1000

Duplex: Full

VLAN Configuration: Untagged for VLAN1 (Default)

Port 7 Configuration (Connection to Device)

Status: Enabled

LACP: Disabled

Speed: 1000

Duplex: Full

VLAN Configuration: Untagged for VLAN1 (Default)

Ports 1 and 2 on Switch 1 are configured as trunk ports with VLAN tagging enabled for all necessary VLANs.

Ports 3 and 4 on Switch 1 are configured for server connections with VLAN 90 untagged.

Ports 5, 6, 7, and 8 on Switch 1 are configured for devices needing access to multiple VLANs.

Unused ports on Switch 3 are disabled.

Ports 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7 on Switch 3 are enabled for default VLAN1.

Core Switch Ports should be configured as needed for uplinks to Switch 1.

Ensure LACP is enabled for redundancy on trunk ports between switches.

By following these configurations, each device will access only its correctly associated network, unused switch ports will be disabled, and fault-tolerant connections will be established between the switches.

Content filtering can be used to block or restrict access to websites and services that facilitate torrenting and other prohibited activities. By implementing content filtering, the company can comply with the ISP's cease-and-desist order and prevent users from accessing torrent sites and engaging in prohibited activities.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials.

A transceiver is the correct answer because it is the Layer 1 (Physical Layer) component that physically terminates and converts fiber-optic signals on an SFP-capable switch. In CompTIA Network+ N10-009 objectives, transceivers—such as SFP, SFP+, QSFP, and QSFP+ modules—are explicitly identified as physical interface components that handle signal transmission and reception. These modules convert electrical signals from the switch into optical signals for fiber cabling (and vice versa), enabling communication over different media types and distances.

A modem is also a Layer 1 device, but its purpose is to modulate and demodulate signals for WAN technologies such as DSL or cable—it does not terminate fiber connections on switches. An Ethernet NIC provides network access for end devices like computers and servers and typically terminates copper Ethernet, not modular fiber interfaces on switches. A repeater regenerates and amplifies signals to extend cable distances but does not provide fiber termination or media conversion at a switch port.

According to Network+ standards, SFP transceivers are essential for flexible network design, allowing administrators to select appropriate fiber types (single-mode or multi-mode), wavelengths, and distances while remaining compliant with physical layer requirements.

When installing equipment in a building, environmental factors are critical to ensure the safety and longevity of the equipment. A fire suppression system is essential to protect the equipment from fire hazards. Humidity control is crucial to prevent moisture-related damage, such ascorrosion and short circuits, which can adversely affect electronic components. Both factors are vital for maintaining an optimal environment for networking equipment.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials.

A TXT record can be used to store SPF (Sender Policy Framework) and DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail) information, which help verify that an email has been sent from a trusted source.

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In a split-tunnel VPN, only corporate traffic is sent through the VPN tunnel, while public internet traffic goes directly through the user’s local ISP. This reduces bandwidth use on the corporate VPN concentrator and improves performance for non-work traffic.

B. Separate tunnels for encrypted traffic describes multi-tunnel VPNs, not split tunneling.

C. All traffic routed through on-site servers is a full-tunnel VPN, not split-tunnel.

D. ACLs balancing traffic relates to routing or load balancing, not VPN split tunneling.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Networking Concepts — VPN types, split vs. full tunnel, remote access.

To locate a specific access point (AP), the most reliable identifier to view is the BSSID. In 802.11 networks, the BSSID is the radio interface identifier for the AP (typically the AP radio’s MAC address). Unlike an SSID, which can be shared across many APs in the same wireless network (especially in an enterprise deployment using the same SSID across multiple APs), the BSSID uniquely distinguishes one AP radio from another. This is critical during an 802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6) migration, where multiple APs may broadcast identical SSIDs and operate on the same channels in different areas.

While RSSI is useful for physically walking toward the strongest signal (a technique used in locating RF sources), RSSI alone does not confirm you are tracking the correct AP—only that you are near an RF transmitter. Channel number also does not uniquely identify the AP because multiple APs can share the same channel (and channels may overlap depending on band and width). SSID similarly is not unique. Therefore, viewing the BSSID on the analyzer (or Wi-Fi analyzer mode) allows the administrator to confirm the exact AP being measured and located.

A Change Advisory Board (CAB) reviews and approves network changes. Before approval, they need a detailed action plan outlining the change, potential impacts, and mitigation strategies.

A Plan of Action includes risk assessments, rollback procedures, and deployment steps, which are critical for decision-making.

? Reference: CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) Official Study Guide – Section: Network Troubleshooting Methodologies

802.11ax, also known as Wi-Fi 6, is designed for high-density environments and improves device saturation and coverage compared to previous standards.

802.11ac: While it offers high throughput, it is not optimized for high-density environments as effectively as 802.11ax.

802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6): Introduces features like OFDMA, MU-MIMO, and BSS Coloring, which enhance performance in crowded environments, reduce latency, and increase the number of devices that can be connected simultaneously.

802.11g and 802.11n: Older standards that do not offer the same level of efficiency or support for high device density as 802.11ax.

Network References:

CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Covers the 802.11 standards and their capabilities.

Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on Wi-Fi technologies and best practices for high-density deployments.

Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Discusses the various 802.11 standards and their applications in different environments.

In the router route selection process, the first priority is the longest prefix match, also known as prefix length. According to CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) routing concepts, routers examine the destination IP address in the packet and compare it to entries in the routing table. When multiple routes exist, the router selects the route with the most specific match, meaning the route with the longest subnet mask (largest number of matching bits). For example, a /30 route is preferred over a /24, and a /24 is preferred over a /16 if all match the destination.

Only after the longest prefix match is determined do other factors come into play. Administrative distance (AD) is used to determine which routing source is more trustworthy when the same network is learned from different routing protocols (e.g., OSPF vs. RIP). Metric is then used within the same routing protocol to determine the best path (e.g., hop count, cost, bandwidth). A default route (0.0.0.0/0) is used only when no more specific match exists.

Therefore, prefix length is always evaluated first in route selection.

802.1X provides port-based Network Access Control (NAC). Ports remain in a blocked state until a device authenticates (usually with RADIUS). This is ideal for public or semi-public areas where ports should not be “always on.”

A. Port security restricts by MAC addresses but does not authenticate users.

C. MAC filtering is easily spoofed and weaker than 802.1X.

D. ACLs filter traffic but do not enforce port-based authentication.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Security — NAC, 802.1X authentication, port-based security.

The issue is that no root bridge has been identified. In STP, a root bridge is necessary to manage redundant paths and avoid loops in the network. Without a root bridge, all switches will assume they can forward traffic, causing a network loop and connectivity problems.

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An IDS (Intrusion Detection System) is deployed out-of-band, meaning it passively monitors network traffic using a SPAN/mirror port or network tap. It detects and analyzes suspicious traffic without introducing latency since it does not sit in-line.

A. IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) is in-line and can block traffic but may add latency.

C. Load balancer distributes traffic across servers for performance and redundancy, not for threat detection.

D. Firewall filters traffic at the perimeter or internally; it can affect latency but does not provide the same in-depth attack analysis.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Security — IDS vs. IPS, in-band vs. out-of-band monitoring, passive detection methods.

The first step in any troubleshooting process is to identify the problem. This includes gathering information from the user, reviewing logs, and observing the symptoms. In this case, identifying the scope and nature of the issue (e.g., signs of ransomware) is critical before forming any theories or plans.

From Andrew Ramdayal’s guide:

“The troubleshooting methodology begins with identifying the problem. This step involves questioning users, identifying user changes, and determining the symptoms.”

nmap (Network Mapper) is the best tool in this scenario. It can scan the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet to discover live hosts, open ports (like Telnet on port 23), and device types. It’s ideal for mapping and auditing the network.

A. dig is a DNS lookup tool; not useful for identifying hosts on a subnet.

C. tracert shows the path packets take to a destination, not for host discovery.

D. telnet is the protocol being used, not a tool for scanning or identifying devices.

???? Reference:

CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Objectives: 5.1 – Given a scenario, use the appropriate network troubleshooting tools.

Network segmentation involves dividing a network into smaller segments or subnets. This is particularly important when integrating OT (Operational Technology) devices to ensure that these devices are isolated from other parts of the network. Segmentation helps protect the OT devices from potential threats and minimizes the impact of any security incidents. It also helps manage traffic and improves overall network performance.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials.

Multimode fiber optic cables involve the transmission of light signals that bounce off the core's cladding as they travel down the fiber. This characteristic differentiates it from single-mode fiber, where the light travels directly down the fiber without reflecting off the cladding.

Here are some detailed points about multimode fiber cables:

Construction: Multimode fibers have a larger core diameter, typically 50 or 62.5 microns, compared to single-mode fibers, which have a core diameter of about 9 microns.

Light Propagation: The larger core of multimode fiber allows multiple light modes to propagate. These modes travel at different angles, leading to reflections off the core-cladding boundary.

Distance and Bandwidth: Due to modal dispersion, where different light modes arrive at the receiver at different times, multimode fibers are suited for shorter distance applications compared to single-mode fibers. Typical distances are up to 550 meters for 10 Gbps Ethernet using OM4 multimode fiber.

Applications: Multimode fibers are commonly used in LANs (Local Area Networks), data centers, and for shorter distance data transmission due to their cost-effectiveness and ease of installation.

Network References:

CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide, which covers fiber optic technologies, including the differences between multimode and single-mode fibers.

Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training materials and reference guides on the properties of different fiber optic cables.

Fiber Optic Association (FOA): A professional society dedicated to fiber optics, offering extensive information and certification on fiber optic technologies.

Multimode fibers are specifically designed for short-range communication with higher data rates and are typically used in environments like data centers, where high bandwidth over shorter distances is crucial. The reflections off the cladding, inherent to multimode fiber, facilitate this high-capacity communication.

DHCP snooping is a security feature on network switches that helps to prevent unauthorized (rogue) DHCP servers from assigning IP addresses to clients. By implementing DHCP snooping, the network administrator can restrict DHCP responses to authorized servers only, preventing unauthorized DHCP configurations, such as incorrect DNS IPs, from being assigned to clients. This helps prevent man-in-the-middle attacks where malicious actors misconfigure DNS to redirect users to fraudulent sites. (Reference: CompTIA Network+ Study Guide, Chapter on Network Security)

Understanding End-of-Support:

End-of-Support Status: When a vendor declares a device as end-of-support, it means the device will no longer receive updates, patches, or technical support. This poses a security risk as new vulnerabilities will not be addressed.

Risks of Keeping an End-of-Support Device:

Security Vulnerabilities: Without updates, the switch becomes susceptible to new security threats.

Compliance Issues: Many regulatory frameworks require that critical infrastructure be maintained with supported and secure hardware.

Best Next Step - Replacement:

Decommission and Replace: The most secure approach is to replace the end-of-support switch with a new, supported model. This ensures the infrastructure remains secure and compliant with current standards.

Planning and Execution: Plan for the replacement by evaluating the network's needs, selecting a suitable replacement switch, and scheduling downtime for the hardware swap.

Comparison with Other Options:

Apply the Latest Patches: While helpful, this does not address future vulnerabilities since no further patches will be provided.

Ensure the Current Firmware Has No Issues: This is only a temporary measure and does not mitigate future risks.

Isolate the Switch from the Network: Isolating the switch may disrupt network operations and is not a viable long-term solution.

A system has reachedend-of-supportwhen thevendor no longer provides patches, updates, or bug fixes. This significantly increases the risk of security vulnerabilities and is a major operational concern.

Introduction to Disaster Recovery Concepts:

Disaster recovery involves strategies and measures to ensure business continuity and data recovery in the event of a disaster.

Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF):

MTBF is a reliability metric used to predict the time between failures of a system during operation. It is calculated by dividing the total operational time by the number of failures.

Formula: MTBF=Total Operational TimeNumber of Failures\text{MTBF} = \frac{\text{Total Operational Time}}{\text{Number of Failures}}MTBF=Number of FailuresTotal Operational Time​

This metric helps in understanding the reliability and expected lifespan of systems and components.

Example Calculation:

If a server operates for 1000 hours and experiences 2 failures, the MTBF is: MTBF=1000 hours2=500 hours\text{MTBF} = \frac{1000 \text{ hours}}{2} = 500 \text{ hours}MTBF=21000 hours​=500 hours

Explanation of the Options:

A. MTTR (Mean Time to Repair): The average time required to repair a system after a failure.

B. MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures): The correct answer, representing the average time between failures.

C. RPO (Recovery Point Objective): The maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time.

D. RTO (Recovery Time Objective): The target time set for the recovery of IT and business activities after a disaster.

Conclusion:

MTBF is a crucial metric in disaster recovery and system reliability, helping organizations plan maintenance and predict system performance.

In a data center that uses hot aisle/cold aisle ventilation, equipment is typically installed so that cool air enters from the cold aisle (front) and hot air is exhausted to the hot aisle (rear). This configuration maximizes cooling efficiency.

VLAN hopping is an attack where an attacker crafts packets with multiple VLAN tags, allowing them to traverse VLAN boundaries improperly. This can result in gaining unauthorized access to network segments that are supposed to be isolated. The other options do not involve the use of multiple network tags. MAC flooding aims to overwhelm a switch’s MAC address table, DNS spoofing involves forging DNS responses, and ARP poisoning involves sending fake ARP messages.

The correct answer is Platform as a Service (PaaS). PaaS provides developers with a ready-to-use platform that includes runtime environments, developer tools, middleware, and database services. Developers can focus on writing code while the provider handles security patches, updates, and infrastructure management.

A. CaaS (Containers as a Service) focuses on deploying and managing containerized applications, not providing full developer platforms.

B. IaaS delivers virtual machines, storage, and networking, but administrators must install and maintain the OS, middleware, and updates.

D. SaaS provides end-user applications (e.g., email, CRM), not platforms for development.

By using PaaS, the developers can build applications quickly and cost-effectively without worrying about underlying infrastructure or system maintenance.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Networking Concepts — Cloud service models (IaaS, PaaS, SaaS, CaaS).

Single-mode fiber is best suited for long-distance communication, often exceeding 10 km (6.2 miles). It's immune to EMI and offers high bandwidth — making it the ideal choice for connecting buildings across a city.

Coaxial (A) and Twinaxial (B) are used for shorter distances and specific use cases (e.g., storage or legacy systems).

Cat 5 (D) is limited to 100 meters and is not suitable for city-level interconnects.

✅ For long-distance, high-speed, and reliable communication between buildings, Single-mode fiber is the professional choice.

The best answer is SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol). SNMP enables monitoring of network devices (routers, switches, firewalls, servers) and provides performance data such as CPU usage, bandwidth utilization, and interface status. In this scenario, if SNMP monitoring had been in place, administrators would have received alerts that the router was overutilized before customers noticed outages.

A. Packet capture (e.g., Wireshark) is useful for deep troubleshooting but is reactive, not proactive, and not scalable for continuous monitoring.

C. Syslog collects log messages but generally does not provide proactive resource utilization metrics. It is complementary but not the best fit for this problem.

D. SIEM aggregates logs and security events for analysis, but the primary requirement here is performance and availability monitoring.

By implementing SNMP monitoring (and potentially integrating it with a network monitoring tool such as Nagios, PRTG, or SolarWinds), the organization can track utilization trends, set thresholds, and automatically generate alerts, thereby preventing downtime from going unnoticed.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Operations — SNMP monitoring, proactive network performance management.

An 802.11ac wireless bridge is the most practical solution to connect two nearby buildings without trenching or laying physical cable. It provides high-speed, point-to-point connectivity using directional antennas.

A. Multimode fiber is effective but expensive and typically limited to 500 meters or less.

C. Cat 6 copper is only rated for up to 100 meters — not viable for a street-wide distance.

D. Loopback adapter is a troubleshooting tool, not for network extension.

???? Reference:

CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Objectives: 1.3 – Compare and contrast various network topologies, types, and technologies.

VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) segment network traffic by department, allowing ACLs (Access Control Lists) to be applied based on VLAN membership, improving security and resource isolation.

Breakdown of Options:

A. VLAN – Correct answer. VLANs enable logical network segmentation, allowing ACLs per department.

B. DHCP – Assigns IP addresses but does not control access.

C. VPN – Provides remote access, not segmentation within a network.

D. STP – Prevents switching loops, not related to ACL implementation.

The correct answer is Static because static routes have a lower administrative distance (AD) than most dynamic routing protocols, giving them higher priority when a router selects routes for the same destination network. According to CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) routing objectives, administrative distance is used to determine the trustworthiness of a route source when multiple routing protocols provide a path to the same subnet. The lower the administrative distance, the more preferred the route.

By default, a static route has an administrative distance of 1, which is lower than OSPF (110) and BGP (20 for eBGP, 200 for iBGP). Because of this, when identical routes to a subnet exist from both static and dynamic sources, the router installs the static route in the routing table.

A default route (0.0.0.0/0) is only used when no more specific route exists and does not take precedence over specific static or dynamic routes.

Therefore, when building the routing table for a given subnet and comparing route sources, static routes take precedence due to their lower administrative distance.

Twinaxial (Direct Attach Copper / DAC) cables can plug directly into QSFP ports without needing separate optical transceivers. They are cost-effective for short-distance, high-speed connections (commonly in data centers).

A. Multimode fiber requires SFP/QSFP transceivers to convert electrical signals to optical.

C. RG11 is coaxial cable for broadband/cable TV, not used in QSFP ports.

D. Category 6 is twisted-pair Ethernet cabling, not directly compatible with QSFP ports.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Infrastructure — Cable types, QSFP, DAC (Twinaxial), transceiver requirements.

Routers determine the best route to a destination using longest prefix match. This means the router chooses the route entry with the most specific matching network prefix for the destination IP address. For example, if a routing table contains 10.1.0.0/16 and 10.1.2.0/24, a packet destined to 10.1.2.50 matches both entries, but the router prefers /24 because it is more specific (longer mask). Network+ (N10-009) routing fundamentals emphasize that route selection begins with prefix length specificity before considering other factors within the same prefix length (such as administrative distance and metric, depending on the platform).

“Shortest prefix match” is the opposite of correct behavior. “Routes learned from EIGRP” and “routes learned from OSPF” describe sources of routes, not the general selection rule routers use when multiple matching routes exist. Even if routes come from different protocols, the router still applies selection logic; the universal rule for matching destination networks is longest prefix match. Hence, option C is correct.

Disabling unused ports prevents unauthorized access and reduces the attack surface by ensuring that no inactive or unmonitored entry points are available for exploitation. Changing default passwords is critical for security because default credentials are widely known and can easily be exploited by attackers. These techniques are fundamental steps in hardening devices against unauthorized access and ensuring network security. References: CompTIA Network+ Exam Objectives and official study guides.

(Note: Ips will be change on each simulation task, so we have given example answer for the understanding)

To troubleshoot all the network components and review the cable test results, you can use the following steps:

Click on each device and cable to open its information window.

Review the information and identify any problems or errors that may affect the network connectivity or performance.

Diagnose the appropriate component(s) by identifying any components with a problem and recommend a solution to correct each problem.

Fill in the remediation form using the drop-down menus provided.

Here is an example of how to fill in the remediation form for PC1:

The component with a problem is PC1.

The problem is Incorrect IP address.

The solution is Change the IP address to 192.168.1.10.

You can use the same steps to fill in the remediation form for other components.

To enter commands in each device, you can use the following steps:

Click on the device to open its terminal window.

Enter the command ipconfig /all to display the IP configuration of the device, including its IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers.

Enter the command ping  to test the connectivity and reachability to another device on the network by sending and receiving echo packets. Replace with the IP address of the destination device, such as 192.168.1.1 for Core Switch 1.

Enter the command tracert  to trace the route and measure the latency of packets from the device to another device on the network by sending and receiving packets with increasing TTL values. Replace with the IP address of the destination device, such as 192.168.1.1 for Core Switch 1.

Here is an example of how to enter commands in PC1:

Click on PC1 to open its terminal window.

Enter the command ipconfig /all to display the IP configuration of PC1. You should see that PC1 has an incorrect IP address of 192.168.2.10, which belongs to VLAN 2 instead of VLAN 1.

Enter the command ping 192.168.1.1 to test the connectivity to Core Switch 1. You should see that PC1 is unable to ping Core Switch 1 because they are on different subnets.

Enter the command tracert 192.168.1.1 to trace the route to Core Switch 1. You should see that PC1 is unable to reach Core Switch 1 because there is no route between them.

You can use the same steps to enter commands in other devices, such as PC3, PC4, PC5, and Server 1.

In disaster recovery, the first step after an incident is to conduct a thorough damage assessment to understand the extent of the damage and determine the next appropriate steps. This allows for informed decision-making during the recovery process. The document says:

“The first step after a disaster is to conduct a damage assessment. This involves evaluating the extent of damage to equipment, infrastructure, and data, forming the foundation for recovery efforts and prioritizing response actions.”

The issue is clearly related to DNS resolution, as IP-based connections succeed but domain name-based ones fail.

D. dig (Domain Information Groper) is a DNS lookup tool used to troubleshoot DNS problems by querying name servers directly.

Other tools are less relevant here:

A. tcpdump is a packet analyzer and is more advanced for deeper traffic analysis.

B. tracert is used to trace the route to a destination, not ideal for DNS issues.

C. nmap is a port scanner and network mapper, not for resolving DNS problems.

???? Reference:

CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Objectives: 5.1 – Given a scenario, use the appropriate network troubleshooting tools.

===========

TheSession Layer(Layer 5 of the OSI Model) is responsible for setting up, managing, and tearing down sessions between applications. It maintains dialog control and synchronizes data exchange between systems.

When the hosts file is altered, local name resolution is compromised, and domain queries are redirected to malicious IP addresses. This is a form of DNS spoofing/poisoning, where false mappings trick users into visiting fraudulent websites.

B. Phishing typically uses emails or messages to trick users, not local file modification.

C. VLAN hopping is a Layer 2 attack to gain unauthorized network access, unrelated to DNS.

D. ARP poisoning manipulates ARP tables on a LAN to reroute traffic, not name resolution.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Security — DNS poisoning/spoofing, host file manipulation, endpoint attacks.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (paraphrased, aligned to N10-009):

A proxy server (specifically a caching HTTP/HTTPS proxy) stores frequently accessed web objects and serves them locally to clients, reducing external bandwidth consumption and improving response times.

B. Load balancer distributes traffic across servers but does not inherently cache internet content.

C. Open relay is a misconfigured mail server that permits unauthorized relaying—this is a security issue, not a caching solution.

D. Code repository (e.g., for source control) isn’t related to web content caching.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Standards, Protocols, and Implementations — Application-layer services (HTTP/HTTPS), proxies and caching behavior, performance optimization.

===========

An evil twin attack sets up a rogue AP with the same SSID as a legitimate wireless network, tricking users into connecting. Once connected, the attacker can intercept traffic or harvest credentials.

B. Describes ARP spoofing.

C. Describes MAC spoofing.

D. Describes on-path attacks, which may follow, but the evil twin method begins with SSID impersonation.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Security — Wireless threats, rogue APs, evil twin.

A golden configuration is a baseline configuration file that contains approved, standardized settings for network devices. The purpose is to ensure configuration consistency across the environment. This prevents misconfigurations, supports compliance with organizational or regulatory standards, and accelerates recovery if a device needs reconfiguration.

B. Reducing file size is not the goal of golden configs.

C. Golden configs can include security settings, but they are not inherently encrypted — they are simply a baseline template.

D. While configs can be backed up, golden configs are more about standardization, not device-specific backups.

By maintaining a golden configuration, administrators can quickly detect unauthorized changes (by comparing running configs against the golden file) and enforce consistency across devices. This improves network stability, reduces troubleshooting complexity, and enhances security posture.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Operations — Configuration management, golden images/configurations.

When working with fiber optic cables, one common issue is that the transmit (TX) and receive (RX) fibers might be reversed. The first step in troubleshooting should be to reverse the fibers at one end to ensure they are correctly aligned (TX to RX and RX to TX). This is a simple and quick step to rule out a common issue before moving on to more complex troubleshooting.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials.

When a switch is improperly connected to a network, it can cause widespread connectivity issues, especially if there’s a misconfiguration in VLAN settings. A Native VLAN mismatch occurs when two switches connected via a trunk link have different native VLANs configured for untagged traffic. This can cause traffic to be sent to the wrong VLAN or dropped, resulting in connectivity loss for users.

Scenario Analysis: The intern likely connected the switch without ensuring that the trunk port’s native VLAN matched the existing network configuration. This is a common issue in Cisco-based networks when trunk links are misconfigured.

Why not VTP update? VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) updates propagate VLAN configurations across switches. While a VTP misconfiguration could cause issues, it’s less likely to immediately disrupt connectivity for many users unless the VTP server deleted critical VLANs, which is not implied here.

Why not Port security issue? Port security restricts access based on MAC addresses, typically affecting individual ports, not causing widespread outages.

Why not LLDP misconfiguration? Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) is used for device discovery, and misconfiguration is unlikely to cause a broad loss of connectivity.

This is a classic example of social engineering, where an attacker manipulates individuals into giving up confidential information, such as credentials, by pretending to be someone trustworthy (like help desk staff).

B. Tailgating involves physical access without authentication.

C. Shoulder surfing is spying over someone's shoulder to steal info.

D. Smishing is phishing via SMS.

E. Evil twin involves a rogue Wi-Fi access point impersonating a legitimate one.

???? Reference:

CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Objectives: 4.2 – Identify common security threats and vulnerabilities.

===========

To support VoIP on the same physical ports used by computers:

B. Enable 802.1Q: This standard supports VLAN tagging, allowing voice and data traffic to share the same port using separate VLANs.

D. Set up voice VLANs: Separating voice traffic into its own VLAN improves QoS and manageability.

Other options are not directly related to configuring VoIP over existing ports:

A. Network translation definitions (NAT) are unrelated to switch-level VLAN configuration.

C. Routing protocols are not necessary at the switch level for VLAN setup.

E. DNS is not required for the switch or VLAN setup.

F. Perimeter network (DMZ) is used for public-facing servers, not VoIP VLANs.

???? Reference:

CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Objectives: 2.3 – Given a scenario, configure and verify VLANs.

CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Objectives: 3.6 – Explain the characteristics of network topologies and types.

A Site-to-site VPN (Virtual Private Network) is the most cost-effective solution for establishing a persistent, secure connection between two facilities. It uses the public internet to create an encrypted tunnel, leveraging existing internet connections without requiring expensive dedicated infrastructure. This makes it ideal for organizations looking to securely connect remote sites while minimizing costs.

Why not GRE tunnel? Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) tunnels encapsulate traffic but do not provide encryption natively, requiring additional protocols (e.g., IPsec) for security. This adds complexity and is less cost-effective than a site-to-site VPN, which integrates encryption.

Why not VXLAN? Virtual Extensible LAN (VXLAN) is used for overlay networks in data centers to extend Layer 2 networks, not for secure site-to-site connectivity.

Why not Dedicated line? A dedicated line (e.g., leased line or MPLS) provides high reliability but is significantly more expensive due to the need for dedicated infrastructure.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (aligned to N10-009):

A broadcast message is delivered to all nodes in a broadcast domain (e.g., ARP requests).

A. Unicast is one-to-one.

C. Multicast is one-to-many but only to subscribed members.

D. Anycast is one-to-one-of-many, sending to the nearest node.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Networking Concepts — Traffic types: unicast, multicast, broadcast, anycast.

Understanding Tracert:

tracert (Traceroute in Windows) is a command-line tool used to trace the path that packets take from the source to the destination. It records the route (the specific gateways at each hop) and measures transit delays of packets across an IP network.

Output Analysis:

The output shows a series of IP addresses with corresponding round-trip times (RTTs) in milliseconds.

The asterisks (*) indicate that no response was received from those hops, which is typical for routers or firewalls that block ICMP packets used by tracert.

Comparison with Other Tools:

netstat: Displays network connections, routing tables, interface statistics, and more, but does not trace packet routes.

tcpdump: Captures network packets for analysis, used for detailed network traffic inspection.

nmap: A network scanning tool used to discover hosts and services on a network, not for tracing packet routes.

Usage:

tracert helps identify the path to a destination and locate points of failure or congestion in the network.

The correct answer is SLA (Service Level Agreement) because it is a formal, documented contract between a service provider and a customer that defines expected service standards. According to CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) objectives under network operations and service management concepts, an SLA outlines measurable performance metrics such as uptime percentage, response time, throughput, support availability, escalation procedures, and responsibilities of both parties.

An SLA ensures accountability and establishes clear expectations for service delivery. For example, a vendor may guarantee 99.99% uptime, define maximum resolution times for incidents, and specify penalties or credits if performance targets are not met. SLAs are critical in cloud services, ISP agreements, managed services, and enterprise vendor contracts.

An MOU (Memorandum of Understanding) is a non-binding agreement outlining general terms between parties but does not define enforceable service metrics. EOL (End of Life) refers to when a product is no longer sold or supported. EOS (End of Support) indicates when a vendor stops providing updates or assistance for a product.

Therefore, an SLA is the correct document that defines vendor-delivered service requirements.

Top of Form

The most common protocol for secure VPNs is IPsec (Internet Protocol Security). IPsec provides confidentiality, integrity, and authentication for VPN traffic, typically using ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload). It is used in both site-to-site and remote access VPNs.

B. GRE encapsulates traffic but does not provide encryption.

C. BGP is a routing protocol, not a VPN technology.

D. SSH can be used for secure tunneling but is not the standard for VPN deployment.

IPsec is the industry standard because it operates at Layer 3, securing IP traffic regardless of the application, making it highly versatile.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Security — VPN protocols, IPsec, ESP.

To validate routing between networks hosting Workstation A and File Server 2, follow these steps:

Review Routing Tables:

Check the routing tables of Router A, Router B, and Router C to identify any missing routes.

Identify Missing Routes:

Ensure that each router has routes to the networks on which Workstation A and File Server 2 are located.

Add Static Routes:

If a route is missing, add a static route to the relevant destination network via the correct interface.

Routing Table:

Gateway of last resort is 0.0.0.0 to network 0.0.0.0

S* 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet3

10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 4 subnets, 2 masks

C 10.0.4.0/22 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet2

C 10.0.6.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet2

L 10.0.6.1/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet2

172.16.0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks

C 172.16.27.0/30 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet3

L 172.16.27.1/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet3

Routing Table:

Gateway of last resort is 0.0.0.0 to network 0.0.0.0

S* 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1

10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 4 subnets, 2 masks

C 10.0.0.0/22 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1

L 10.0.0.1/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1

172.16.0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks

C 172.16.27.4/30 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1

L 172.16.27.5/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1

Routing Table:

10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 4 subnets, 2 masks

S 10.0.0.0/22 [1/0] via GigabitEthernet1

S 10.0.4.0/22 [1/0] via GigabitEthernet2

172.16.0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks

C 172.16.27.0/30 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet2

L 172.16.27.2/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet2

C 172.16.27.4/30 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1

L 172.16.27.6/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1

Install Static Route to 10.0.0.0/22 via 172.16.27.1 (assuming Router C's IP is 172.16.27.1):

Destination Prefix: 10.0.0.0

Destination Prefix Mask: 255.255.252.0

Interface: GigabitEthernet3

Install Static Route to 10.0.4.0/22 via 172.16.27.5 (assuming Router C's IP is 172.16.27.5):

Destination Prefix: 10.0.4.0

Destination Prefix Mask: 255.255.252.0

Interface: GigabitEthernet1

Install Static Route to 10.0.6.0/24 via 172.16.27.2 (assuming Router A's IP is 172.16.27.2):

Destination Prefix: 10.0.6.0

Destination Prefix Mask: 255.255.255.0

Interface: GigabitEthernet2

Install Static Route to 10.0.0.0/22 via 172.16.27.1 (assuming Router B's IP is 172.16.27.1):

Destination Prefix: 10.0.0.0

Destination Prefix Mask: 255.255.252.0

Interface: GigabitEthernet1

Summary of Static Routes:

Router A:

ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.252.0 GigabitEthernet3

Router B:

ip route 10.0.4.0 255.255.252.0 GigabitEthernet1

Router C:

ip route 10.0.6.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet2

ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.252.0 GigabitEthernet1

These configurations ensure that each router knows the correct paths to reach Workstation A and File Server 2, resolving the connectivity issue.

RTO stands for Recovery Time Objective, which defines the maximum acceptable amount of time that a system, application, or function can be down after a failure or disaster. It helps prioritize which systems need to be recovered first based on their importance to business operations.

SLA (Service Level Agreement) refers to an agreement between a service provider and a customer regarding expected performance and availability, but it does not dictate recovery order.

MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures) is a measure of reliability and time between hardware or system failures.

SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) is a centralized tool for logging and alerting but not relevant to DR recovery prioritization.

???? Reference:

CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Objectives: 4.4 – Summarize business continuity and disaster recovery concepts.

===========

For a global streaming service, different countries and regions often have specific legal requirements about what content can be accessed (for example, age restrictions, prohibited material, censorship rules, or licensing constraints). To comply with these local laws at each regional point of presence (PoP), the company should implement content filtering. In Network+ security objectives, content filtering is a control used to allow, block, or restrict access to specific categories of content, URLs, applications, or media based on policy. Applied regionally, it supports geo-policy enforcement by ensuring that users served by a given PoP receive only content permitted in that jurisdiction.

An ACL primarily controls network traffic flows (permit/deny based on IPs, ports, and protocols). While ACLs can help block certain services, they are not designed to classify and regulate streaming media content in a way that aligns with legal content rules. Port security is a switch feature to restrict which devices can connect to a port (MAC-based controls) and is unrelated to regional compliance for streamed media. Key management concerns encryption key handling and protects confidentiality/integrity, but it does not determine which content is allowed in a region. Therefore, regional content filtering is the best match for meeting local legal requirements.

Installing server equipment in a rack increases compute density by allowing multiple servers to be organized efficiently in a vertical configuration, saving space while housing more devices in a smaller footprint. This is critical for data centers and businesses with high hardware demands.

Simplified troubleshooting process (A): While racks can aid in organizing equipment, this is a secondary benefit, not the primary purpose.

Decreased power consumption (B): Rack installation does not directly reduce power usage; equipment power consumption remains the same.

Improved network performance (C): Racking servers does not inherently improve network performance; that depends on network configurations.

•AAAA records map domain names to IPv6 addresses, enabling proper resolution.

•PTR records (A) are for reverse DNS lookups.

•TXT records (B) store text-based information, not IP addresses.

•NS records (D) define authoritative name servers but don’t directly affect IPv6 resolution.

????Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Documentation – DNS Configuration & IPv6.

Branchingallows developers and administrators tocreate an isolated copyof the main configuration so they can test changes independently. This avoids impacting the primary environment and allows for safer testing and development.

The correct answer is traceroute, which is the diagnostic command specifically designed to determine the path a packet takes across a network. According to the CompTIA Network+ N10-009 objectives, traceroute is a key network troubleshooting tool used to identify routing paths, hop counts, and points of latency or failure between a source and a destination.

Traceroute works by sending packets with incrementally increasing Time to Live (TTL) values. Each router along the path decrements the TTL by one, and when it reaches zero, the router returns an ICMP Time Exceeded message. This process allows the administrator to see each intermediate hop, its response time, and where packets may be delayed or dropped.

The other options do not fulfill this purpose. Ping only verifies basic connectivity and round-trip time but does not show the route taken. Netstat displays active connections, ports, and routing tables but does not trace packet paths. Nslookup is used to resolve DNS names to IP addresses, and ipconfig displays local network configuration information.

The Network+ objectives emphasize traceroute (or tracert on Windows systems) as the primary tool for diagnosing routing issues, asymmetric paths, and network congestion, making it the correct and most appropriate choice in this scenario.

Speed Mismatches: If NICs are set to different speeds (e.g., 100 Mbps on one side and 1 Gbps on the other), performance will degrade. Ensuring consistent speed settings between devices is crucial for optimal performance.

Load balancer settings (B): Applies to server load distribution, not endpoint speed.

Flow control settings (C): Can affect performance but is secondary to speed mismatches.

Infrastructure cabling grade (D): Relevant if the cables are unsuitable for gigabit speeds, but speed settings should be checked first.

In a mesh topology, every node is directly connected to every other node. This provides high redundancy and reliability, as there are multiple paths for data to travel between nodes. This topology is often used in networks where high availability is crucial.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials.

NAT (Network Address Translation) helps hide internal IP addresses from external networks, adding a layer of security by preventing direct access to internal systems from the outside.

MIBs (Management Information Bases) define the variables and objects that SNMP can query on a device. If the monitoring server authenticates but cannot interpret the data, it likely lacks the correct MIB for that vendor or model. Importing the proper MIB allows the monitoring server to correctly display device status and metrics.

A. Using a public community string is insecure and not related to missing MIBs.

C. Switchport analyzer (SPAN) captures traffic for packet analysis, not SNMP monitoring.

D. SNMPv3 privacy adds encryption but doesn’t fix missing MIB interpretation.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Operations — SNMP, MIBs, network monitoring systems.

The correct answer is Power redundancy because the devices in the rack are equipped with dual power supplies, which are specifically designed to support redundant power sources. According to CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) objectives under high availability and physical infrastructure concepts, redundancy is a key strategy to eliminate single points of failure.

If only one PDU (Power Distribution Unit) is installed, both power supplies from each device may ultimately rely on the same power source. This creates a single point of failure—if the PDU fails or loses upstream power, all connected equipment will shut down despite having dual power supplies.

By installing a second PDU connected to a separate power circuit (and ideally a separate UPS or power feed), each power supply in the servers and switches can connect to different PDUs. If one PDU fails, the other continues delivering power, ensuring uninterrupted operation.

Option B (Failed PSU monitoring) is not the primary reason for adding another PDU. Option C (Surge protection) can be provided by a single PDU. Option D (Electricity conservation) is unrelated to redundancy design.

Therefore, adding a second PDU provides true power redundancy.

The best mitigation is implementing 802.1X, which provides port-based Network Access Control (NAC). With 802.1X enabled on access switch ports, a device plugged into a wall jack cannot gain normal network access until it successfully authenticates using credentials/certificates via an authentication server (commonly RADIUS). This directly addresses the threat of unauthorized users plugging into publicly accessible conference room jacks, because the switch keeps the port in an unauthenticated state (or places it into a restricted/guest VLAN) until authentication succeeds. This aligns with Network+ security objectives that emphasize controlling access at the edge, enforcing authentication, and reducing the risk of rogue or unmanaged devices on internal networks.

MAC filtering is weaker because MAC addresses can be spoofed and managing allow-lists at scale is error-prone. Creating a trusted zone is vague and does not prevent initial port access; segmentation helps limit blast radius but doesn’t enforce authentication at the jack. Disabling unused services is a general hardening practice, but it does not stop someone from connecting physically to an active switch port and attempting access. 802.1X is purpose-built for this exact scenario.

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The IPv4 address 192.168.123.232 falls within the Class C range under classful addressing. In classful terms, Class C addresses have a first octet from 192 to 223, which makes any address starting with 192.x.x.x a Class C address. Network+ (N10-009) networking concepts cover IPv4 addressing fundamentals and commonly reference class ranges as foundational knowledge, even though modern networks primarily use CIDR (classless) subnetting rather than strict classful boundaries.

This address is also within a well-known private IPv4 block: 192.168.0.0/16 (RFC1918 private addressing), which is frequently used for internal networks and NIC configurations where addresses are not routable on the public internet.

To eliminate the distractors: Class A uses first octet 1–126, Class B uses 128–191, and Class D (224–239) is reserved for multicast. Since the first octet here is 192, it maps to Class C, making option C correct.

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When two devices on different subnets are unable to communicate, but can communicate with other devices on their own subnet, the issue is most often related to routing. Devices on different subnets require a default gateway to route traffic between networks.

If the default gateway is incorrectly configured, the device won’t know how to reach other subnets.

Faulty cables (Option B) or duplex mismatches (Option C) would likely cause connectivity issues even within the local subnet, which is not the case here.

VLAN mismatches (Option D) are typically issues with switch port configurations and would likely cause total loss of connectivity, including within the same subnet.

✅ So, the most probable and logical cause is an incorrect default gateway.

When traceroute shows asterisks (timeouts) instead of IP addresses or hostnames, it may indicate that intermediate routers are dropping ICMP packets. However, performing an nslookup will reveal the IP address associated with the domain name, confirming that DNS resolution is correct and helping identify the path to the target server. The document states:

“nslookup is used to query DNS servers to retrieve IP address information associated with a domain name, which helps confirm DNS resolution is working correctly even when traceroute results show timeouts.”

BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) is used for routing data between different ISPs, making it essential for the functioning of the internet. Its primary use is for exchanging routing information between autonomous systems, especially different ISPs. Preventing loops within a LAN ishandled by protocols like Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), while improving reconvergence times and sharing routes with a Layer 3 switch are functions of other protocols or internal mechanisms.

MTTR (Mean Time to Repair) is the average time it takes to repair a system or service after a failure. It helps in measuring the downtime and planning recovery processes.

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The correct answer is Switch because the question references a new logical layout segmenting the network using tagging, which indicates VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) configuration. VLAN tagging (IEEE 802.1Q) is performed on switches to logically separate broadcast domains within the same physical infrastructure.

According to CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) objectives under switching technologies, VLANs are used to improve security, reduce broadcast traffic, and logically segment network traffic. When VLAN tagging is misconfigured—such as incorrect trunk ports, access port assignments, or mismatched VLAN IDs—devices may lose connectivity to required network resources.

Since the issue began after changes involving tagging, the most likely cause is an incorrect switch configuration, such as improper VLAN assignments or trunking settings.

An access point (Option A) may use VLANs for SSID segmentation, but core tagging configuration is handled at the switch. A firewall (Option B) filters traffic but does not control VLAN tagging at Layer 2 in typical deployments. A load balancer (Option D) distributes traffic among servers and is unrelated to VLAN segmentation.

Therefore, reviewing the switch configuration is the appropriate action to restore connectivity.

This scenario describes a duplicate IP address. The ARP table shows two different MAC addresses (0c00.1134.0001 and 0c00.1298.d239) associated with the same IP address (192.168.1.10), which leads to ARP table conflicts and intermittent connectivity.

From Andrew Ramdayal’s guide:

“Duplicate IP addresses occur when two devices on the same network are assigned the same IP address, causing network conflicts. Common issues include manual configuration errors or DHCP lease issues. Resolution includes using IP management tools and avoiding overlaps in DHCP and static IP assignments.”

The correct answer is Shielded Twisted Pair (STP). According to the CompTIA Network+ N10-009 objectives, intermittent connectivity issues—especially in environments like hospitals—are often caused by electromagnetic interference (EMI) from medical imaging equipment, power systems, and other electronic devices. These environments are electrically noisy and can disrupt standard copper Ethernet cabling.

STP cabling is specifically designed to mitigate EMI by incorporating shielding around the twisted pairs. This shielding reduces external interference and improves signal stability without requiring a complete redesign of the network. Importantly, STP is significantly less expensive than deploying fiber-optic solutions while still being highly effective in environments prone to interference.

Single-mode fiber would eliminate EMI entirely, but it is far more costly due to specialized cabling, transceivers, and installation requirements. Twinaxial cable is typically used for short-distance, high-speed data center connections and is not appropriate for workstation connectivity. Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is a Layer 2 loop-prevention protocol and has nothing to do with physical connectivity or interference issues.

The Network+ objectives stress choosing solutions that balance effectiveness, cost, and environmental suitability. In this case, upgrading to shielded twisted pair cabling provides the most practical and cost-effective resolution for intermittent connectivity in a hospital imaging environment.

The correct answer is Documenting findings, outcomes, and lessons learned because proper documentation and closure are the final steps in the ticket management and troubleshooting process. According to CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) objectives under network operations and troubleshooting methodology, once an issue is resolved, technicians must verify full system functionality, implement preventive measures if needed, and document the entire process before closing the ticket.

Documentation ensures that all relevant information—such as the root cause, corrective actions taken, configuration changes made, and lessons learned—is recorded for future reference. This supports knowledge base updates, trend analysis, compliance requirements, and improved response times for similar incidents.

Escalation (Option A) occurs earlier if the issue cannot be resolved at the current support tier. Establishing an action plan (Option D) is part of the remediation phase, not the final step. Functional and non-functional testing (Option B) occurs during verification before closure.

Therefore, comprehensive documentation and formal ticket closure represent the final step in the ticket management lifecycle.

If the business shares or duplicates the ISP-assigned public IP address, routing instability and conflicts will occur. Pinging a public IP like 8.8.8.8 may work (since ICMP can bypass certain conflicts), but browsing websites (which requires stable sessions and return traffic) will fail intermittently.

A. If the default gateway were incorrect, no external connectivity would work at all.

B. VLAN mismatch is an internal issue, not affecting ISP routing.

C. Subnet mask misconfiguration would prevent consistent routing but usually blocks ping too.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Troubleshooting — Internet connectivity issues, ISP IP conflicts.

Network Functions Virtualization (NFV): NFV is a technology that virtualizes network services like routing, firewalls, and load balancers. It allows these services to run on virtual machines rather than requiring dedicated hardware. This is ideal for remote branch locations where deploying physical devices is costly and complex.

VRF (B): Virtual Routing and Forwarding is used for segmenting routing tables but does not virtualize services.

VLAN (C): Virtual Local Area Networks help segregate broadcast domains but are unrelated to virtualizing network functions.

VPC (D): Virtual Private Cloud is used for cloud computing but does not pertain to virtualizing network services.

An API (Application Programming Interface) is the best choice when a development team needs to integrate a device’s reporting data directly into custom software. In Network+ (N10-009) objectives, network operations commonly include device management, monitoring, and automation, and APIs are a key method for programmatic access to operational data (often via REST/HTTPS with structured formats like JSON). This enables the internal support application to pull dashboards, health metrics, events, configuration details, and reporting outputs in a controlled, developer-friendly way.

SNMPv2c is primarily used for network monitoring and polling counters/alerts, but it is less secure (community strings) and is not as flexible for modern application integration as an API. A MIB is not a data-access “feature” by itself; it’s the schema/definitions SNMP uses to describe managed objects. A SIEM is a separate security analytics platform that collects and correlates logs/events—useful for security operations, but not the direct interface a custom support tool would typically call to retrieve device reporting data.

224.0.0.1 is a multicast address that allows packets to be sent to all hosts within a multicast group. Since video streaming often uses multicast to efficiently distribute data to multiple clients without unnecessary duplication, this is the correct answer.

•Why not the other options?

•127.0.0.1 (A) – This is the loopback address used for internal device testing, not for multicast traffic.

•172.17.1.1 (B) – This is a private unicast address, meaning it can only send packets to one specific host.

•240.0.0.1 (D) – This falls within the reserved experimental IP address range and is not used for multicast.

Troubleshooting Methodology:

Confirming the Root Cause: After testing and confirming the theory, the next logical step is to address the issue by implementing a solution.

Implementation of the Solution:

Resolve the Issue: Implement the identified solution to rectify the problem. This step involves making necessary changes to the network configuration, replacing faulty hardware, or applying software patches.

Documentation: Document the solution and the steps taken to resolve the issue to provide a reference for future troubleshooting.

Comparison with Other Steps:

Determine Resolution Steps: This is part of the implementation process where specific actions are outlined, but the actual next step after testing is to implement those steps.

Duplicate the Problem in a Lab: This step is typically done earlier in the troubleshooting process to understand the problem, not after confirming the root cause.

Present the Theory for Approval: In some scenarios, presenting the theory might be necessary for major changes, but generally, once the root cause is confirmed, the solution should be implemented.

Final Verification:

After implementing the solution, it is important to verify that the issue is resolved and that normal operations are restored. This may involve monitoring the network and testing to ensure no further issues arise.

The correct answer is SSO (Single Sign-On) because it enables a user to authenticate once and gain access to multiple systems or resources without being prompted to log in again. According to CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) security objectives, SSO improves usability and productivity while maintaining centralized authentication control. After the initial authentication, a trust relationship between systems allows the user to access additional applications seamlessly.

MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication) enhances security by requiring two or more authentication factors (something you know, have, or are), but it does not inherently provide access to multiple systems without repeated authentication events.

SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) is an authentication and authorization protocol commonly used to implement SSO in web-based environments. While SAML supports SSO functionality, it is the underlying protocol rather than the access method itself.

RADIUS is a centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) protocol used for network access control but does not specifically provide seamless multi-resource authentication without additional logins.

Therefore, SSO best describes authentication to multiple resources without requiring additional passwords.

Secure Shell (SSH) is a protocol used to securely access remote devices over an unsecured network. It provides encrypted command-line access and is a lightweight and secure method of remote administration.

A. Site-to-site VPN connects entire networks, not just a single host.

B. Telnet is not secure; it transmits data (including credentials) in plaintext.

C. Console access is direct via serial cable, not remote.

???? Reference:

CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Objectives: 2.6 – Configure and troubleshoot remote access.

An IP Helper (IP Helper Address) allows DHCP requests to pass through routers and reach a DHCP server on another network.

DHCP broadcasts are not forwarded across routers by default, so an IP Helper Address is needed to relay the request.

This is crucial for large networks where a single DHCP server serves multiple subnets.

Option B (Reservation): Ensures a specific IP address is assigned to a MAC address but does not relay DHCP across networks.

Option C (Exclusion): Prevents specific IP addresses from being assigned, but does not help with DHCP relay.

Option D (Scope): Defines the range of IP addresses available for DHCP clients but does not assist in cross-network communication.

? Reference: CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) Official Study Guide – Section: DHCP and IP Addressing

The correct answer is STP (Shielded Twisted Pair). According to the CompTIA Network+ N10-009 objectives, environments with high levels of electromagnetic interference (EMI)—such as industrial warehouses with heavy machinery, motors, and electrical equipment—require additional protection at the physical layer to maintain signal integrity.

STP cabling includes shielding around the twisted copper pairs that helps block external electromagnetic signals from interfering with data transmission. This shielding significantly reduces crosstalk and EMI, making STP far more suitable than UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) in electrically noisy environments. UTP lacks this shielding and is more prone to signal degradation under such conditions.

While fiber-optic cabling (multimode or single-mode) is completely immune to EMI, it is typically not used to directly connect wireless APs in most enterprise deployments. Wireless access points commonly rely on copper Ethernet connections to support Power over Ethernet (PoE), which supplies both data and electrical power over the same cable. Fiber does not natively support PoE, making it impractical for directly powering APs without additional equipment.

The Network+ objectives emphasize selecting appropriate cabling based on environmental factors and operational requirements. In this scenario, STP provides the optimal balance of EMI resistance, Ethernet compatibility, and PoE support, making it the best choice for connecting APs in an industrial warehouse.

The ping results show intermittent connectivity (50% packet loss) with highly variable latency, which commonly indicates a Layer 1/Layer 2 problem (e.g., damaged cable pairs, bad patch-panel termination, failing switch port, duplex/negotiation issues, or excessive errors on the interface). Because the facility has incomplete documentation, the technician’s first priority at the switch is to positively identify the correct switch port and cable path associated with the file server before making disruptive changes.

Using a tone generator and probe aligns with Network+ troubleshooting objectives that emphasize selecting the appropriate tool and following an efficient, structured process: identify the problem, establish a theory, test, and then implement the least disruptive fix. Toning/probing helps map the server’s drop to the switch port (even through patch panels) so the technician can then check that specific interface for errors/discards, CRCs, speed/duplex negotiation status, and link stability—all without rebooting the switch or immediately replacing hardware.

By contrast, restarting the switch is high-impact, and replacing a cable is a change best performed after the correct run/port is confirmed.

On the first exhibit, the layout should be as follows

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Exhibit 2 as follows

Access Point Name AP2

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Exhibit 3 as follows

Access Point Name AP3

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The correct answer is SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) because it is specifically designed to collect and transmit network management and status information between managed devices and management systems. According to CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) objectives, SNMP is used for monitoring and managing network devices such as routers, switches, servers, and printers.

SNMP operates using a manager-agent model. The SNMP manager (such as a network monitoring server) communicates with SNMP agents installed on network devices. Agents send traps and inform messages, which are unsolicited status alerts indicating events such as device failures, high CPU usage, or link outages. The manager can also poll agents to retrieve performance metrics and configuration details stored in the Management Information Base (MIB).

SSH (Option A) is used for secure remote administration. DHCP (Option B) dynamically assigns IP addresses. NTP (Option C) synchronizes time between devices. None of these protocols are designed for network status monitoring and alert messaging.

Therefore, SNMP is the correct protocol for sending networking status messages between devices and management systems.

Bottom of Form

UESTION NO: 21 [Network Infrastructure]

Which of the following physical installation factors is the most important when a network switch is installed in a sealed enclosure?

A. Fire suppression

B. Power budget

C. Temperature

D. Humidity

Answer: C

The correct answer is Temperature because a sealed enclosure restricts airflow, which can cause heat to accumulate rapidly. According to CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) objectives under physical installations and environmental factors, maintaining proper temperature control is critical for network equipment reliability and longevity.

Network switches generate heat during operation, particularly models with high port density or Power over Ethernet (PoE) capabilities. In a sealed enclosure without proper ventilation or cooling mechanisms, excessive heat buildup can lead to thermal throttling, unexpected shutdowns, hardware degradation, or permanent equipment failure. Manufacturers specify operating temperature ranges, and exceeding these limits significantly reduces device lifespan and performance.

While humidity (Option D) is important to prevent condensation and corrosion, temperature fluctuations pose a more immediate risk in a sealed environment. Power budget (Option B) is relevant when calculating PoE load capacity but does not directly address environmental installation conditions. Fire suppression (Option A) is important in data centers but is not the primary concern specific to a sealed enclosure scenario.

Therefore, ensuring proper temperature management is the most critical installation factor.

Ascreened subnet, also known as aDMZ (Demilitarized Zone), is aboundary networkthat separates an organization's internal network from external-facing systems. It is used to host public services like web or email servers while protecting internal systems from exposure.

VLAN hopping occurs when an attacker tricks a switch into believing the host is another switch by generating tagged frames or exploiting trunk negotiation (DTP). This allows the attacker to access traffic from multiple VLANs, potentially stealing sensitive data.

B. Evil twin is a rogue wireless AP attack, unrelated to switch impersonation.

C. DNS poisoning corrupts name resolution, not VLAN access.

D. ARP spoofing is a Layer 2 on-path attack, not masquerading as a switch.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Network Security — VLAN hopping attacks, switch spoofing techniques.

A /23 subnet provides 512 total addresses, of which 510 are usable (subtracting 2 for network and broadcast addresses). This would satisfy the need for 255 additional addresses.

RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is a networking protocol that provides centralized Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) management for users who connect and use a network service. RADIUS is often used to manage access to wireless networks, enabling users to authenticate with their company credentials, ensuring secure access to the network.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials. ​

The correct answer is Test the theory, which aligns directly with the CompTIA Network+ N10-009 troubleshooting methodology. According to the official troubleshooting steps, once a problem has been identified and relevant information gathered, the next step is to establish a theory of probable cause and then test that theory to determine whether it is valid.

In this scenario, the engineer has already completed the problem identification phase by confirming that all users are experiencing latency and correlating the issue with the installation of a new switch. The engineer has also formed a theory: that a network loop caused by the lower bridge ID of the new switch may be impacting Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), resulting in congestion and latency. Because this theory has already been developed, the next logical and required step is to test the theory—for example, by reviewing STP states, temporarily disabling ports, or adjusting bridge priorities.

Implementing a solution would be premature without validating the theory, and verifying full system functionality occurs only after a fix has been applied. The Network+ objectives stress following a structured methodology to avoid unnecessary changes and minimize network disruption. Testing the theory ensures accuracy before corrective action is taken, reducing risk and downtime.

Microwaves are known to interfere with the 2.4GHz frequency, which is the same frequency used by many wireless networks. This can cause signal degradation and intermittent connectivity issues, especially if the WAP is placed near such devices.

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A full-tunnel VPN routes all of a user's network traffic through the corporate network. This means that the organization can inspect all network traffic for security and compliance purposes, as all data is tunneled through the VPN, allowing for comprehensive monitoring and inspection.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials.

The correct answer is hub-and-spoke. In this design, the head office serves as the hub, and all satellite or branch offices (the spokes) connect directly to the hub using leased lines or VPNs. Communication between spokes typically passes through the hub, which centralizes connectivity and simplifies management.

A. Mesh involves every site connecting to every other site, which is more redundant but costly.

B. Point-to-point describes a single dedicated link between two sites, not a multi-site topology.

D. Star is often used in LAN switching, with all devices connecting to a central switch, but it’s not the WAN architecture typically used here.

Hub-and-spoke is a cost-effective WAN design, as fewer circuits are needed compared to full mesh. However, its main disadvantage is reliance on the hub site: if the hub goes down, inter-spoke communication fails.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Networking Concepts — WAN topologies (hub-and-spoke, mesh, point-to-point).

When the command switchport voice vlan 69 is used, it tags the voice traffic with VLAN 69, while the workstation traffic continues untagged on the access VLAN, which is typically considered thedata VLAN. This configuration enables both voice and data traffic over the same port while keeping them in separate VLANs for QoS and traffic management.

To enable communication between VLANs, the technician must configure inter-VLAN routing. On a Layer 3 switch, this is commonly done by creating an SVI (Switched Virtual Interface) for each VLAN. An SVI provides a virtual Layer 3 interface with an IP address that acts as the default gateway for hosts in that VLAN. Once SVIs exist and routing is enabled, the switch can route traffic between VLAN subnets internally, allowing clients in different VLANs to communicate (subject to any security controls). This aligns with Network+ (N10-009) infrastructure objectives covering VLANs, Layer 2/Layer 3 switching, and the requirement for routing to cross broadcast domains.

ACLs can permit or deny inter-VLAN traffic, but they do not create the routing function by themselves. VXLAN is an overlay tunneling technology used mainly in data centers to extend Layer 2 networks over Layer 3 fabrics, not the standard solution for basic VLAN-to-VLAN connectivity on a switch. VPC is not the required configuration element for inter-VLAN routing in this context. Therefore, configuring SVIs is the correct and most direct answer.

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A client-to-site VPN (remote-access VPN) is designed to let an individual user securely connect into an organization’s network over an untrusted network (like the internet) and access resources as if the user were locally connected. Network+ objectives emphasize VPNs as encrypted tunnels that provide confidentiality and integrity for traffic, commonly using technologies such as IPsec or SSL/TLS-based VPNs. With a client-to-site VPN, the user’s device establishes a tunnel to the corporate VPN gateway, receives routes (and sometimes DNS settings), and can reach internal subnets and cloud resources according to policy.

A jump box/host is a hardened intermediate system used to access sensitive segments, but it does not make the user’s device behave as if it is directly on the network; it provides controlled administrative access. SSH is a secure remote management protocol for connecting to a host’s command line—useful for administration, not full network access to multiple internal resources. A GRE tunnel provides encapsulation but does not provide encryption by itself, so it is not inherently “securely access” unless combined with additional security (e.g., GRE over IPsec). Therefore, client-to-site VPN is the correct choice.

BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) uses attributes like AS path, origin, and MED (multi-exit discriminator) to determine the best path among multiple available routes.

From Andrew Ramdayal’s guide:

“BGP is the protocol underlying the global routing system of the internet. It is used for routing data between autonomous systems (ASes)... BGP uses a path vector mechanism and maintains a list of attributes for route selection.”

A load balancer is designed to distribute user requests across multiple servers to ensure high availability and performance.

Breakdown of Options:

A. Router – Directs traffic between networks, not between web servers.

B. Switch – Works at Layer 2, does not distribute web traffic.

C. Firewall – Secures network traffic, but does not distribute load.

D. Load balancer – ✅ Correct answer. Optimizes web traffic distribution across multiple servers.

NetFlow (and similar flow technologies like IPFIX/sFlow in concept) is used to collect traffic-flow metadata such as source/destination IPs, ports, protocols, interfaces, and byte/packet counts over time. In Network+ (N10-009) operations and monitoring objectives, flow data is ideal for identifying top talkers and top destinations across the network on a given day because it provides summarized, queryable information at scale without capturing every packet payload. An administrator can review reports to determine which destination IPs/hosts consumed the most bandwidth, which applications were most active, and what time ranges saw spikes—perfect for historical analysis.

SNMP is great for polling device counters (interface utilization, errors, CPU) but it does not natively tell you the “top destination” by conversation/flow without additional flow awareness. Packet capture can reveal exact conversations and payloads, but it is heavy, localized, and not efficient for infrastructure-wide daily top-destination reporting. traceroute maps the path to a destination and helps isolate routing/path issues; it does not provide usage statistics. Therefore, NetFlow is the best fit.

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The correct answer is VLSM (Variable Length Subnet Masking). According to the CompTIA Network+ N10-009 objectives, VLSM allows a network administrator to create subnets of different sizes within the same network, making it ideal for environments where subnet host requirements vary.

In this scenario, the technician must support multiple subnet sizes—60 hosts, 15 hosts, and seven hosts—within a single Class C network. Using a single subnet mask for all eight subnets would either waste a large number of IP addresses or fail to meet host requirements. VLSM solves this problem by allowing each subnet to be assigned a custom subnet mask that closely matches its host needs, maximizing address efficiency.

CIDR enables classless addressing and route aggregation but does not, by itself, describe creating multiple subnet sizes within a single address block. APIPA is a self-assigned addressing mechanism used when DHCP fails and has no relevance to subnet design. RFC 1918 defines private IP address ranges but does not address subnetting strategies.

The Network+ objectives emphasize VLSM as a best practice for efficient IP address management, especially in enterprise environments where conserving address space and meeting diverse departmental requirements are critical. In this case, VLSM is the only solution capable of meeting all stated constraints.

Network Health:

WAN 2 appears to have a lower average latency and loss percentage, which would make it the preferred WAN station for VoIP traffic. VoIP traffic requires low latency and packet loss to ensure good voice quality and reliability. WAN 1 seems to have higher RAM and processor usage, which could also affect the performance of VoIP traffic.

Here's the summary of the key metrics for WAN 1 and WAN 2 from the image provided:

WAN 1:

Uplink Speed: 10G

Total Usage: 26.969GB Up / 1.748GB Down

Average Throughput: 353MBps Up / 23.42MBps Down

Loss: 2.51%

Average Latency: 24ms

Jitter: 9.5ms

WAN 2:

Uplink Speed: 1G

Total Usage: 930GB Up / 138GB Down

Average Throughput: 12.21MBps Up / 1.82MBps Down

Loss: 0.01%

Average Latency: 11ms

Jitter: 3.9ms

For VoIP traffic, low latency and jitter are particularly important to ensure voice quality. While WAN 1 has higher bandwidth and throughput, it also has higher latency and jitter compared to WAN 2. However, WAN 2 has much lower loss, lower latency, and lower jitter, which are more favorable for VoIP traffic that is sensitive to delays and variation in packet arrival times.

Given this information, WAN 2 would generally be preferred for VoIP traffic due to its lower latency, lower jitter, and significantly lower loss percentage, despite its lower bandwidth compared to WAN 1. The high bandwidth of WAN 1 may be more suitable for other types of traffic that are less sensitive to latency and jitter, such as bulk data transfers.

Device Monitoring:

the device that is experiencing connectivity issues is the APP Server or Router 1, which has a status of Down. This means that the server is not responding to network requests or sending any data. You may want to check the physical connection, power supply, and configuration of the APP Server to troubleshoot the problem.

A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.

The correct answer is PAT (Port Address Translation). According to the CompTIA Network+ N10-009 objectives, PAT is a form of Network Address Translation (NAT) that allows multiple internal hosts—or services—to be mapped to a single public IP address using different port numbers. PAT can also translate destination port numbers, which is exactly what is occurring in this scenario.

In this case, the firewall receives incoming traffic on port 80 (commonly used for HTTP) and forwards it to an internal server listening on port 88. This process is often referred to as port forwarding, which is a practical implementation of PAT. The firewall rewrites the destination port and potentially the destination IP address so that external clients can access internal services without exposing internal addressing schemes.

The other options do not apply. TLS and SSL are encryption protocols used to secure data in transit; they do not perform port translation. FHRP (First Hop Redundancy Protocol), such as HSRP or VRRP, provides gateway redundancy and high availability, not traffic forwarding or port remapping.

The Network+ objectives emphasize understanding how firewalls and NAT technologies manipulate IP addresses and ports to enable secure access to internal resources. PAT is the technology that enables this functionality, making it the correct answer.

The correct answer is NAT64, which is required when an IPv6-only internal network needs to communicate with IPv4-based servers on the internet. According to the CompTIA Network+ N10-009 objectives, NAT64 is a translation technology that enables interoperability between IPv6 clients and IPv4 resources during the ongoing transition from IPv4 to IPv6.

Although IPv6 is widely deployed, a significant portion of internet services still operate exclusively on IPv4. An IPv6-only host cannot natively communicate with an IPv4 server because the protocols use different addressing formats. NAT64 solves this problem by translating IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets and translating the responses back into IPv6, allowing seamless communication without requiring dual-stack configuration on internal hosts.

The other options do not address this requirement. MPLS is a WAN forwarding technology used by service providers and does not provide protocol translation. GRE is a tunneling protocol used to encapsulate traffic and does not enable IPv6-to-IPv4 communication. Static routing determines packet paths but does not resolve protocol incompatibility between IPv4 and IPv6.

The Network+ N10-009 exam places strong emphasis on IPv6 transition mechanisms, including NAT64, DNS64, and dual stack. In this scenario, NAT64 is the essential component that enables IPv6-only networks to access legacy IPv4 internet services.

Troubleshooting Methodology:

Troubleshooting involves a systematic approach to diagnosing and resolving issues. It typically includes steps such as identifying symptoms, gathering information, formulating and testing theories, and implementing solutions.

Confirming a Theory:

Duplicate the Problem: To confirm a theory, the technician should reproduce the problem in a controlled environment. This helps verify that the identified cause actually leads to the observed issue.

Verification: By duplicating the problem, the technician can observe the issue firsthand, validate the hypothesis, and rule out other potential causes.

Comparison with Other Steps:

Identify the Symptoms: Initial step to understand what the problem is, not specifically for confirming a theory.

Gather Information: Involves collecting data and details about the issue, usually done before formulating a theory.

Determine Any Changes: Involves checking for recent changes that could have caused the issue, a part of the information-gathering phase.

Implementation:

Use similar equipment or software in a test environment to recreate the issue.

Observe the results to see if they match the original problem, thereby confirming the theory.

A split-tunnel VPN allows certain traffic (e.g., cloud-based services) to bypass the VPN and go directly to the Internet. This reduces the amount of traffic that needs to traverse the company's VPN and Internet connection, conserving bandwidth and reducing costs. It also means that not all traffic is subject to the same level of inspection or filtering, which can improve performance for cloud-based services.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials.

An SFP (Small Form-factor Pluggable) transceiver is a modular device that provides the interface between fiber-optic or copper cabling and the networking equipment (e.g., switch or router). It operates primarily at Layer 2 (Data Link), converting optical or electrical signals into frames usable by the network device.

A. SC is a fiber connector type, not the transceiver.

B. DAC (Direct Attach Copper) is a passive copper cable assembly with fixed transceivers, not a general-purpose module.

D. Twinaxial cable is a copper medium, not an interface device.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Networking Concepts — Transceivers (SFP, GBIC, QSFP), fiber connectivity, OSI model mapping.

Band Steering: This technology enables wireless devices to connect to the most optimal frequency band (2.4 GHz or 5 GHz) by encouraging capable devices to switch to the less congested 5 GHz band. This improves overall network performance and prevents overcrowding on the 2.4 GHz band.

Wireless LAN controller (B): This manages multiple access points in a network but does not handle frequency optimization.

Directional antenna (C): This focuses the signal in a specific direction but does not affect frequency selection.

Autonomous access point (D): This operates independently but lacks advanced features like band steering.

TLS (Transport Layer Security) is the protocol that provides encryption in transit for HTTPS. It ensures data is encrypted between the client (browser) and the web server, protecting it from interception or tampering.

A. SSH is used for secure terminal access, not HTTPS.

C. SCADA refers to control systems, not encryption protocols.

D. RADIUS is an authentication protocol, not for encrypting HTTPS traffic.

???? Reference:

CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Objectives: 4.2 – Identify common security threats and vulnerabilities.

CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Objectives: 4.6 – Explain authentication and access controls.

An SLA (Service Level Agreement) defines performance expectations, including response time, prioritization, and resolution time for services and support issues. It helps the technician determine which task has higher priority based on business impact.

A. NDA (Non-Disclosure Agreement) relates to confidentiality, not task prioritization.

B. AUP (Acceptable Use Policy) defines user behavior, not issue handling.

D. MOU (Memorandum of Understanding) outlines informal agreements and doesn't define ticket priorities.

???? Reference:

CompTIA Network+ N10-009 Official Objectives: 4.1 – Compare and contrast common documentation types.

SNMPv3 (Simple Network Management Protocol version 3) provides device monitoring with authentication and encryption. This enhances network visibility and security by ensuring that monitoring data is securely transmitted and access to network devices is authenticated.

Authentication: SNMPv3 includes robust mechanisms for authenticating users accessing network devices.

Encryption: It provides encryption to protect the integrity and confidentiality of the data being transmitted.

Network Management: SNMPv3 allows for detailed monitoring and management of network devices, ensuring better control and security.

Network References:

CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Covers SNMP versions, their features, and security enhancements in SNMPv3.

Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on implementing and securing SNMP for network management.

Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Explains the benefits and security features of SNMPv3 for network monitoring.

Packet Capture: This method captures and inspects network traffic to identify unauthorized downloads or malicious behavior. It provides detailed insight into the data being transmitted, making it the best tool for this scenario.

Anomaly alerts (A): Alerts may indicate unusual activity but do not provide detailed traffic analysis.

Port mirroring (B): Port mirroring can redirect traffic for analysis but requires a packet capture tool for deeper inspection.

Performance monitoring (C): Focuses on system performance metrics, not detailed traffic content.

The correct answer is OSPF (Open Shortest Path First). OSPF is a link-state routing protocol known for its fast convergence and use of the Dijkstra algorithm to calculate the shortest loop-free path. It efficiently scales to large enterprise networks and avoids routing loops by maintaining a complete topology map.

A. BGP is primarily an external routing protocol used between ISPs, not internal.

B. STP is not a routing protocol; it prevents loops at Layer 2.

D. RIP is an older distance-vector protocol with slower convergence and a maximum hop limit of 15.

OSPF’s design makes it the preferred internal gateway protocol (IGP) for medium-to-large organizations requiring speed and loop-free reliability.

References (CompTIA Network+ N10-009):

Domain: Networking Concepts — IGPs, OSPF, routing protocols.

SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) systems are used to aggregate and analyze log data from various sources, including firewalls, to detect potential security incidents and assist in regulatory compliance. The document explains:

“SIEM solutions aggregate and analyze log and event data from multiple devices, including firewalls, across different locations. They help in real-time monitoring, incident response, and ensuring compliance with security policies.”

A content filter blocks access to specific websites based on category, URL, or keywords. This is the best solution to restrict gambling websites.

Breakdown of Options:

A. ACLs – Control network access, not specific web content.

B. Content filter – ✅ Correct answer. Used to block access to unwanted websites.

C. Port security – Prevents unauthorized device connections, not web traffic filtering.

D. Screened subnet – A DMZ isolates public-facing servers, not user restrictions.

A firewall is the best example of an appliance that can sit between network segments and permit or deny traffic flows based on security policy. In Network+ terms, firewalls enforce segmentation controls by applying rules that match on items such as source/destination IP, ports, protocols, and (with next-generation firewalls) even applications. This makes a firewall a common choice for directing allowed traffic between specific segments (for example, allowing users in a workstation VLAN to reach only certain ports on a server VLAN, while blocking everything else). This function is core to network security architecture and is frequently paired with concepts like network segmentation, ACL-style rule sets, and creating security zones.

An IDS (intrusion detection system) primarily monitors traffic and generates alerts on suspicious activity; it does not typically control or “direct allowed traffic” unless it is specifically an IPS (prevention) with inline blocking. An unmanaged switch operates at Layer 2 and forwards frames within a broadcast domain; it does not provide policy-based filtering between security segments. Therefore, the correct answer is Firewall.

Out-of-band (OOB) managementallows administrators to manage devices remotely even if the primary network is down. This is especially useful when physical access to the server is not possible. OOB management often uses a separate management interface, ensuring access regardless of the server's operational state.

Network segmentation involves dividing a network into smaller segments or subnets. This is particularly important when integrating OT (Operational Technology) devices to ensure that these devices are isolated from other parts of the network. Segmentation helps protect the OT devices from potential threats and minimizes the impact of any security incidents. It also helps manage traffic and improves overall network performance.References: CompTIA Network+ study materials.