CV0-003 Sample Questions Answers

The upgrade method that is being implemented by the systems administrator is rolling. A rolling upgrade is a type of upgrade that applies the new version of a software or service to a subset of nodes or instances at a time, while the rest of the nodes or instances continue to run the old version. This way, the upgrade can be performed gradually and incrementally, without causing downtime or disruption to the entire system. A rolling upgrade can also help to monitor and test the new version for any issues or errors, and roll back to the old version if needed12.

A canary upgrade is a type of upgrade that applies the new version of a software or service to a small and selected group of users or customers, before rolling it out to the rest of the population. This way, the upgrade can be evaluated for its performance, functionality, and feedback, and any problems or bugs can be fixed before affecting the majority of users or customers34.

A blue-green upgrade is a type of upgrade that involves having two identical environments, one running the old version (blue) and one running the new version (green) of a software or service. The traffic is switched from the blue environment to the green environment once the new version is ready and tested. This way, the upgrade can be performed quickly and seamlessly, without any downtime or risk of failure. The blue environment can also serve as a backup in case of any issues with the green environment5 .

A staging upgrade is a type of upgrade that involves having a separate environment that mimics the production environment, where the new version of a software or service is deployed and tested before moving it to the production environment. This way, the upgrade can be verified and validated for its compatibility, security, and quality, and any defects or errors can be resolved before affecting the live system .

API provider rate limiting is a restriction on the number of requests that can be made to a web service or application programming interface (API) within a certain time period. API provider rate limiting can cause a failure to access a public cloud API deployment, as it can reject or block any requests that exceed the limit. API provider rate limiting can be used by cloud providers to control the usage and traffic of their customers and prevent overloading or abuse of their resources. API provider rate limiting is the most likely cause for the developer being unable to access a public cloud API deployment that was working ten minutes prior. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 13, section 2.5

A private cloud is a type of cloud deployment model that provides cloud services exclusively to a single organization or tenant. A private cloud allows a company to have full control over its IT infrastructure, as it can customize, configure, manage, and secure its own cloud environment according to its specific needs and preferences. A private cloud can also offer higher performance, reliability, and privacy than other cloud deployment models, as it does not share resources or data with other customers. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 8, section 1.2

The IP address range 10.168.0.0/24 can be divided into four equal subnets of 64 addresses each by using a /26 mask. The subnets are 10.168.0.0/26, 10.168.0.64/26, 10.168.0.128/26, and 10.168.0.192/26. The last address in each subnet is the broadcast address, and the second-last address can be used as the gateway address for that subnet. Therefore, one of the possible subnets and firewall IPs for one of the environments is 10.168.0.0/26 and 10.168.0.63.

References: [CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide], page 178.

The answer is C. Leverage a staging environment that is tightly controlled for showcasing. A staging environment is a replica of the production environment that is used for testing and demonstrating the final product before deployment. A staging environment can help the web consultancy group avoid the issues reported by the customers, such as mismatched expectations and unexpected behavior, by ensuring that the product is shown in a realistic and consistent setting. A staging environment can also help the group catch and fix any bugs or errors before they affect the live site.

Some possible sources of information about web development environments are:

• 7 Web Development Best Practices: This page provides some general tips and best practices for web development, such as planning, accessibility, UX/UI, standards, code quality, compatibility, and security.
• Web Development Best Practices (Building Real-World Cloud Apps with Azure): This page explains some specific best practices for web development in the cloud environment, such as stateless web tier, session state management, CDN caching, and async programming.
• Web Development Best Practices: This page lists some resources for learning web development best practices in ASP.NET, such as async and await, building real-world cloud apps with Azure, and hands-on labs.

One possible explanation for why two application servers have not generated any logs for a period of three days, while others continue to send logs normally, is that the application servers were migrated to the cloud as laaS (Infrastructure as a Service) instances. laaS is a cloud service model that provides virtualized computing resources over the internet, such as servers, storage, network, and operating systems. When an application server is migrated to the cloud as an laaS instance, it may require some configuration changes to enable the syslog forwarding to the same destination as before. For example, the laaS instance may have a different IP address, hostname, firewall rules, or network settings than the original server. If these changes are not properly made, the laaS instance may not be able to communicate with the syslog solution and send logs as expected.

Moving the VM to a host with a faster CPU is the best way to solve the issue of the security appliance installer saying the CPU clock speed does not meet the requirements when building a new VM for a network security appliance. Moving the VM to a host with a faster CPU can ensure that the VM meets the minimum CPU clock speed requirement for the security appliance, as it can use the physical CPU resources of the host. Moving the VM to a host with a faster CPU can also improve the performance and reliability of the security appliance, as it can reduce latency, contention, and overhead. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 11, section 1.6

A connection string is a parameter that specifies how to connect to a database server or instance. A connection string typically includes information such as the server name, database name, user name, password, and other options. Updating the connection string is the best way to fix the issue of application servers being unable to access the database servers after setting up a DR site on a different zone of the same CSP and replicating the application and database servers using VM replication and log shipping. Updating the connection string can ensure that the application servers can connect to the correct database server or instance in the DR site, as the server name or IP address may have changed after the replication. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, section 1.5

The maximum transmission unit (MTU) is the largest size of a packet or frame that can be sent over a network. Decreasing the MTU size on both servers can reduce the network delay between them, as it can reduce the fragmentation and reassembly of packets, improve the transmission efficiency, and avoid packet loss or errors. Decreasing the MTU size can also avoid taxing other system resources, as it does not require additional CPU, memory, or disk resources. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 16, section 3.2

A web application firewall (WAF) is a type of network security device or software that monitors and filters HTTP traffic between a web application and the Internet. A WAF can help mitigate the risk of exploitation of an SQL injection vulnerability reported on a web application while it is corrected by the development team, as it can detect and block any malicious requests or queries that attempt to inject SQL commands into the web application’s database. A WAF can also help protect the web application from other common web-based attacks, such as cross-site scripting (XSS), remote file inclusion (RFI), or denial-of-service (DoS). References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 14, section 2.7

The answer is A. SAML. SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language) is a standard for exchanging authentication and authorization data between different parties, such as a user and a service provider. In a federated cluster, SAML can be used to enable single sign-on (SSO) for users across multiple clusters or cloud providers. SAML relies on the exchange of XML-based assertions that contain information about the user’s identity, attributes, and entitlements. If the users’ API access tokens have become invalid, it could be because the SAML assertions have expired, been revoked, or corrupted. The administrator should check the SAML configuration and logs to determine the cause of this issue.

Some possible sources of information about SAML and federated clusters are:

• Authenticating | Kubernetes: This page provides an overview of authenticating users in Kubernetes, including using SAML for federated identity.
• Authenticating to the Kubernetes API server - Google Cloud: This page explains how to authenticate to the Kubernetes API server on Google Cloud, including using SAML for federated identity with Google Cloud Identity Platform.
• Error 403 User not authorized when trying to access Azure Databricks API through Active Directory - Stack Overflow: This page discusses a similar issue of users getting an error when trying to access Azure Databricks API using SAML and Active Directory.

One possible answer is:

B. VPN

A VPN (Virtual Private Network) is a technology that creates a secure and encrypted connection between a remote device and a private network over the internet. A VPN can help prevent unauthorized disclosure of financial information during the migration from a private cloud to the public cloud, as it can protect the data in transit from interception, tampering, or leakage. A VPN can also help maintain compliance with data privacy regulations, such as GDPR or PCI DSS, by ensuring that the data is only accessible by authorized parties12.

ACL (Access Control List) is a method of controlling access to resources based on user or group permissions. ACL can help enforce security policies and restrict access to sensitive data, but it does not encrypt or protect the data in transit3.

P2V (Physical to Virtual) is a process of converting a physical machine into a virtual machine. P2V can help migrate workloads from on-premises servers to cloud servers, but it does not ensure the security of the data during the migration4.

VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure) is a technology that provides users with virtual desktops hosted on a centralized server. VDI can help improve the performance, availability, and manageability of desktop environments, but it does not address the security of the data during the migration5.

A content delivery network (CDN) is a distributed network of servers that delivers web content to users based on their geographic location, origin server, and content delivery server. A CDN can assist with the increased workload caused by sudden continuous bursts of traffic, as it can reduce the load on the origin server by caching and serving static content from edge servers closer to the users. A CDN can also improve the performance and availability of web content delivery, as it can reduce latency, bandwidth consumption, and network congestion. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 12, section 2.2

One possible answer is:

A. Use cloud-native serverless services.

Cloud-native serverless services are a type of cloud computing that allows developers to build and run applications without having to manage servers, infrastructure, or scaling. Cloud-native serverless services can help the organization meet the requirements listed above, as they can:

• Minimize organizational infrastructure and comply with security standards. Cloud-native serverless services are fully managed by the cloud provider, which means the organization does not have to provision, configure, or maintain any servers or infrastructure. The cloud provider also handles the security aspects of the serverless environment, such as encryption, authentication, authorization, patching, and monitoring. The organization can focus on developing the application logic and rely on the cloud provider to meet the security standards12.
• Minimize organizational compliance efforts. Cloud-native serverless services can also help the organization reduce the compliance burden, as they can leverage the compliance certifications and attestations of the cloud provider. The cloud provider can ensure that the serverless environment complies with various regulations and standards, such as PCI DSS, HIPAA, GDPR, ISO 27001, etc. The organization can inherit the compliance posture of the cloud provider and avoid the hassle of auditing and validating their own infrastructure12.
• Focus on application development and increase speed to market. Cloud-native serverless services can also enable the organization to accelerate the development and delivery of their online product, as they can write code using their preferred programming languages and frameworks, and deploy it quickly and easily to the serverless environment. The serverless environment can automatically scale up or down based on the demand, ensuring high availability and performance. The organization can also integrate serverless services with other cloud services, such as databases, storage, analytics, etc., to create a full-stack application12.

The correct answer is C and F. iSCSI and FC.

iSCSI and FC are protocols that the company can use to share the disks between the nodes of the cluster to access the same LUN. A LUN, or logical unit number, is a unique identifier for a block of storage space that can be accessed by a host system or a cluster of systems. iSCSI and FC are both block-level protocols that allow transferring data between the storage device and the host system or cluster over a network.

iSCSI stands for Internet Small Computer System Interface, which is a protocol that uses TCP/IP to send SCSI commands over an Ethernet network. iSCSI can provide a low-cost and flexible solution for sharing disks between the nodes of the cluster, as it does not require any special hardware or cables, and can use existing network infrastructure. iSCSI can also support encryption and authentication for security purposes .

FC stands for Fibre Channel, which is a protocol that uses optical fiber cables to send SCSI commands over a dedicated network. FC can provide a high-performance and reliable solution for sharing disks between the nodes of the cluster, as it offers high bandwidth, low latency, and error correction. FC can also support zoning and masking for security purposes .

CIFS, or Common Internet File System, is a file-level protocol that allows sharing files and folders over a network. CIFS does not support sharing disks or accessing LUNs at the block level.

FTP, or File Transfer Protocol, is a protocol that allows transferring files between two systems over a network. FTP does not support sharing disks or accessing LUNs at the block level.

NFS, or Network File System, is a file-level protocol that allows sharing files and folders over a network. NFS does not support sharing disks or accessing LUNs at the block level.

RAID 10, or Redundant Array of Independent Disks 10, is a storage configuration that combines mirroring and striping to provide high performance and fault tolerance. RAID 10 is not a protocol that allows sharing disks or accessing LUNs over a network.

A PaaS solution, or platform as a service, is a cloud computing service that provides a complete, ready-to-use, cloud-hosted platform for developing, running, maintaining and managing applications1. A PaaS solution would meet the company’s goal of maximizing scalability, availability, and security, while requiring no infrastructure administration, because:

Scalability: A PaaS solution can automatically scale up or down the resources needed to run the application based on the demand and traffic. The company does not need to worry about provisioning or managing servers, storage, network, or load balancers23.

Availability: A PaaS solution can ensure high availability and reliability of the application by replicating it across multiple regions and zones. The company does not need to worry about backup, recovery, or failover23.

Security: A PaaS solution can provide built-in security features such as encryption, authentication, authorization, and firewall. The company does not need to worry about installing or updating security patches or software23.

No infrastructure administration: A PaaS solution can abstract away the underlying infrastructure and hardware from the company. The company only needs to focus on developing and deploying the application code and data. The PaaS provider takes care of the rest23.

A hybrid solution (B) is a cloud computing service that combines on-premises and cloud resources. It may offer some benefits such as flexibility and cost optimization, but it would not meet the company’s goal of requiring no infrastructure administration. The company would still need to manage and maintain the on-premises part of the solution4.

An IaaS solution ©, or infrastructure as a service, is a 

The correct answer is A. The containers.

The error that the programming team received indicates that the problem occurred after the containerized applications were created, but before they were deployed to the container platform. This suggests that the issue is related to the containers themselves, not the application, the scripts, or the templates.

The containers are the units of software that package up the application code and all its dependencies, such as libraries, frameworks, and configuration files. The containers run on a container platform, such as Docker or Kubernetes, that provides the runtime environment and orchestration for the containers. The containers are created from images, which are templates that define how to build and run a container.

The administrator should check the containers first to see if they are configured correctly, if they have any errors or warnings, if they have the necessary resources and permissions, and if they can communicate with each other and with the container platform. The administrator can use tools such as docker ps, docker logs, docker inspect, and docker exec to examine and troubleshoot the containers.

Distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) protection is a type of security solution that detects and mitigates DDoS attacks that aim to overwhelm or disrupt a system or service by sending large volumes of traffic from multiple sources. DDoS protection can prevent such disruptive traffic from reaching the web servers by filtering out malicious or unwanted traffic and allowing only legitimate traffic to pass through. DDoS protection can also help maintain the availability and functionality of web services and applications during a DDoS attack. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 14, section 2.7

Single sign-on (SSO) is a technology that allows a user to access multiple applications or services with a single login and authentication process. SSO can enhance security by reducing the number of passwords that a user has to remember and enter, and by enabling centralized management and enforcement of security policies .

SSO can help address the issue of multiple SaaS-based cloud applications requiring authentication upon access. By implementing SSO, an administrator can:

Simplify the user experience and increase productivity by eliminating the need to enter multiple usernames and passwords for different applications .

Improve the security and compliance of the applications by using a trusted identity provider (IdP) that can verify the user’s identity and credentials, and grant or deny access based on predefined rules .

Reduce the risk of password breaches, phishing, or identity theft by minimizing the exposure of passwords to third-party applications or malicious actors .

Peering is a networking technique that allows direct and private connection between two or more cloud networks without using the public Internet. Peering can help the cloud administrator improve the connectivity within the regions by reducing the latency, increasing the bandwidth, and enhancing the security of the data transfer. Peering can be implemented between VPCs within the same region or across different regions, depending on the CSP’s offerings and the customer’s requirements. Peering can also help reduce the network costs by avoiding the use of the Internet gateways or VPNs. References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3, Objective 3.1: Given a scenario, implement cloud networking solutions.

The correct answer is B and E. An agent-based scan and a credentialed scan can help verify if the vulnerability related to outdated web-server software is a true positive with the least effort and cost.

An agent-based scan is a type of vulnerability scan that uses software agents installed on the target systems to collect and report data on vulnerabilities. This method can provide more accurate and detailed results than a network-based scan, which relies on network traffic analysis and probes1. An agent-based scan can also reduce the network bandwidth and performance impact of scanning, as well as avoid triggering false alarms from intrusion detection systems2.

A credentialed scan is a type of vulnerability scan that uses valid login credentials to access the target systems and perform a more thorough and comprehensive assessment of their configuration, patch level, and vulnerabilities. A credentialed scan can identify vulnerabilities that are not visible or exploitable from the network level, such as missing updates, weak passwords, or misconfigured services3. A credentialed scan can also reduce the risk of false positives and false negatives, as well as avoid causing damage or disruption to the target systems3.

A network-based scan, a port scan, a red-team exercise, a blue-team exercise, and unknown environment penetration testing are not the best options to verify if the vulnerability is a true positive with the least effort and cost. A network-based scan and a port scan may not be able to detect the vulnerability if it is not exposed or exploitable from the network level. A red-team exercise, a blue-team exercise, and unknown environment penetration testing are more complex, time-consuming, and costly methods that involve simulating real-world attacks or defending against them. These methods are more suitable for testing the overall security posture and resilience of an organization, rather than verifying a specific vulnerability4.

The most likely reason for the latency is service degradation on the ISP. The results show that the ping and traceroute commands have sporadic timeout and increased round-trip values when reaching the public IP address of the cloud provider. This indicates that there is a network issue between the organization and the cloud provider, which could be caused by service degradation on the ISP. Service degradation on the ISP means that the ISP is experiencing reduced performance or availability of its network services, which can affect the quality and speed of the data transmission. Service degradation on the ISP can be caused by various factors, such as congestion, routing problems, hardware failures, or maintenance activities. To resolve this issue, the systems administrator should contact the ISP and report the problem, and request a status update or a resolution plan. References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3, Objective 3.2: Given a scenario, troubleshoot network connectivity issues.

The error message indicates that the SSL/TLS handshake failed due to an invalid certificate. This means that the client machine does not trust the certificate authority (CA) that issued the certificate for the cloud provider’s API. A self-signed certificate or an insecure cipher would not cause this error, as they would be detected during the certificate validation process. The TLS version is not relevant, as the error occurs before the protocol negotiation. The most likely cause of the error is that the client machine does not have the root CA certificate installed in its trust store, or that the cloud provider’s certificate chain is incomplete or broken. To fix the error, the client machine needs to install the root CA certificate or the cloud provider needs to fix its certificate chain. References: The Official CompTIA Cloud+ Self-Paced Study Guide (CV0-003) eBook, Chapter 6, Section 6.2, page 2321

RAID stands for Redundant Array of Independent Disks, which is a technology that combines multiple physical disks into a logical unit that provides improved performance, reliability, and storage capacity. RAID levels are different ways of organizing and distributing data across the disks in a RAID array. Each RAID level has its own advantages and disadvantages, depending on the requirements and trade-offs of the system.

RAID 6 is a RAID level that uses block-level striping with double parity. This means that data is divided into blocks and distributed across all the disks in the array, and two sets of parity information are calculated and stored on different disks. Parity is a method of error detection and correction that can reconstruct the data in case of disk failure. RAID 6 can withstand the failure of up to two disks without losing any data, which makes it suitable for a private cloud that requires high fault tolerance. RAID 6 also maximizes the storage capacity of its drives, as it only uses two disks for parity and the rest for data. The storage capacity of a RAID 6 array is equal to (n-2) x S, where n is the number of disks and S is the size of the smallest disk.

RAID 0, RAID 1, RAID 5, and RAID 10 are other RAID levels, but they do not meet the requirements of the private cloud. RAID 0 uses striping without parity, which improves performance but does not provide any redundancy or fault tolerance. RAID 0 cannot withstand any disk failure, as it would result in data loss. RAID 1 uses mirroring, which copies the same data to two or more disks. RAID 1 provides high reliability and fast read performance, but it wastes half of the storage capacity for redundancy. RAID 1 can only withstand the failure of one disk in each mirrored pair. RAID 5 uses striping with single parity, which distributes data and parity across all the disks in the array. RAID 5 provides a balance of performance, reliability, and storage capacity, but it can only withstand the failure of one disk. RAID 10 is a combination of RAID 1 and RAID 0, which creates a striped array of mirrored pairs. RAID 10 provides high performance and reliability, but it also wastes half of the storage capacity for redundancy. RAID 10 can withstand the failure of one disk in each mirrored pair, but not more than that.

For more information on RAID levels, you can refer to the following sources:

• CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4, Storage Technologies, page 791
• Cloud+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications2

Object storage is a storage option that stores data as discrete units called objects, which are identified by a unique identifier and can have metadata attached to them. Object storage can help the cloud engineer migrate the content to improve availability by decoupling the data from the underlying infrastructure and components. Object storage can also provide high scalability, durability, and redundancy for the data, as well as support for multiple protocols and access methods. Object storage can be accessed through APIs, web interfaces, or gateways that can emulate file or block storage. Object storage is suitable for storing unstructured or static data, such as web content, images, videos, or documents. References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4, Objective 4.1: Given a scenario, implement cloud storage solutions.

A bucket Comprehensive Explanation: A bucket is a cloud storage solution that allows users to store and access objects, such as files, images, videos, etc. A bucket is typically associated with object storage services, such as Amazon S3, Google Cloud Storage, or Microsoft Azure Blob Storage123. A bucket has the following characteristics that match the requirements of the application:

• The owner of the objects is the object writer. This means that the user who uploads or writes an object to the bucket becomes the owner of that object and can control its access permissions456.
• The storage system enforces TLS encryption. This means that the data in transit between the client and the bucket is encrypted using the Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocol, which provides security and privacy for the communication .

A CIFS endpoint, a SAN, and an NFS mount are not cloud storage solutions, but rather network protocols or architectures that enable access to storage devices

Long-term support (LTS) is a type of release cycle that provides extended support and maintenance for software products or operating systems. LTS releases typically have longer end-of-life dates than regular releases, as they receive security updates, bug fixes, and patches for several years after their initial release date. LTS releases can also offer higher stability, reliability, and compatibility than regular releases, as they undergo more testing and quality assurance processes before being released. LTS is the best OS build for a systems administrator to use when provisioning VMs in a cloud environment and being told to select an OS build with the furthest end-of-life date. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 11, section 1.6

IaaS stands for Infrastructure as a Service, and it is a cloud service model that provides customers with access to virtualized computing resources, such as servers, storage, and networks. In the IaaS model, the customer is responsible for patching the operating system (OS) of the virtual machines, as well as installing and managing the applications and data. The cloud service provider (CSP) is responsible for maintaining the physical infrastructure, such as the hardware, power, cooling, and security. Therefore, IaaS passes the responsibility of patching the OS to the customer, unlike PaaS, DBaaS, or SaaS, where the CSP handles the OS patching and updates. References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 2, Objective 2.1: Given a scenario, deploy cloud services and solutions.

LTS stands for Long Term Support, and it is a term that refers to a version of an operating system that receives updates and security patches for a longer period of time than other versions. LTS versions are usually more stable and reliable than other versions, and they are suitable for users who want to avoid frequent changes or compatibility issues. By choosing LTS versions for the VMs that are hosted in a cloud environment, the systems administrator can ensure that the VMs receive updates for as long as possible, and benefit from the enhanced security and performance of the operating system. LTS versions are typically released every few years, and they are supported for several years after their release. For example, Ubuntu 20.04 LTS is supported until April 2025, while Ubuntu 21.04 is supported until January 2022. References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5, Objective 5.2: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common cloud resource and service issues.

A storage live migration is a process of moving or transferring data or files from one storage system or device to another without interrupting or affecting the availability or performance of the VMs or applications that use them. Performing a storage live migration can help migrate the data from a SAN that is being decommissioned to a new array, as it can ensure that there is no downtime or disruption for the VMs or applications that rely on the data or files stored on the SAN. Performing a storage live migration can also help maintain consistency and integrity, as it can synchronize and verify the data or files between the source and destination storage systems or devices. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, section 1.5

Identity federation is a type of authentication mechanism that allows users to access multiple systems or applications across different domains or organizations with a single login credential. Identity federation can help integrate the cloud resources of Company A and Company B after Company A has acquired Company B, as it can enable seamless and secure access to both companies’ cloud resources using the same IAM solution. Identity federation can also improve user convenience, productivity, and security, as it can simplify the login process, reduce login errors, and enhance password management. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 14, section 2.7

Autoscaling is a feature that allows groups of compute units to horizontally scale according to a workload or predefined rules. Autoscaling can increase or decrease the number of compute units dynamically based on metrics such as CPU utilization, memory usage, network traffic, or user demand. Autoscaling can improve performance, availability, and cost-efficiency of cloud applications.

References: [CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide], page 75.

The correct answer is A. per gigabyte.

A cost model for a DBaaS is a way of determining how much the user pays for the database service. Different cost models may have different pricing factors, such as storage usage, data transfer, compute resources, and additional services.

A per gigabyte cost model is best for a cloud solution because it allows the user to pay only for the amount of storage space they use for their database. This way, the user can scale up or down their storage needs as per their requirements and budget. A per gigabyte cost model also reflects the actual cost of the infrastructure, software licenses, and maintenance that the service provider incurs to host and operate the database1.

A per seat cost model is not suitable for a cloud solution because it charges the user based on the number of seats or licenses they purchase for the database service. This means that the user may end up paying for more seats than they actually use, or not have enough seats to accommodate their users. A per seat cost model also does not account for the storage usage or performance of the database.

A per user cost model is also not suitable for a cloud solution because it charges the user based on the number of users who access the database service. This means that the user may have to pay more if they have a large number of users, or less if they have a small number of users. A per user cost model also does not account for the storage usage or performance of the database.

A per device cost model is also not suitable for a cloud solution because it charges the user based on the number of devices that connect to the database service. This means that the user may have to pay more if they have multiple devices per user, or less if they have one device per user. A per device cost model also does not account for the storage usage or performance of the database.

The correct answer is C. Import the virtual appliance into the environment and deploy it as a VM.

A virtual appliance is a pre-packaged and pre-configured software solution that runs on a virtual machine (VM). A virtual appliance typically consists of an operating system, an application, and any required dependencies, and is designed to provide a specific function or service. A virtual appliance can be distributed as a single file or a set of files that can be imported into a virtualization platform, such as VMware, Hyper-V, or KVM .

A cloud administrator can deploy a security virtual appliance in a private cloud environment by importing the virtual appliance into the environment and deploying it as a VM. This is the best way to accomplish this task because it preserves the original configuration and functionality of the virtual appliance, and does not require any additional installation or customization. The cloud administrator can also control the access and visibility of the virtual appliance, and prevent other users from requesting it from the standard catalog of items .

Creating an empty VM, importing the hard disk of the virtual appliance, and configuring the CPU and memory is not the best way to accomplish this task because it involves more steps and complexity than importing the virtual appliance as a whole. It also introduces the risk of losing or corrupting some data or settings during the import process, or misconfiguring the CPU and memory for the virtual appliance.

Acquiring the build scripts from the vendor and recreating the appliance using the baseline templates is not the best way to accomplish this task because it involves more time and effort than importing the virtual appliance directly. It also depends on whether the vendor provides the build scripts or not, and whether they are compatible with the baseline templates or not.

Converting the virtual appliance to a template and deploying a new VM using the template is not the best way to accomplish this task because it adds an unnecessary step of creating a template from the virtual appliance. It also does not prevent other users from accessing or requesting the template from the catalog of items.

Cloud bursting is a scalability model that allows a company to use a hybrid cloud environment to handle peak or unpredictable workloads. Cloud bursting involves using the private cloud to host the core or critical applications, and using the public cloud to provide additional or temporary resources when the demand exceeds the capacity of the private cloud .

Cloud bursting can help a company to:

Improve the availability and reliability of the applications by replicating them across multiple cloud platforms and locations .

Optimize the performance and efficiency of the applications by dynamically allocating and releasing resources based on the workload and traffic .

Reduce the cost and complexity of the IT infrastructure by leveraging the pay-as-you-go and on-demand models of the public cloud .

The correct answer is C. Legal hold.

A legal hold is a process that organizations use to preserve relevant electronic information when they anticipate litigation or have an active e-discovery request. A legal hold requires that certain email messages be retained and unaltered until they are no longer required for court use. Legal hold requirements apply both to the content of messages as well as the metadata which can provide proof of delivery and other critical non-repudiation information12.

Email archiving is a process that organizations use to store email messages for long-term retention, compliance, and backup purposes. Email archiving does not necessarily imply that the email messages are preserved for legal purposes, although some email archiving solutions may offer legal hold capabilities1.

Version control is a process that software developers use to manage changes to source code and other files in a project. Version control allows developers to track, compare, and revert changes, as well as collaborate with other developers. Version control does not apply to email messages or legal hold.

File integrity monitoring is a process that security professionals use to detect unauthorized or malicious changes to files and directories on a system. File integrity monitoring helps to protect the system from malware, data breaches, and configuration errors. File integrity monitoring does not apply to email messages or legal hold.

Containers are a solution that offers isolation, portability, and scalability for software development and deployment. Containers are lightweight and self-contained units of software that package up the application code and all its dependencies, such as libraries, frameworks, and configuration files. Containers run on a container platform, such as Docker or Kubernetes, that provides the runtime environment and orchestration for the containers.

Containers offer isolation, as they run independently from each other and from the underlying host system. Each container has its own namespace, filesystem, network, and resources, and does not interfere with other containers or processes. Containers also offer portability, as they can run on any system that supports the container platform, regardless of the hardware or operating system differences. Containers can be easily moved, copied, or deployed across different environments, such as development, testing, or production. Containers also offer scalability, as they can be dynamically created, destroyed, or replicated to meet the changing demand for the application. Containers can also leverage the distributed computing power of clusters, which are groups of servers that work together to provide high availability and performance .

A disaster recovery (DR) solution is a set of policies, procedures, and tools that enable an organization to restore or continue its critical functions in the event of a natural or human-induced disaster. A DR solution for the application between different data centers means that the application is replicated or backed up to another location that is geographically separated from the primary data center. This way, if the primary data center becomes unavailable due to a power outage, fire, flood, cyberattack, or any other cause, the application can be switched over to the secondary data center and resume its operations with minimal downtime and data loss. This solution ensures business continuity and high availability for the application and its users. References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Study Guide, Chapter 5: Maintaining a Cloud Environment, page 221-222; Disaster recovery planning guide.

Containers are a type of deployment technology that packages an application and its dependencies into a lightweight and portable unit that can run on any platform or environment. Containers can provide a high level of portability and are lightweight in terms of footprint and resource requirements, as they do not need a full operating system or hypervisor to run. Containers can also enable faster and easier deployment, scaling, and management of cloud-based applications. Containers are the best solution to help the administrator achieve the requirements for deploying a cloud-ready application. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 11, section 1.6

Peering is a type of network connection that allows two or more networks to exchange traffic directly without using an intermediary or a third-party service. Peering can help connect multiregions within an IaaS provider, as it can enable private networking in and between the multisites for data replication. Peering can also provide low latency, as it can reduce the number of hops and distance between the networks. Peering is the best solution for designing a multiregion network within an IaaS provider to support business requirements. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 15, section 2.8

A /28 subnet is a subnet that has a network prefix of 28 bits and a host prefix of 4 bits. A /28 subnet can support up to 16 hosts (14 usable hosts) and has a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240. Using a /28 subnet can meet the minimum IP requirement for deploying a web application in a public cloud with two web servers, two database servers, and a load balancer that is accessible over a single public IP, taking into account the gateway for this subnet and the potential to add two more web servers. Using a /28 subnet can provide enough host addresses for the current and future web servers, database servers, load balancer, and gateway, as well as allow for some growth or redundancy. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 15, section 2.8

Checking in and committing are actions that save and update the changes made to a file or code in a version control system or repository. Checking in and committing can help track and synchronize the changes made by different users or developers working on the same file or code. The deployment script changes made by the first administrator were not checked in and committed is the most likely reason for the issue of the application load balancer being missing from the new deployment after a second administrator made some changes and ran the script. If the first administrator did not check in and commit the changes made to add an application load balancer to the script, then those changes would not be reflected or available in the latest version of the script used by the second administrator. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 13, section 2.5

Adding a deny rule to the network ACL is a common containment procedure for a security incident on an IaaS platform, as it can isolate the affected instance from the rest of the network and prevent further compromise or data exfiltration. Connecting to an instance for triage, mirroring the traffic to perform a traffic capture, and performing a memory acquisition are more likely to be part of the analysis or evidence collection procedures, not the containment procedure.

References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Exam Objectives, Objective 4.2: Given a scenario, apply security configurations and compliance controls ; Cloud Security Mitigation | Cloud Computing | CompTIA1

Encryption is the process of transforming data into an unreadable format using a secret key or algorithm. Encryption can be used to protect data at rest or in transit from unauthorized access or theft. If a physical breach occurs and hard drives are stolen, encryption can prevent the contents of the drives from being readable by anyone who does not have the decryption key or algorithm.

References: [CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide], page 236.

The correct answers are B and D.

B. Reduced monthly costs: One of the main advantages of public cloud is that it lowers the costs of IT infrastructure and maintenance for the customers. They do not need to purchase, install, or manage any hardware or software, and they only pay for the resources they use. This can result in significant savings compared to owning and operating a private cloud or an on-premise data center1234

D. Pay as you use: Another benefit of public cloud is that it offers a flexible and scalable pricing model based on the actual usage of the customers. They can adjust their resource consumption according to their changing needs and demands, and only pay for what they use. This eliminates the need for upfront capital investment or long-term contracts, and allows customers to optimize their spending and performance1234

The answer is B. A VPN tunnel. A VPN tunnel is a secure and encrypted connection between two networks over a public network, such as the Internet. A VPN tunnel can help protect data in transit by encrypting it before it leaves the company’s network and decrypting it when it reaches the public cloud service provider. A VPN tunnel can also authenticate the endpoints and verify the integrity of the data.

Some possible sources of information about VPN tunnels are:

• What is a VPN Tunnel? | Fortinet: This page explains what a VPN tunnel is, how it works, and what benefits it provides.
• VPN Gateway: Create a Site-to-Site connection using a VPN gateway | Microsoft Docs: This page shows how to create a site-to-site connection using a VPN gateway in Azure.
• [Cloud VPN overview | Google Cloud]: This page provides an overview of Cloud VPN, a service that creates secure and reliable VPN tunnels to Google Cloud.

A VM-level snapshot is a point-in-time copy of the state and data of a virtual machine (VM). A VM-level snapshot can be used as a quick method to roll back to an earlier state, if necessary, as it can restore the VM to the exact condition it was in when the snapshot was taken. A VM-level snapshot can be useful for performing an in-place upgrade on a guest VM operating system, as it can allow the administrator to revert to the previous operating system version in case of any issues or errors. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 10, section 1.5

Infrastructure as code (IaC) is a method of provisioning and managing cloud resources using code or scripts, rather than manual processes or GUI tools. This allows for automation, consistency, scalability, and version control of the infrastructure layer. This would be the best option to deploy a solution to automate new application releases that come from the development team without modifying any configurations in the application code. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.0 Maintenance, Objective 3.4 Given a scenario, implement automation and orchestration to optimize cloud operations.

A network-based scan is a type of vulnerability assessment that scans the network services exposed by the hosts without requiring any credentials or agents. This type of scan will help achieve the objective of scanning the network services with the least privileges, as it does not need any access to the hosts or their internal configurations. A network-based scan can identify open ports, running services, and potential vulnerabilities on the hosts. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2.0 Security, Objective 2.4 Given a scenario, implement security automation and orchestration in a cloud environment.

An application whitelisting policy is a set of rules that specifies which applications are allowed to run on a system or a network. Application whitelisting is a security technique that can prevent unauthorized or malicious software from executing, and it is often used in VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure) environments to provide end users with access to limited applications. A cloud administrator who is responsible for managing a VDI environment should make changes to the application whitelisting policy when a new application needs to be provided, as this would ensure that the new application is authorized and compatible with the VDI environment.

Enable MFA with a one-time password. MFA stands for multi-factor authentication, which is a method of verifying a user’s identity by requiring two or more forms of authentication. A one-time password (OTP) is a code that is generated randomly and valid only for a short period of time. By enabling MFA with OTP, the administrator can make access to the SaaS email more secure without changing the password policy, as users will need to provide both their password and an OTP to sign in.

The first step to identify the scope of an incident in an IaaS platform is to perform a traffic capture on the affected instances or network interfaces. This will help to determine the source, destination, and nature of the malicious or anomalous traffic, as well as the impact on the network performance and availability. A traffic capture can also provide evidence for further analysis and remediation. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 4.0 Troubleshooting, Objective 4.2 Given a scenario, troubleshoot security issues related to cloud implementations.

One possible cause for the strange files and the large spike in network traffic on the storage appliance is that the default password is still configured on the appliance. A default password is a password that is set by the manufacturer or vendor of a device or software, and it is often easy to guess or find online. If the cloud engineer did not change the default password after deploying the virtual storage appliance, it could allow unauthorized users to access the appliance remotely and upload or download files, which could explain the symptoms observed by the administrator. This is a serious security risk that could compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data stored on the appliance.

User quotas are a feature that allows the administrator to limit the amount of storage space that a user or a group of users can consume on a file server. User quotas can help to control storage usage by preventing users from storing excessive or unnecessary files, as well as by enforcing fair and consistent storage policies across the organization. User quotas can also help to monitor and report on the storage consumption and trends of the users, and alert the administrator or the users when they are approaching or exceeding their quota limits.

 A quota is a limit on the number of resources that a cloud account can create or use in a public cloud environment. If the cloud account tries to create more instances than the quota allows, it will receive a LimitedInstanceCapacity error, indicating that there is not enough available capacity to fulfill the request

The recovery point objective (RPO) is a metric that defines the maximum amount of data that can be lost or acceptable data loss in the event of a disaster or disruption. The RPO determines how frequently the backups should be performed and how far back in time the recovery should go. In this case, the RPO needs to be updated in the DR plan, as seven hours’ worth of data loss is deemed unacceptable. The RPO should be reduced to a lower value, such as one hour or less, to minimize the data loss and meet the business requirements. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.0 Maintenance, Objective 3.2 Given a scenario, implement backup, restore, disaster recovery and business continuity measures.

DLP (Data Loss Prevention) is a service that prevents the unauthorized or accidental disclosure of confidential or sensitive data, such as company information, intellectual property, customer data, or personal information. DLP can monitor, detect, and block the data in motion (such as email, web, or network traffic), data at rest (such as files, databases, or cloud storage), or data in use (such as endpoints, applications, or clipboard). DLP can help a systems administrator to ensure confidential company information is not leaked to competitors by applying policies and rules that define what data is considered confidential, who can access it, how it can be used, and what actions to take if a violation occurs. For example, DLP can encrypt, quarantine, delete, or alert the administrator if confidential data is being copied, transferred, or shared outside the organization.

System hardening. System hardening is the process of securing a system by reducing its surface of vulnerability, which is larger when a system performs more functions. In contrast to system hardening, which is performed once, patch management, vulnerability scanning, and log monitoring are ongoing processes. By hardening the VDI instances, the provider can prevent users from installing prohibited software or making unauthorized changes to the system configuration. This can be done by applying security policies, disabling unnecessary services, removing default accounts, and enforcing strong passwords. For more information on system hardening, you can refer to the CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Certification Study Guide1 or the CompTIA Cloud+ (Plus) Certification website2.

The most suitable hashing algorithm from a performance perspective to maintain file integrity checks on a cloud object store is MD5 (Message Digest 5). MD5 is a hashing algorithm that generates a 128-bit hash value for any given input data. MD5 is faster and more efficient than other hashing algorithms, such as SHA-256 or SHA-512, which generate longer hash values and require more computational resources. MD5 can be used to verify the integrity of files by comparing their hash values before and after transmission or storage. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2.0 Security, Objective 2.5 Given a scenario, apply data security techniques in the cloud.

The best method to maintain data confidentiality after discovering that the servers have been compromised and sensitive files have been exfiltrated is encryption. Encryption is a process that transforms data into an unreadable format using an algorithm and a key. Encryption can protect data at rest, in transit, or in use from unauthorized access, tampering, or leakage. The systems administrator should encrypt the sensitive files and their backups using strong encryption algorithms and keys, and also encrypt the network traffic using protocols such as SSL or IPSec. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2.0 Security, Objective 2.5 Given a scenario, apply data security techniques in the cloud.

A Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS) is a cloud computing model that provides customers a complete cloud platform—hardware, software, and infrastructure—for developing, running, and managing applications without the cost, complexity, and inflexibility that often comes with building and maintaining that platform on-premises1.

To develop a new website using a PaaS, the development team needs to deploy new virtual machines (VMs) on the cloud platform. VMs are software emulations of physical computers that can run different operating systems and applications. By deploying new VMs, the development team can create a scalable and flexible environment for their website project, without having to invest in or manage physical hardware2.

To enable remote access to the workstations using their corporate email addresses, the development team needs to integrate identity services on the cloud platform. Identity services are services that provide authentication, authorization, and identity management for users and devices accessing cloud resources. By integrating identity services, the development team can use their corporate email addresses as single sign-on (SSO) credentials to access their workstations from any device and location, while ensuring security and compliance3.

The other options are not the best solutions for these requirements:

• Configuring email account replication is not necessary for remote access to the workstations. Email account replication is a process of synchronizing email accounts across different servers or locations. It can provide backup and redundancy for email services, but it does not provide authentication or identity management for remote access4.
• Implementing a Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) solution is not a PaaS solution. VDI is a technology that allows users to access virtual desktops hosted on a centralized server. VDI can provide remote access to desktop environments, but it requires additional hardware, software, and management costs that are not included in a PaaS model5.
• Migrating local VHD workstations is not a PaaS solution. VHD stands for Virtual Hard Disk, which is a file format that represents a virtual hard disk drive. Migrating local VHD workstations means moving the virtual hard disk files from local storage to cloud storage. This can provide backup and portability for the workstations, but it does not provide a complete cloud platform for developing and running applications6.
• Creating a new directory service is not necessary for remote access to the workstations. A directory service is a service that stores and organizes information about users, devices, and resources on a network. Creating a new directory service means setting up a new database and schema for storing this information. This can provide identity management and access control for the network, but it does not provide authentication or SSO for remote access.

Setting custom notifications for exceeding budget thresholds is the best option to execute the task of monitoring the expense of the company’s cloud resources with minimal effort, as it can automate and simplify the process of tracking and alerting the cloud administrator about any overspending or wastage of cloud resources. Setting custom notifications can also help optimize the cost and performance of cloud resources, as it can enable timely and proactive actions to adjust or optimize the resource allocation or consumption based on the budget limits. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 13, section 2.5

A service account is a type of user account that is created for a specific service or application to run on a server or system. Creating a service account on the server is the best authentication technique to use within the playbook to run tasks against the server on a set schedule, as it can provide secure and consistent access to the server without exposing or hard-coding any sensitive credentials within the playbook. Creating a service account can also help manage and monitor the tasks and activities performed by the service or application on the server. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 14, section 2.7

Core-based licensing is a type of licensing model that charges based on the number of processor cores in a system or server. Core-based licensing is often used by software vendors to align their pricing with the performance and capacity of modern hardware. Core-based licensing can also enable customers to optimize their licensing costs by choosing the appropriate hardware configuration for their needs. Upgrading the processors in a web application host can affect the core-based licensing of the application, as it may increase the number of cores that need to be licensed. This can result in an alert regarding the license being out of compliance if the license is not updated accordingly. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 20, section 4.2

Microsegmentation is a type of network security technique that divides a network into smaller logical segments or zones based on workload or application characteristics and applies granular policies and rules to control and isolate traffic within each segment or zone. Implementing microsegmentation on the network can help prevent lateral movement in the future after lateral-moving malware has infected the server infrastructure, as it can limit the exposure and spread of malware by restricting access and communication between different segments or zones based on predefined criteria such as identity, role, or behavior. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 14, section 2.7

Updating the gateway on the web server to use 72.135.10.1 is the best action to take to resolve the issue of the web server being unavailable after being deployed in a public IaaS provider and assigned the public IP address of 72.135.10.100. Updating the gateway can ensure that the web server can communicate with the Internet and other networks by using the correct router or device that connects the web server’s network to other networks. Updating the gateway can also improve performance and reliability, as it can avoid any routing errors or conflicts that may prevent the web server from responding to remote login requests. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 15, section 2.8

File write permissions are permissions that control who can modify or delete files in a directory or system. Restricting the file write permissions to the development group only can help minimize the risk of having systems administrators in an IaaS compute instance perform application code changes, as it can prevent anyone other than the development group from altering or removing any files in the directory where the application code is stored. Restricting the file write permissions can also help maintain consistency and integrity, as it can ensure that only authorized and qualified users can make changes to the application code. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 14, section 2.7

A virtual application delivery controller (vADC) is a type of network device or software that provides load balancing, security, and optimization for web applications or services. Deploying a vADC appliance can help prevent an outage of the organization’s web server infrastructure due to a spike in network traffic, as it can distribute the traffic across multiple web servers and improve the performance and availability of web applications or services. Deploying a vADC appliance can also provide mitigation methods such as DDoS protection, SSL offloading, and caching to enhance the security and efficiency of web traffic delivery. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 15, section 2.8

Regions are geographical locations or areas where cloud service providers have data centers or facilities that host their cloud resources or services. Regions can help reduce latency for all users when deploying a globally accessed application to the cloud, as they can enable faster and closer access to the cloud resources or services based on the user’s physical location. Regions can also improve performance and availability, as they can provide redundancy and load balancing by distributing the workload across multiple locations. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 15, section 2.8

The SA would do the other three regardless of the need to alter configurations. In this situation, the SA would have to present the change to the CCB in order to do the alteration.

There is no clarification on whether the change management process has been gone through. Any changes, regardless of how small or big, must go through the change management process. This allows proposals to be heard by end-users, management, and possibly stockholders. From there, it will be reviewed and either approved or denied, with reasons specified. From there, the administrator(s) can do whatever processes are necessary.

Change management is a process or procedure that defines the steps, roles, and responsibilities for implementing, documenting, and communicating any changes or updates to a system or service. Change management can help ensure that any changes or updates are done in a controlled and consistent manner, minimizing any risks or impacts to the system or service. Performing change management is the first thing that a systems administrator should do before altering the configuration of one of the finance department’s database servers, as it can ensure that the change request is approved, authorized, tested, and verified before applying it to the database server. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 13, section 2.5

Single sign-on (SSO) is a type of authentication mechanism that allows users to access multiple systems or applications with a single login credential. SSO can help users have a seamless experience regardless of the collaboration solution being used, as it can eliminate the need for multiple logins and passwords for different systems or applications. SSO can also improve user convenience, productivity, and security, as it can simplify the login process, reduce login errors, and enhance password management. References: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 14, section 2.7

The correct answer is D. Migrate the data to flash storage. Flash storage is a type of solid-state storage that uses flash memory to store data. Flash storage has much faster performance and lower latency than NL-SAS storage, which is a type of hard disk drive that uses nearline serial attached SCSI interface. According to the web search results, NL-SAS devices have much higher response times than flash devices123. Therefore, migrating the data to flash storage can reduce the application latency and improve the user experience. Increasing the capacity of the data storage, migrating the data to SAS storage, or increasing the CPU of the VM are not likely to solve the latency issue, as they do not address the root cause of the problem, which is the slow performance of NL-SAS storage. For more information on flash storage and its benefits, you can refer to the Dell EMC Unity: FAST Technology Overview2 or the Dell Technologies website4.

A site-to-site VPN is a type of VPN configuration that establishes a secure connection between two networks, such as a data center and a cloud environment. A site-to-site VPN allows all the devices in one network to communicate with all the devices in the other network, without requiring individual VPN clients or connections. A site-to-site VPN is suitable for a company that is migrating workloads from on premises to the cloud and would like to establish a connection between the entire data center and the cloud environment, as it can provide seamless and secure access to both networks.

Hyperconverged infrastructure (HCI) is a type of deployment that combines compute, network, and storage resources in a single hardware appliance that is managed by an intelligent software layer. HCI simplifies the configuration and management of cloud resources, reduces hardware costs and complexity, and improves scalability and performance. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.0 Configuration and Deployment, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario involving requirements for deploying an application in the cloud, select an appropriate solution design.

The most likely causes of the issue where the new asynchronous workflow fails to create 50 VMs at once in the public cloud are insufficient storage and expired API token. Insufficient storage means that there is not enough disk space available in the public cloud to accommodate all the VMs that are being created simultaneously. This could result in errors or failures during the provisioning process. Expired API token means that the authentication credential that is used by the workflow to communicate with the public cloud service has expired or become invalid. This could result in errors or failures during the API calls or requests. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 4.0 Troubleshooting, Objective 4.5 Given a scenario, troubleshoot automation/orchestration issues.

The best way to gracefully stop any new transactions from processing before applying updates to an application is to enable maintenance mode from the application dashboard. Maintenance mode is a feature that allows temporarily disabling the access or functionality of an application or service while performing maintenance tasks, such as updates, patches, or backups. It also displays a message or notification to the users or clients informing them about the maintenance and the expected downtime. This method will prevent any new transactions from being initiated or interrupted while the updates are being applied. Reference: [CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 3.0 Maintenance, Objective 3.1 Given a scenario, apply appropriate changes to meet performance, security and user requirements.

A volume-based licensing model is a licensing model that charges the customer based on the amount of data or resources that they consume or use. A volume-based licensing model is suitable for an laaS (Infrastructure as a Service) environment, as it allows the customer to pay only for what they need and scale up or down as their demand changes. A volume-based licensing model can provide financial benefits for the customer, such as lower upfront costs, greater flexibility, and more predictable billing.QUESTION NO: 277

A cloud administrator is evaluating a solution that will limit access to authorized individuals. The solution also needs to ensure the system that connects to the environment meets patching, antivirus, and configuration requirements. Which of the following technologies would BEST meet these requirements?

A.NAC

B.EDR

C.IDS

D.HIPS

Answer: A

NAC (Network Access Control) is a technology that will limit access to authorized individuals and ensure the system that connects to the environment meets patching, antivirus, and configuration requirements. NAC can enforce policies and rules that define who, what, when, where, and how a device or a user can access a network or a cloud environment. NAC can also inspect and evaluate the security posture and compliance status of a device or a user before granting or denying access. For example, NAC can check if the device has the latest patches, antivirus software, and configuration settings, and if not, it can quarantine, remediate, or reject the device. NAC can also monitor and audit the ongoing network activity and behavior of the devices and users, and take actions if any violations or anomalies are detected.

The most useful tool to prevent private corporate information from being emailed to external users is data loss prevention (DLP). DLP is a type of security solution that monitors and controls the flow of data in and out of a system or network. It can detect and prevent unauthorized access, transmission, or leakage of sensitive data, such as personal information, financial records, or intellectual property. DLP can also enforce encryption, masking, or deletion of sensitive data to protect its confidentiality. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2.0 Security, Objective 2.5 Given a scenario, apply data security techniques in the cloud.

The first thing that the systems administrator must do before planning a penetration test for company resources that are hosted in a public cloud is to consult the cloud services provider’s policies and guidelines. Penetration testing is a type of security assessment that involves simulating an attack on a system or network to identify vulnerabilities and weaknesses. However, not all cloud services providers allow penetration testing on their platforms, or they may have specific rules and requirements for conducting such tests. The systems administrator should check the cloud services provider’s policies and guidelines and obtain their permission and approval before performing any penetration testing. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2.0 Security, Objective 2.4 Given a scenario, implement security automation and orchestration in a cloud environment.

According to the CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide1, scaling is “the ability to increase or decrease the size or capacity of a cloud service”. There are two main types of scaling: horizontal and vertical.

Horizontal scaling is “the ability to increase or decrease the number of instances or nodes of a cloud service”. This means that horizontal scaling can add or remove servers or virtual machines to a cloud service, depending on the workload demand. Horizontal scaling can improve availability, reliability, and performance, but it can also increase complexity and cost.

Vertical scaling is “the ability to increase or decrease the resources allocated to an instance or node of a cloud service”. This means that vertical scaling can add or remove CPU, memory, disk, or network resources to a server or virtual machine, depending on the workload demand. Vertical scaling can improve performance and efficiency, but it can also have limitations and risks.

Cloud bursting is “a technique that allows a private cloud to use public cloud resources when it reaches its capacity limit”. This means that cloud bursting can extend the private cloud to the public cloud when there is a peak in demand that exceeds the private cloud resources. Cloud bursting can provide scalability, flexibility, and cost savings, but it can also introduce challenges such as security, compatibility, and latency.

Autoscaling is “the ability to automatically increase or decrease the number of resources allocated to a cloud service based on the current demand”. This means that autoscaling can adjust the size or capacity of a cloud service without human intervention, using predefined rules or policies. Autoscaling can optimize performance, availability, and cost, but it can also require careful monitoring and configuration.

Based on this information, I think the best answer to your question is C. Cloud bursting. Cloud bursting can help the company utilize its private cloud for the new application and also access public cloud resources when the private cloud resources can only meet 75% of the application’s requirements. This way, the company can accommodate 100% of the application’s requirements without having to purchase extra computing resources for their private cloud.

I hope this helps you understand the concept of cloud bursting better. If you want to learn more about CompTIA Cloud+, you can check out some of these resources:

• CompTIA Cloud+ : Cloud High Availability & Scaling: A video course that covers the topics of high availability and scaling in cloud environments, including autoscaling, horizontal scaling, vertical scaling and cloud bursting.
• Cloud+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications: The official website of CompTIA Cloud+, where you can find exam details, preparation materials, renewal information and more.

The most secure way to store the credentials for a new application that is running in containers and requires access to a database is to use the orchestrator secret manager. The orchestrator secret manager is a feature that allows storing and managing sensitive data, such as passwords, tokens, or keys, for containers in an encrypted and centralized way. It also provides access control, auditing, and rotation features for the secrets. This method will protect the credentials from being exposed or compromised by unauthorized parties or malicious actors. Reference: [CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2.0 Security, Objective 2.5 Given a scenario, apply data security techniques in the cloud.

The best way to restrict access to a set of sensitive files to a specific group of users is to change the file permissions and ownership of the files. File permissions and ownership are attributes that determine who can read, write, execute, or modify the files. By changing the file permissions and ownership, the systems administrator can grant or deny access to the files based on the user identity or group membership. Reference: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2.0 Security, Objective 2.3 Given a scenario, implement appropriate access control measures for a cloud environment.

laaS (Infrastructure as a Service) is a public cloud service model that provides access to fundamental compute, network, and storage resources on demand over the public Internet or through dedicated connections. Customers can provision and configure these resources according to their needs, and they have full administrative control at the OS level. This means that customers can install, update, and manage any software or applications they want on the cloud servers, as well as apply their own security and compliance policies. laaS is suitable for companies that require high flexibility and customization of their cloud infrastructure, as well as scalability and cost-efficiency.

API incompatibility is the most likely cause of the failure of an automation script to use a new feature from the cloud provider. API (Application Programming Interface) is a set of rules or specifications that defines how different software components or systems can communicate and interact with each other. API incompatibility is a situation where an API does not work or function properly with another software component or system due to differences or changes in versions, formats, parameters, etc. API incompatibility can cause errors or issues when using an automation script to deploy or configure cloud resources or services, especially if the script is not updated or modified according to the new API specifications.

Deploying two firewalls in a HA (High Availability) configuration is the best option to ensure all traffic passes through the firewall and meets the SLA (Service Level Agreement) of 99.999%. HA is a design principle that aims to minimize downtime and ensure continuous operation of a system or service. HA can be achieved by using redundancy, failover, load balancing, clustering, etc. Two firewalls in a HA configuration can provide redundancy and failover in case one firewall fails or becomes overloaded.

Asking the user if the client device or access location has changed is what the help desk technician should do first to troubleshoot poor-quality remote VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure) session. VDI is a technology that allows users to access virtual desktops hosted on remote servers over a network or internet connection. VDI can provide users with flexibility, mobility, and security, but it may also introduce quality issues depending on various factors, such as:

• The client device: This is the device that users use to access their virtual desktops, such as a laptop, tablet, smartphone, etc. The client device can affect VDI quality by determining how well it can support and display virtual desktop applications and services, as well as how fast it can process and send data over a network or internet connection.
• The access location: This is where users access their virtual desktops from, such as home, office, public place, etc. The access location can affect VDI quality by determining how stable and secure their network or internet connection is, as well as how much latency or interference they may experience.

Asking the user if these factors have changed can help to troubleshoot poor-quality remote VDI session by identifying any potential causes or sources of quality issues, as well as suggesting any possible solutions or alternatives.

Checking the GPU (Graphics Processing Unit) is the first thing that the VDI administrator should do to optimize the performance of the VDI infrastructure for rendering tasks. GPU is a specialized hardware device that accelerates graphics processing and rendering. GPU can improve the user experience and performance of VDI applications that require intensive graphics processing, such as drafting, gaming, video editing, etc.

Tagging is what the administrator should implement first to assist with reporting the cost for each business unit for applications in a public cloud environment. Tagging is a technique that allows customers to assign metadata or labels to their cloud resources, such as applications, instances, volumes, etc., based on their attributes or criteria. Tagging can help customers to organize, manage, monitor, and report their cloud resources and costs by business unit, project, owner, environment, etc.

IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) is a cloud service model that provides basic computing resources such as servers, storage, network, etc., to the customers. The customers have full control and flexibility over these resources and can install and configure any software they need on them. IaaS is suitable for applications that have a unique stack of dependencies that may not be supported by other cloud service models.

FIM stands for File Integrity Monitoring, and it is a security technique that monitors and detects changes in files and directories. FIM can help the systems administrator to be notified every time an application’s configuration files are updated by generating alerts or reports when the files are modified, added, deleted, or accessed. FIM can also help verify the integrity and authenticity of the files by comparing their hashes or signatures with a baseline or a trusted source. FIM can be implemented using software tools or agents that run on the host or the network. References: CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 9, Objective 9.1: Given a scenario, apply security controls and techniques.

The best option to reduce the latency issues for the marketing team that is primarily based in Europe when retrieving the marketing materials that are hosted on a public IaaS service is to integrate a CDN (content delivery network) solution to distribute web content globally. A CDN is a network of geographically distributed servers that cache and deliver web content to users based on their proximity and network conditions. A CDN can improve the performance and availability of web content by reducing the distance and hops between the users and the servers, as well as offloading the traffic from the origin server. Reference: [CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 3.0 Maintenance, Objective 3.4 Given a scenario, implement automation and orchestration to optimize cloud operations

The fastest way to restore the service after deploying a new application release to the green stack of a blue-green infrastructure model and making the green stack primary is to failback to the blue stack. Failing back means switching back to the previous version of the application that is running on the blue stack, which is still available and functional. This will minimize the downtime and impact on the users, while allowing the systems administrator to troubleshoot and fix the issues on the green stack. Reference: [CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 4.0 Troubleshooting, Objective 4.4 Given a scenario, troubleshoot deployment issues.

A service account is what will most likely be created to run the batch processes that migrate the storage system and batch jobs from the local storage system to a public cloud provider. A service account is a special type of account that is used to perform automated tasks or operations on a system or service, such as running scripts, applications, or processes. A service account can provide benefits such as:

• Security: A service account can have limited or specific permissions and roles that are required to perform the tasks or operations, which can prevent unauthorized or malicious access or actions.
• Efficiency: A service account can run the tasks or operations without any human intervention or interaction, which can save time and effort.
• Reliability: A service account can run the tasks or operations consistently and accurately, which can reduce errors or failures.

To calculate the maximum number of two-core machines with equal memory, we need to consider the resource pool capacity and the buffer requirement. The resource pool has 90 GB of memory and 120 cores, but the cloud administrator needs to maintain a 30% buffer for optimal performance. This means that only 70% of the resources can be used for VM allocation. Therefore, the available memory is 90 GB x 0.7 = 63 GB, and the available cores are 120 x 0.7 = 84 cores. To allocate two-core machines with equal memory, we need to divide the available memory by the available cores and multiply by two. This gives us the memory size per VM: (63 GB / 84 cores) x 2 = 1.5 GB. However, this is not a valid answer option, so we need to find the closest option that does not exceed the available resources. The best option is C, which allocates 45 VMs with 2 GB of memory each. This uses up 45 x 2 = 90 GB of memory and 45 x 2 = 90 cores, which are within the available limits.

Not enough upload bandwidth is what best explains the reason for slow connectivity to a web application that has been migrated to a cloud environment with a synchronous uplink speed of 100Mbps. Bandwidth is a measure of how much data can be transferred over a network or connection in a given time period. Upload bandwidth is a measure of how much data can be sent from one location to another over a network or connection in a given time period. Upload bandwidth can affect connectivity to a web application by determining how fast data can be uploaded from clients to servers or vice versa. Not enough upload bandwidth can cause slow connectivity to a web application by creating congestion or bottleneck in data transfer, which may result in delays or errors in web requests or responses.

A tabletop exercise is the best option for discussion of what individuals should do in an incident response or disaster recovery scenario. A tabletop exercise is a simulated scenario that involves key stakeholders and decision-makers who review and discuss their roles and responsibilities in response to an emergency situation or event. A tabletop exercise can help to test and evaluate plans, procedures, policies, training, and communication.

These are the components of the hypervisors that should be upgraded by the administrator who is performing upgrades to all the hypervisors in the environment. A hypervisor is a software or hardware that allows multiple VMs (Virtual Machines) to run on a single physical host or server. A hypervisor consists of various components, such as:

• The firmware: This is the software that controls the basic functions and operations of the hardware or device. The firmware can affect the performance, compatibility, and security of the hypervisor and the VMs. The firmware should be upgraded to ensure that it supports the latest features and functions of the hardware or device, as well as fix any bugs or vulnerabilities.
• The operating system: This is the software that manages the resources and activities of the hypervisor and the VMs. The operating system can affect the functionality, reliability, and efficiency of the hypervisor and the VMs. The operating system should be upgraded to ensure that it supports the latest applications and services of the hypervisor and the VMs, as well as improve stability and performance.

To ensure the web servers in the public subnet allow only secure communications and remediate any possible issue, the analyst should remove rules 1, 2, and 5 from the stateful configuration. These rules are allowing insecure or unnecessary traffic to or from the web servers, which may pose security risks or performance issues. The rules are:

• Rule 1: This rule allows inbound traffic on port 80 (HTTP) from any source to any destination. HTTP is an unencrypted and insecure protocol that can expose web traffic to interception, modification, or spoofing. The analyst should remove this rule and use HTTPS (port 443) instead, which encrypts and secures web traffic.
• Rule 2: This rule allows outbound traffic on port 25 (SMTP) from any source to any destination. SMTP is a protocol that is used to send email messages. The web servers in the public subnet do not need to send email messages, as this is not their function. The analyst should remove this rule and block outbound SMTP traffic, which may prevent spamming or phishing attacks from compromised web servers.
• Rule 5: This rule allows inbound traffic on port 22 (SSH) from any source to any destination. SSH is a protocol that allows remote access and management of systems or devices using a command-line interface. The web servers in the public subnet do not need to allow SSH access from any source, as this may expose them to unauthorized or malicious access. The analyst should remove this rule and restrict SSH access to specific sources, such as the administrator’s workstation or a bastion host.

SaaS (Software as a Service) is a cloud service model that provides fully managed applications to the end users. The users do not have to worry about installing, updating, or maintaining the software, as the cloud provider handles all these tasks. Examples of SaaS are Gmail, Office 365, Salesforce, etc.

IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) is the cloud deployment model that the technician should use to deploy two virtual machines in preparation for the configuration of a financial application next week. IaaS is a cloud service model that provides basic computing resources such as servers, storage, network, etc., to the customers. The customers have full control and flexibility over these resources and can install and configure any software they need on them. IaaS is suitable for deploying virtual machines, as it allows the customers to choose their preferred OS, applications, settings, etc., and customize them according to their needs.

Storage live migration is the best restoration method to restore a VM from backup without changing the current VM’s operating state. Storage live migration is a process of moving or transferring storage resources or data from one location to another without affecting or interrupting the operation or performance of the VMs that use them. Storage live migration can help to restore a VM from backup by copying the backup data to a new storage location and switching the VM’s storage configuration to point to the new location, without requiring any downtime or reboot.

Configuring a firewall rule to block the traffic on the affected instance is what the administrator should perform during the containment phase of a security incident in the cloud. A security incident is an event or situation that affects or may affect the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of cloud resources or data. A security incident response is a process of managing and resolving a security incident using various phases, such as identification, containment, eradication, recovery, etc. The containment phase is where the administrator tries to isolate and prevent the spread or escalation of the security incident. Configuring a firewall rule to block the traffic on the affected instance can help to contain a security incident by cutting off any communication or interaction between the instance and other systems or networks, which may stop any malicious or unauthorized activity or access.

Moving the virtual machine to flash storage and testing again is what the administrator should do next to resolve the issue of disk-related performance issue with a virtual database server that has been identified as being caused by a lack of IOPS on the existing spinning disk storage. IOPS (Input/Output Operations Per Second) is a measure of how fast a storage device can read and write data. IOPS can affect performance of a virtual database server by determining how quickly it can access and process data from storage. Spinning disk storage is a type of storage device that uses rotating magnetic disks to store data. Spinning disk storage has lower IOPS than flash storage, which is a type of storage device that uses solid-state memory chips to store data. Flash storage has higher IOPS than spinning disk storage, which means that it can read and write data faster and more efficiently than spinning disk storage. Moving the virtual machine to flash storage and testing again can help to resolve the issue by increasing the IOPS and improving the performance of the virtual database server.

Renewing the expired certificate is what would most likely resolve the issue of users receiving a message indicating the connection is not secure when landing on a website that is hosted on a cloud platform and accessed through https://www.comptiasite.com. A certificate is a digital document that contains information such as identity, public key, expiration date, etc., that can be used to prove one’s identity and establish secure communication over a network. A certificate can expire when it reaches its validity period and needs to be renewed or replaced. An expired certificate can cause users to receive a message indicating the connection is not secure by indicating that the website’s identity or security cannot be verified or trusted. Renewing the expired certificate can resolve the issue by extending its validity period and restoring its identity or security verification or trust.

New web nodes are not operational is the most likely cause of the issue of website being intermittently unavailable after adding servers to a round-robin, load-balanced pool. A round-robin, load-balanced pool is a method of distributing network traffic evenly and sequentially among multiple servers or nodes that provide the same service or function. A round-robin, load-balanced pool can help to improve performance, availability, and scalability of network applications or services by ensuring that no server or node is overloaded or underutilized. New web nodes are not operational if they are not configured properly or functioning correctly to provide web service or function. New web nodes are not operational can cause website being intermittently unavailable by disrupting the round-robin, load-balanced pool and creating inconsistency or unreliability in web service or function.

User quotas are what will help control the amount of space that is being used by a file server in the cloud that has a limited amount of disk space due to financial considerations. User quotas are the limits or restrictions that are imposed on the amount of space that each user can use or consume on a file server or storage device. User quotas can help to control the amount of space that is being used by:

• Preventing or reducing wastage or overuse of space by users who may store unnecessary or redundant files or data on the file server or storage device.
• Ensuring fair and equal distribution or allocation of space among users who may have different needs or demands for space on the file server or storage device.
• Monitoring and managing the usage or consumption of space by users who may need to be notified or alerted when they reach or exceed their quota on the file server or storage device.

These are the steps that should be done to troubleshoot the issue of slow connection times for users of an enterprise application that is configured to use SSO (Single Sign-On). SSO is a feature that allows users to access multiple applications or services with one login credential, without having to authenticate separately for each application or service. SSO can improve user experience and security, but it may also introduce performance issues if not configured properly. To troubleshoot the issue, the administrator should perform a packet capture during authentication to analyze the network traffic and identify any delays or errors in the SSO process. The administrator should also validate the load-balancing configuration to ensure that the SSO requests are distributed evenly and efficiently among the available servers or instances. The administrator should also analyze the network throughput of the load balancer to check if there is any congestion or bottleneck that may affect the SSO performance.

Vendor lock-in is a barrier to switching providers for a hosted mail solution that has increased its monthly subscription rate every year. Vendor lock-in is a situation where a customer becomes dependent on a vendor or provider for a product or service and faces difficulties or costs in switching to another vendor or provider. Vendor lock-in can occur due to various factors, such as proprietary technology, contractual obligations, data migration challenges, compatibility issues, etc. In this case, the customer may face vendor lock-in due to the large amount of data being hosted by the mail provider and the potential challenges or costs of transferring or migrating the data to another provider.

CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker) is what should be deployed to monitor and control the use of multiple SaaS-based business applications in a cloud environment. SaaS (Software as a Service) is a cloud service model that provides customers with access to software applications hosted on remote servers over a network or internet connection. SaaS can provide customers with convenience, flexibility, and scalability, but it may also introduce security risks such as data breaches, leaks, losses, etc., especially if customers have multiple SaaS subscriptions from different providers. CASB is a tool or service that acts as an intermediary between customers and SaaS providers. CASB can help to monitor and control the use of multiple SaaS subscriptions by providing features such as:

• Visibility: CASB can provide visibility into what SaaS applications are being used, by whom, when, where, how, etc., as well as identify any unauthorized or suspicious activities.
• Compliance: CASB can provide compliance with various laws, regulations, standards, policies, etc., that apply to SaaS applications and data, such as GDPR, HIPAA, PCI DSS, etc., as well as enforce them using rules or actions.
• Security: CASB can provide security for SaaS applications and data by detecting and preventing any threats or attacks, such as malware, phishing, ransomware, etc., as well as protecting them using encryption, authentication, authorization, etc.

IPAM (IP Address Management) is what the administrator will most likely use to select an address for the new VM that is about to be deployed to a cloud environment. IPAM is a tool or service that allows customers to plan, track, and manage the IP addresses and DNS names of their cloud resources or systems. IPAM can help to select an address for the new VM by providing information such as available IP addresses, IP address ranges, subnets, domains, etc., as well as ensuring that the address is unique and valid.

Enabling dynamic memory allocations on guests is the best option to optimize memory utilization for VMs that have been allocated with 32GB of memory but are not utilizing more than 30% of it. Dynamic memory allocation is a feature that allows a VM to adjust its memory usage according to its workload and demand, without requiring a reboot or manual intervention. Dynamic memory allocation can help to improve memory utilization and efficiency by allocating more memory to VMs that need it and releasing memory from VMs that do not need it.

Documenting the solution and placing it in a shared knowledge base is what the administrator should do next after troubleshooting performance issues with a VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure) environment, determining that the issue is GPU (Graphics Processing Unit) related, increasing the frame buffer on the virtual machines, and testing that confirms that the issue is solved and everything is now working correctly. Documenting the solution is a process of recording and describing what was done to fix or resolve an issue, such as actions, steps, methods, etc., as well as why and how it worked. Placing it in a shared knowledge base is a process of storing and organizing documented solutions in a central location or repository that can be accessed and used by others. Documenting the solution and placing it in a shared knowledge base can provide benefits such as:

• Learning: Documenting the solution and placing it in a shared knowledge base can help to learn from past experiences and improve skills and knowledge.
• Sharing: Documenting the solution and placing it in a shared knowledge base can help to share information and insights with others who may face similar issues or situations.
• Reusing: Documenting the solution and placing it in a shared knowledge base can help to reuse existing solutions for future issues or situations.