EMT Sample Questions Answers

Return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) indicates that the patient has regained a perfusing rhythm. If the patient is pushing away the BVM, this suggests improving mental status and spontaneous respirations.

Option D is correct because NREMT post-resuscitation care requires EMTs to reassess airway, breathing, and circulation, including confirming a pulse, and transition from assisted ventilations to supplemental oxygen if the patient is breathing adequately.

Options A and B are inappropriate because restraining a post-ROSC patient is rarely indicated and may worsen agitation.

Option C omits reassessment of circulation, which is critical after ROSC.

NREMT stresses frequent reassessment and supportive care following successful resuscitation.

Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a stress-related psychiatric condition that may develop after exposure to a traumatic event. NREMT education addresses PTSD particularly in the context of crisis intervention, behavioral emergencies, and responder mental health awareness.

Option C (Flashback phenomena) is correct. Flashbacks are a hallmark feature of PTSD and involve intrusive, vivid recollections of the traumatic event that may feel as though it is happening again. These episodes can be triggered by sights, sounds, or smells associated with the trauma.

Option E (Difficulty concentrating) is also correct. Patients with PTSD frequently experience cognitive symptoms such as impaired concentration, memory problems, and difficulty completing tasks. These symptoms result from persistent hyperarousal and stress responses.

Option A is incorrect because PTSD is associated with nightmares, not an inability to dream.

Option B is incorrect because violent behavior is not a defining or consistent feature of PTSD, although irritability may be present.

Option D is incorrect because increased compassion is not a recognized symptom.

NREMT emphasizes recognizing PTSD symptoms to ensure appropriate patient interaction, safety, and referral for further care.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Use the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) to calculate:

Eye Opening (E): Opens to speech = 3

Verbal Response (V): Confused but appropriate words = 4

Motor Response (M): Obeys commands = 6Total = 3 + 4 + 6 = 13

However, the question states he opens eyes to voice, knows name (orientation to person), and follows commands — this would mean:

Eye = 3

Verbal = 5 (Oriented to person, but disoriented to place/time)

Motor = 6

Correct Total: 14

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The patient is in hypoperfusion (shock) from blood loss. In shock states, tissues are deprived of oxygen, leading to anaerobic metabolism, which produces lactic acid as a byproduct. This causes metabolic acidosis, which is a critical sign of systemic oxygen debt.

Carbon dioxide rises with respiratory failure, but lactic acid is a more specific indicator of cellular hypoxia.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Heat exhaustion results from prolonged exposure to elevated temperatures, leading to fluid and electrolyte loss (especially sodium and water), causing hypovolemia. This can result in:

Tachycardia

Weakness

Dizziness

Profuse sweating

Unlike heat stroke, mental status is typically preserved in heat exhaustion. Hypertension and bradycardia are not characteristic.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

This is a classic presentation of hypovolemic shock due to traumatic blood loss (open femur fracture, pelvic instability). Indicators include:

Low BP (86/42) = hypotension

High pulse (P 136) = compensation

Mental status decline (responsive only to voice) = indicates decompensated shock

Obstructive and distributive shock are not applicable. Compensated shock would show normal BP and alert mental status.

This patient’s presentation—older age, severe back pain radiating to the chest, hypotension, and a pulsating abdominal mass—is highly suggestive of an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). NREMT teaching stresses early recognition of life-threatening medical conditions and avoiding interventions that could worsen the patient’s condition.

Option A (Position of comfort) is correct because patients with suspected AAA should be kept calm and positioned in a way that minimizes pain and stress, which can reduce sympathetic stimulation and the risk of aneurysm rupture.

Option D (Supplemental oxygen) is correct because the patient’s SpO₂ is 89%, indicating hypoxia. NREMT guidelines recommend administering oxygen to maintain adequate oxygenation in critically ill or potentially unstable patients.

Option B is incorrect because AED pads are not indicated unless the patient is in cardiac arrest or has a high risk of imminent arrest. There is no evidence of dysrhythmia or arrest at this time.

Option C is incorrect because aspirin is indicated for suspected acute coronary syndromes, not AAA. Aspirin could worsen internal bleeding if the aneurysm ruptures.

Option E is incorrect because nitroglycerin can cause vasodilation and hypotension, potentially precipitating aneurysm rupture.

In summary, NREMT emphasizes supportive care, oxygenation, and rapid transport for suspected AAA while avoiding medications that increase bleeding risk or lower blood pressure.

In an unresponsive diabetic patient, EMTs must rapidly determine whether the cause is hypoglycemia (low blood glucose) or hyperglycemia (high blood glucose) because immediate management priorities differ. According to NREMT education, skin signs are the most reliable and quickly observable indicator when a blood glucose reading is not immediately available.

Hypoglycemia typically presents with cool, pale, and diaphoretic skin due to a sympathetic nervous system response. In contrast, hyperglycemia often presents with warm, dry skin, reflecting dehydration and lack of insulin-mediated glucose uptake.

Option D is correct because skin color and condition provide the most useful differentiation in the field.

Option A may help identify diabetic ketoacidosis (Kussmaul respirations) but is not the most consistent finding.

Option B is unreliable and nonspecific.

Option C may vary but does not clearly distinguish between the two conditions.

NREMT emphasizes treating unresponsive diabetics as hypoglycemic until proven otherwise, while using skin findings to guide clinical suspicion.

NREMT guidelines emphasize that EMTs must be able to rapidly release any restraints applied to a patient in the event of airway compromise, vomiting, cardiac arrest, or sudden deterioration.

Option B is correct because exchanging handcuffs for EMS-controlled restraints ensures patient safety while maintaining custody. The EMT having the key allows immediate access if emergency care is required.

Option A is unsafe because the EMT does not have control over the restraints, potentially delaying lifesaving interventions.

Option C is incorrect because patient safety standards must always be met.

Option D is incorrect because transport is necessary for evaluation and care.

NREMT stresses that custody never supersedes patient safety, and EMS must maintain control of patient restraints during transport.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Laundry detergent ingestion — especially in the case of liquid detergent pods — is associated with caustic airway and gastrointestinal injuries. The presence of crackles and drowsiness are signs of aspiration and possible respiratory failure. Vomiting increases the risk of aspiration pneumonitis, and esophageal perforation is a life-threatening complication from corrosive ingestion.

While seizure and hypoglycemia are possible complications of toxic ingestion, they are not as immediately linked to the detergent profile as airway injury and aspiration risk.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Under HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act), only designated personnel are authorized to handle inquiries regarding a patient’s Protected Health Information (PHI). The Privacy Officer is responsible for enforcing compliance with privacy regulations and addressing PHI access requests.

Shift supervisors or hospitals do not have the legal authority to release PHI unless specifically designated.

Febrile seizures most commonly occur in children between 6 months and 5 years of age. NREMT pediatric education emphasizes that seizures in infants younger than 6 months are not considered simple febrile seizures and should raise immediate concern for serious central nervous system infection.

Option C is correct because this patient is only 2 months old, placing them outside the typical age range for febrile seizures. Additionally, the presence of a petechial rash, lethargy, hypotension, and fever strongly suggests meningitis or sepsis, both of which are life-threatening.

Option A is incorrect because fever alone does not confirm febrile seizure.

Option B is incorrect because lack of medical history does not exclude serious infection.

Option D is partially true but not the most accurate or distinguishing reason.

NREMT stresses early recognition of meningitis, rapid transport, and aggressive supportive care due to high mortality risk in infants.

Organophosphates are commonly found in pesticides and insecticides, which are often stored in tool sheds. NREMT training emphasizes recognition of cholinergic toxidrome, frequently summarized by the mnemonic SLUDGE (Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation, Gastrointestinal distress, Emesis).

Option C is correct because the patient’s symptoms—drooling, tearing, abdominal pain, and runny nose—are hallmark signs of organophosphate poisoning.

Option A (naphthalene) primarily causes hemolysis and neurologic symptoms.

Option B (hydrogen sulfide) causes respiratory distress and altered mental status, not secretions.

Option D causes chemical pneumonitis, not cholinergic symptoms.

NREMT stresses early identification of toxic exposures, scene safety, decontamination awareness, and rapid transport for definitive care.

NREMT legal education differentiates between slander and libel, both forms of defamation.

Option D (Libel) is correct because libel involves false written statements that harm a person’s reputation. In this scenario, the partner’s written claim falsely attributes improper treatment to you.

Option A (Slander) refers to spoken false statements.

Option B (Malice) describes intent, not a legal category of defamation.

Option C (Battery) is unlawful physical contact with a patient.

Understanding legal terminology helps EMTs protect themselves professionally and legally.

This scenario suggests a potential multiple-casualty incident with a possible environmental hazard, such as carbon monoxide or another toxic gas. NREMT places strong emphasis on scene size-up as the first and most critical step in EMS operations.

Option B is correct because determining the size and scope of the incident allows the EMT to assess scene safety, identify hazards, estimate the number of patients, and determine the need for additional resources. Entering the scene without this assessment could result in responder injury or death.

Option A is incorrect because establishing command typically follows an initial size-up. Command cannot be effectively established without understanding the nature of the incident.

Option C is incorrect because announcing the presence of poisonous gas without confirmation may cause panic and is not an appropriate first action.

Option D is incorrect because attempting rescue before confirming scene safety violates NREMT’s core principle that rescuer safety comes first.

NREMT standards clearly state that EMTs must never enter a potentially hazardous scene until it has been properly assessed and deemed safe or appropriate resources are requested.

NREMT distinguishes mild versus severe airway obstruction primarily by the patient’s ability to move air. In a mild obstruction, the patient can cough forcefully, speak, and exchange air. A severe obstruction occurs when airflow is critically impaired.

Option A (Ineffective cough) is the key indicator that a mild obstruction has progressed to a severe one. An ineffective or silent cough means the patient can no longer generate enough airflow to clear the obstruction, placing them at imminent risk of hypoxia and cardiac arrest.

Option B is a late sign of hypoxia but does not define severity of obstruction.

Option C is not specific to airway obstruction severity.

Option D indicates a mild obstruction, not severe.

NREMT teaches that once a cough becomes ineffective, immediate airway intervention is required.

This patient’s presentation is highly suspicious for acute coronary syndrome (ACS). NREMT education emphasizes that epigastric pain, especially in elderly patients, may represent myocardial ischemia. The lack of relief after three doses of nitroglycerin further increases concern for an evolving myocardial infarction.

Option A (Give aspirin) is correct because aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation and is a cornerstone of early ACS management. NREMT guidelines recommend administering aspirin as soon as possible unless contraindications exist.

Option B (Apply oxygen) is correct because the patient’s oxygen saturation is 92%, which is below normal. NREMT recommends supplemental oxygen for patients with suspected cardiac ischemia who are hypoxic or in respiratory distress.

Option C may provide comfort but does not address the underlying ischemia.

Option D is incorrect because the patient has already taken the maximum recommended prehospital doses of nitroglycerin.

Option E is outside the EMT scope of practice in many systems and is not a priority EMT intervention.

NREMT emphasizes early aspirin administration, oxygenation, continuous monitoring, and rapid transport for suspected ACS.

This patient presents with severe head trauma, unresponsiveness, hypotension, tachycardia, and apnea (R = 0). NREMT education stresses that apnea following head injury is a critical red flag for increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and potential brain herniation.

Option B is correct because brain herniation occurs when swelling or bleeding within the skull forces brain tissue downward, compressing the brainstem. Compression of the brainstem can result in loss of respiratory drive, explaining the absence of respirations. Elderly patients are at increased risk due to cerebral atrophy and fragile bridging veins.

Option A is possible but does not directly explain apnea.

Option C is associated with sudden cardiac arrest after chest impact, not head trauma.

Option D would present with respiratory compromise but not directly from a forehead injury.

NREMT emphasizes rapid airway management, ventilation, spinal precautions, and immediate transport for suspected brain herniation.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Missing dialysis leads to fluid overload, causing:

Pulmonary edema, evident by crackles on auscultation

Dyspnea and chest discomfort

Bradycardia is less likely; patients more often present with tachycardia due to volume stress. Fever would suggest infection (not stated here), and hypotension can occur later, but hypertension is more common in early fluid overload.

Pursed-lip breathing is a classic compensatory mechanism seen in patients with emphysema, a form of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). According to NREMT education, emphysema is characterized by destruction of the alveolar walls, which leads to loss of lung elasticity. This loss prevents the small airways from remaining open during exhalation.

Option A is correct because pursed-lip breathing creates positive pressure in the airways during exhalation. This pressure helps keep collapsed airways open longer, allowing trapped air to escape and improving ventilation. It also reduces the work of breathing and helps alleviate dyspnea.

Option B is incorrect because decreased hemoglobin affects oxygen-carrying capacity, not airway mechanics or breathing patterns.

Option C is more commonly associated with chronic bronchitis, not emphysema.

Option D is incorrect because diaphragmatic dysfunction is not the primary cause of pursed-lip breathing.

NREMT emphasizes recognizing compensatory breathing patterns in chronic lung disease to guide supportive care, including oxygen administration and positioning.

Even in high-acuity situations, NREMT standards require EMTs to perform a scene size-up before patient contact. Scene size-up includes ensuring scene safety, determining the mechanism of injury, identifying hazards, and assessing the need for additional resources. Entering a scene without confirming safety places the EMT at risk and can result in additional victims.

Although the patient is unresponsive and apneic, EMTs must first confirm the scene is safe to enter. Only after scene safety is established should patient care begin.

Option B is incorrect because CPR cannot be initiated until the EMT has safely accessed the patient.

Option C is incorrect because airway maneuvers are performed after scene safety and patient access are confirmed.

Option D is incorrect because spinal stabilization occurs after initial access and assessment.

NREMT emphasizes: rescuer safety always comes first, even in life-threatening emergencies.

START (Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment) is a triage method taught by the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians for use in mass-casualty incidents. START allows rescuers to quickly prioritize patients based on the severity of their conditions using objective criteria that can be assessed in under 60 seconds.

The correct components of the START system are Respirations, Perfusion, and Mental Status (RPM), making Option D correct. EMTs first assess whether the patient is breathing and evaluate respiratory rate. Next, perfusion is assessed by checking radial pulse or capillary refill. Finally, mental status is evaluated by determining whether the patient can follow simple commands.

Option A describes elements of a general patient assessment, not START triage.

Option B refers to the primary assessment sequence, not mass-casualty triage.

Option C lists triage categories rather than assessment components.

NREMT emphasizes START triage as a rapid, standardized approach to manage large numbers of patients efficiently while maximizing survivability.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

An epidural hematoma classically presents with a “lucid interval” — a brief period of regained consciousness following head trauma, followed by rapid deterioration. This is due to arterial bleeding, often from the middle meningeal artery, leading to increasing intracranial pressure.

Signs include:

High blood pressure

Decreasing respiratory rate

Altered LOC or unresponsiveness

Subdural hemorrhages are slower venous bleeds, common in elderly patients. Subarachnoid hemorrhage often presents with "worst headache of life." Intracerebral bleeds are less commonly linked to lucid intervals.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

In pediatric START or JumpSTART triage, a "delayed" status is appropriate if the child is breathing adequately, has palpable pulses, and follows commands. The respiratory rate of 16 is normal for a 9-year-old, and being able to walk also supports the “delayed” tag.

"Mottled skin" and "breathing only after airway opening" would more likely lead to "immediate" or even "expectant" categories depending on associated symptoms.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

In patients with acute abdominal pain, you must first inspect (visualize) for distension, discoloration, or masses before touching. Palpation always begins away from the most painful area. The patient should be in a supine position with knees flexed to relax the abdominal muscles and ease the exam.

Palpating a pulsating mass could rupture an abdominal aortic aneurysm and is contraindicated.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The patient’s complaint of difficulty breathing is an airway/breathing issue and takes precedence over a controlled extremity bleed. The first action is to administer oxygen and evaluate respiratory effort.

Though reassessing the wound is important, oxygenation is the priority when airway compromise or respiratory distress is present. Tourniquets are for uncontrolled bleeding, which is not the case here.

The EMS system is activated when an emergency is recognized by a bystander, patient, or first responder. NREMT describes EMS activation as a sequence that begins with recognizing an emergency and then accessing the system.

Option D (Recognition) is correct because without recognition, no call for help occurs.

Option C (Notification) follows recognition.

Option B (Dispatch) occurs after notification.

Option A (Response) is the physical movement of EMS resources after dispatch.

NREMT emphasizes public education on recognizing emergencies as a key component of effective EMS systems.

NREMT pediatric trauma education highlights that children have unique anatomical differences that affect injury patterns.

Option B is correct because children have a proportionally larger head relative to body size, making them more prone to head and cervical spine injuries during trauma.

Option A is incorrect because children actually have greater cervical mobility, increasing injury risk.

Option C is incorrect because children often compensate longer, delaying obvious signs of injury.

Option D is incorrect because fontanelles allow some pressure accommodation.

Understanding these differences is critical for proper pediatric assessment and spinal precautions.

The foundation of effective multiple-casualty incident (MCI) management is the Incident Command System (ICS). NREMT teaches that ICS provides clear leadership, communication, accountability, and coordination of resources.

Option D is correct because ICS allows for scalable management, efficient delegation, and integration of multiple agencies.

Option B is important but is a component of ICS, not the core principle.

Option C is a tactical step that occurs within the command structure.

Option A misunderstands ICS, as command is established based on arrival, not rank alone.

NREMT stresses that without ICS, MCIs become chaotic and unsafe, regardless of clinical skill.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

For pediatric BLS with two rescuers, current AHA Guidelines (2020) recommend:

Two-thumb encircling hands technique: Most effective for infants; provides consistent depth and control.

Compression ratio of 15:2: Enhances ventilation without compromising perfusion.

Compression depth: 1/3 of chest or approximately one-half the chest's depth.

CPR begins if pulse <60 bpm with signs of poor perfusion, not at 72 bpm. Rate of 180/min is excessive; ideal rate is 100–120/min.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The START (Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment) system classifies patients based on ability to walk, respirations, perfusion, and mental status. A patient with an open fracture who can breathe adequately, has a pulse, and follows commands is categorized as “Delayed”.

Immediate (Red) is reserved for those who cannot walk and have life-threatening conditions, such as compromised airway or severe bleeding.

NREMT standards emphasize scene safety, infection control, and proper sharps handling to reduce the risk of occupational exposure. A contaminated needle left in a mattress presents a serious needlestick hazard to EMS providers, hospital staff, and patients.

Option B is correct because the appropriate action is to carefully remove the needle and immediately dispose of it in an approved sharps container. This follows OSHA and NREMT infection-control principles, which state that sharps must be disposed of promptly in puncture-resistant containers without unnecessary handling.

Option A is incorrect because recapping needles is strictly prohibited under standard precautions. Recapping significantly increases the risk of accidental needlestick injuries and violates established safety guidelines.

Option C is incorrect because confronting a paramedic in front of a patient is unprofessional and undermines team dynamics. Any concerns regarding unsafe practices should be addressed privately and through appropriate supervisory channels.

Option D is incorrect because ignoring an exposed sharp creates an ongoing safety hazard and fails the EMT’s responsibility to maintain a safe environment.

In summary, NREMT expects EMTs to act proactively to reduce hazards, follow standard precautions, and safely dispose of sharps without recapping or delay. Removing the needle carefully and placing it in a sharps container is the safest and most appropriate response.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

According to Pediatric Basic Life Support (PBLS) guidelines by the American Heart Association (AHA), when a child becomes unresponsive due to foreign body airway obstruction (FBAO), the immediate next step is to begin chest compressions. This is done before checking the airway or giving breaths because the airway is presumed obstructed. The compressions may dislodge the object.

After 30 compressions, open the airway and check for visible objects. If none are seen, attempt rescue breaths. This protocol reflects the high risk of complete airway blockage in children with sudden collapse following a choking episode.

To rapidly determine a pediatric patient’s condition, NREMT emphasizes the Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT), which allows EMTs to form a quick clinical impression without hands-on assessment. The PAT consists of appearance, work of breathing, and circulation to skin.

Option F (Response to environment) evaluates appearance, including interaction, awareness, and mental status—critical in a confused child.

Option E (Accessory muscle use) assesses work of breathing, identifying respiratory compromise through visible effort such as retractions or nasal flaring.

Option A (Pallor) reflects circulation to skin, helping identify poor perfusion or shock.

Options B, C, and D are part of more detailed assessments but are not part of the rapid initial determination emphasized by NREMT.

Using the PAT allows EMTs to quickly identify life-threatening problems and prioritize care.