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CPHRM Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following factors should be considered when setting or adjusting indemnity reserves?

    incurred medical expenses

    emotional pain and suffering

    medical expert witness costs

    future cost of medical care

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3 only

B.

1, 2, and 4 only

C.

1, 3, and 4 only

D.

2, 3, and 4 only

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Questions 5

A hospital's Ethics Committee is seeking advice on a case involving the elective sterilization of an adolescent patient who is developmentally disabled. One of the parents is refusing consent. The risk manager should evaluate which of the following?

    who has consent authority

    competency level of the patient

    diagnosis of the patient

    state statutes and laws

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3 only

B.

1, 2, and 4 only

C.

1, 3, and 4 only

D.

2, 3, and 4 only

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Questions 6

A root cause analysis of inpatient suicides would be most likely to discover problems with:

Options:

A.

The physical environment (e.g., ligature points, visibility)

B.

Billing documentation

C.

Dietary preferences

D.

Parking access

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Questions 7

Which of the following should prompt a risk manager to give notice to a malpractice carrier?

Options:

A.

written medical record request from an attorney

B.

demand letter from a patient

C.

internal incident report

D.

disclosure to a patient

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Questions 8

Which of the following should be the primary consideration when designing a new risk management program for a facility?

Options:

A.

size of the facility

B.

type of insurance the facility carries

C.

history of the facility

D.

mission and vision of the facility

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Questions 9

An organization's chief of orthopedics has scheduled an implant of a new artificial hip for the next day. The chief developed the artificial hip while working as a consultant for a medical device company. The device has not yet been approved by the FDA or the Institutional Review Board. The risk manager's best immediate course of action is to

Options:

A.

contact the FDA to clarify the status of the device.

B.

verify the informed consent for the procedure.

C.

call a special meeting of the Institutional Review Board.

D.

call the chief of surgery to discuss canceling the procedure.

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Questions 10

What is the voluntary relinquishment by the insurer or self-insurer of the right to recover from a third party?

Options:

A.

Waiver of subrogation

B.

Coinsurance

C.

Underwriting

D.

Experience rating

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Questions 11

A 78-year-old patient in the ICU is unable to speak or swallow. The physician states that she is terminally ill and believes she lacks decision-making capacity. As such, he has deferred to her properly executed advance directive that clearly outlines her wishes for no life-prolonging treatment. The patient's three sons know of the directive, but insist that a PEG tube be placed to assist with feeding. The physician is opposed to placing the tube. The nurse calls the risk manager for advice. Which of the following should the risk manager advise?

Options:

A.

The patient has the right to autonomy, and the advance directive is proper; support the physician.

B.

The family will outlive the patient, and they have the right to sue; support the family.

C.

More facts are needed; decision making capacity must be determined before moving forward.

D.

More facts are needed; request an ethics consultation.

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Questions 12

Protecting outdoor air intakes can mitigate the risk of terrorists introducing airborne agents. Steps include:

Options:

A.

Relocate intakes higher; establish a security zone; add lighting and surveillance

B.

Paint the intake vents a different color

C.

Put a “No trespassing” sign only

D.

Reduce HVAC maintenance

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Questions 13

A physician dies upon arrival to the emergency department from her home following a gunshot wound to the chest. The police report a history of domestic violence. The organization is required to notify the

Options:

A.

state Board of Medicine.

B.

Department of Health and Family Services.

C.

Office of the Medical Examiner.

D.

organization's public relations department.

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Questions 14

The set of values, norms, guiding beliefs, and understandings that is shared by members of a healthcare organization and is taught to new members is

Options:

A.

organizational culture.

B.

corporate vision.

C.

managerial ethics.

D.

strategic mission.

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Questions 15

What are the types of quality problems identified by the Institute of Medicine’s Roundtable on Health Care Quality?

Options:

A.

Misuse, overuse, and underuse

B.

Abuse, fraud, and waste

C.

Timeliness, equity, and efficiency

D.

Access, cost, and satisfaction

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Questions 16

Which of the following should be included in a risk management plan?

    purpose of the program

    budget for the department

    process of risk management activities

    structure of the program

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3 only

B.

1, 2, and 4 only

C.

1, 3, and 4 only

D.

2, 3, and 4 only

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Questions 17

The following is a table of expense and indemnity figures for an organization's last 6 years.

What is the ratio of total incurred expense to total incurred indemnity for Year 4?

Options:

A.

0.15

B.

0.18

C.

3.23

D.

0.20

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Questions 18

The risk manager is called by an administrator and told that a member of the pharmacy staff was arrested last night for illegal distribution of controlled substances. Which of the following recommendations should the risk manager make to administration?

    Verify the pre-employment background check.

    Inventory controlled drug stock.

    Interview other pharmacy staff.

    Notify the National Practitioner Data Bank.

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3 only

B.

1, 2, and 4 only

C.

1, 3, and 4 only

D.

2, 3, and 4 only

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Questions 19

Which of the following items should be part of a claim file?

    peer review reports or data

    correspondence with attorneys and investigators

    literature search

    verification of settlement authority

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3 only

B.

1, 2, and 4 only

C.

1, 3, and 4 only

D.

2, 3, and 4 only

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Questions 20

Per The Joint Commission and CMS patient visitation standards, a hospital may restrict an individual's ability to visit a patient if the visitor

Options:

A.

is not the patient's immediate family member.

B.

is known to be a drug seeker in the community.

C.

administered the patient an unknown drug via IV.

D.

is not the patient's designated healthcare surrogate.

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Questions 21

The enterprise risk management process extends beyond clinical risk management by

Options:

A.

ensuring its strategic priority at the senior leadership and governance levels.

B.

maintaining risks in silos as the best risk management approach.

C.

comparing the organization's internal and external environment for efficacy.

D.

analyzing the organization's medication administration program.

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Questions 22

An HMO advertises it is “the best” and its physicians can manage any illness/injury. A patient relies on this and is injured. The patient might sue the HMO for:

Options:

A.

Apparent agency / negligent misrepresentation / vicarious liability (depending on facts and jurisdiction)

B.

Only weather damage

C.

Only EMTALA penalties

D.

Only OSHA violations

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Questions 23

Standardization of abbreviations, acronyms, and symbols used throughout the organization will likely result in improvement related to which of the following Joint Commission National Patient Safety Goals?

Options:

A.

accuracy of patient identification

B.

effectiveness of communication among caregivers

C.

safety of using high-alert medications

D.

medication reconciliation

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Questions 24

Which of the following is the most reliable measure of the effectiveness of an educational program?

Options:

A.

analysis of written evaluations

B.

observable changes in human behavior

C.

reduced frequency of claims or suits

D.

reduced severity of claims or suits

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Questions 25

When conducting a safety audit in an Emergency Department, what does an administrator need to obtain first?

Options:

A.

A written set of safety standards/criteria for the audit

B.

A marketing plan

C.

A list of staff birthdays

D.

A patient satisfaction script

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Questions 26

The first layer of insurance that will respond to a specific type of loss or exposure is called

Options:

A.

baseline.

B.

foundation.

C.

primary.

D.

frontline.

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Questions 27

What are risk treatment strategies?

Options:

A.

Risk avoidance, risk retention, risk transfer (and risk reduction/mitigation)

B.

Public relations, branding, advertising

C.

Litigation, denial, delay

D.

Staff vacation scheduling

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Questions 28

Generally, an incident is defined as:

Options:

A.

Any happening not consistent with routine care/operations (including near-misses)

B.

Only events that cause death

C.

Only patient complaints

D.

Only billing disputes

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Questions 29

Which of the following are proactive elements of a workplace violence prevention program?

Options:

A.

pre-employment background screening, training, rounding, and active shooter drills

B.

de-escalation, law enforcement notification, restraining order, and victim support

C.

notification to Drug Enforcement Agency of drug theft and crisis intervention

D.

medical record documentation of events and emergency command center activation

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Questions 30

A 22-year-old man has been treated at a hospital for a psychiatric condition. His mother requests that a copy of the patient's medical record be released to her. The risk manager's advice to the medical records department should be to

Options:

A.

contact the hospital's legal counsel to authorize the release of the medical record.

B.

check with the psychiatrist for a recommendation to release the medical record.

C.

verify that a specific release of information form has been signed by the patient and then release the medical record.

D.

request evidence that the mother is the guardian of the patient and then release the medical record.

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Questions 31

What factors are included in a calculation of Risk Priority Number (RPN) in FMEA?

Options:

A.

Severity, occurrence (probability), detection

B.

Cost, staff satisfaction, marketing risk

C.

Legal privilege, media attention, reputation

D.

Insurance premiums, deductibles, coinsurance

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Questions 32

A patient who has suffered a stroke is aphasic and unable to swallow. The physician would like to place a PEG tube for feeding. The patient is considered incapacitated and his wife consents to the treatment. The patient's adult children do not. The wife and oldest daughter each present a power of attorney document identifying them as the designated decision makers. To support the ethical principle of patient autonomy, which of the following should the risk manager recommend?

Options:

A.

Check the dates on the documents; the one with the older date is the valid power of attorney.

B.

Check the dates on the documents; the one with the more recent date is the valid power of attorney.

C.

Tell the family to contact their respective counsel and return when they have worked this issue out.

D.

Refer the matter to the Ethics Committee for resolution.

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Questions 33

Which type of information was associated with the former HIPDB (now within NPDB) but not the original NPDB focus?

Options:

A.

Fraud/abuse-related actions and exclusions involving providers/suppliers (HIPDB purpose)

B.

Restaurant health inspections

C.

Public voter registration files

D.

School disciplinary actions

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Questions 34

Which of the following documents will an insurance underwriter use to provide an insurance quote?

Options:

A.

certificate of insurance

B.

declaration page

C.

certificate of need

D.

application

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Questions 35

A sentinel event is a patient safety event that reaches the patient and results in which of the following?

Options:

A.

death, permanent harm, or severe temporary harm

B.

death, temporary harm, or moderate harm

C.

permanent harm, severe temporary harm, or temporary harm

D.

severe temporary harm, moderate harm, or increased length of stay

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Exam Code: CPHRM
Exam Name: Certified Professional in Health Care Risk Management (CPHRM)
Last Update: Apr 2, 2026
Questions: 119
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