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2016-FRR Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

The potential failure of a manufacturer to honor a warranty might be called ____, whereas the potential failure of a borrower to fulfill its payment requirements, which include both the repayment of the amount borrowed, the principal and the contractual interest payments, would be called ___.

Options:

A.

Credit risk; market risk

B.

Market risk; credit risk

C.

Credit risk; performance risk

D.

Performance risk; credit risk

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Questions 5

Which one of the following four metrics represents the difference between the expected loss and unexpected loss on a credit portfolio?

Options:

A.

Credit VaR

B.

Probability of default

C.

Loss given default

D.

Modified duration

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Questions 6

Which one of the following four formulas correctly identifies the expected loss for all credit instruments?

Options:

A.

Expected Loss = Probability of Default x Loss Given Default x Exposure at Default

B.

Expected Loss = Probability of Default x Loss Given Default + Exposure at Default

C.

Expected Loss = Probability of Default x Loss Given Default - Exposure at Default

D.

Expected Loss = Probability of Default x Loss Given Default / Exposure at Default

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Questions 7

A trader for EtaBank wants to take a leveraged position in Collateralized Debt Obligations. If these CDOs can be used in a repo transaction at a 20% haircut, what is the maximum leverage factor for a transaction with the CDOs?

Options:

A.

0.8

B.

1.5

C.

3

D.

5

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Questions 8

If a bank is long £500 million pounds, short £300 million in delta-equivalent pound options, and long £100 million in pound-denominated stocks, what is the amount of pound exposure that would be shown in the aggregated risk reports?

Options:

A.

£300 million pounds

B.

£500 million pounds

C.

£800 million pounds

D.

£900 million pounds

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Questions 9

A bank customer expecting to pay its Brazilian supplier BRL 100 million asks Alpha Bank to buy Australian dollars and sell Brazilian reals. Alpha bank does not hold reals so it asks for a quote to buy Brazilian reals in the market. The market rate is 100. The bank quotes a selling rate of 101 to its customer and sells the real at this quoted price. Then the bank immediately buys the real at the market rate and completes foreign exchange matched transaction. What is the impact of this transaction on the bank's risk profile?

Options:

A.

This transaction eliminates credit risk.

B.

This transaction eliminates counterparty risk.

C.

This transaction eliminates market risk.

D.

This transaction eliminates operational risk.

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Questions 10

When considering the advantages of operational risk function owned by the Chief Compliance Officer in a financial institution, an operational risk manager consultant suggests that this governance approach will have all of the following advantages except:

Options:

A.

This governance structure maintains an independent operational risk function.

B.

The operational risk function is closely linked in a partnership with the compliance function to leverage data and assessment activities.

C.

The operational risk function quickly inherits an existing reporting structure, established meeting schedules and functional reporting cycles from the compliance function.

D.

In accordance with Basel II Accord, the operational risk function should report directly into the audit function and strengthen that function.

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Questions 11

BetaFin has decided to use the hybrid RCSA approach because it believes that it fits its operational framework. Which of the following could be reasons to use the hybrid RCSA method?

I. BetaFin has previously created series of RCSA workshops, and the results of these workshops can be used to design the questionnaires.

II. BetaFin believes that using the questionnaire approach should be more useful.

III. BetaFin had used the questionnaire approach successfully for certain businesses and the workshop approach for others.

IV. BetaFin had already implemented a sophisticated RCSA IT-system.

Options:

A.

I and II

B.

I and III

C.

III and IV

D.

II, III, and IV

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Questions 12

Suppose Delta Bank enters into a number of long-term commercial and retail loans at fixed rate prevailing at the time the loans are originated. If the interest rates rise:

Options:

A.

The bank will have to pay higher interest rates to its depositors and would have to pay higher rates on its debt to the extent the debt interest rate was linked to floating indices, or to the extent the debt used to fund the loans was of a shorter maturity than the loans.

B.

The bank will have to pay higher interest rates to its depositors and would have to pay lower rates on its debt to the extent the debt interest rate was linked to floating indices, or to the extent the debt used to fund the loans was of a shorter maturity than the loans.

C.

The bank will have to pay lower interest rates to its depositors and would have to pay higher rates on its debt to the extent the debt interest rate was linked to floating indices, or to the extent the debt used to fund the loans was of a shorter maturity than the loans.

D.

The bank will have to pay lower interest rates to its depositors and would have to pay lower rates on its debt to the extent the debt interest rate was linked to floating indices, or to the extent the debt used to fund the loans was of a shorter maturity than the loans.

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Questions 13

The Basel II Accord's operational risk definition excludes all of the following items EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Legal risk

B.

Strategic risk

C.

Reputational risk

D.

Geopolitical risk

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Questions 14

Which of the activities represent examples of market manipulation?

Options:

A.

Market gap

B.

Crowded trades

C.

Short squeeze

D.

Stop-loss order

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Questions 15

To estimate the price of gold forwards, an investment analyst focuses on the cost of holding physical gold (bullion) and the cost of shorting the same. Given that physical gold spot price is $1,000, the annual risk-free rate is 5%, and the gold lease rate equals 2% annually, the analyst's best estimate of the gold forward price to equal

Options:

A.

$950

B.

$1030

C.

$1070

D.

$1100

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Questions 16

To hedge equity exposure without buying or selling shares of stock or otherwise rebalancing the portfolio, a risk manager could initiate

Options:

A.

A short total return swap position.

B.

A long total return swap position.

C.

A short debt-for-equity swap.

D.

A long debt-for-equity swap.

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Questions 17

Unico Bank, concerned with managing the risk of its trading strategies, wants to implement the trading strategy that exposes the bank to the lowest market risk. Which one of the following four strategies should Unico take to limit its risk exposure?

Options:

A.

A matched book strategy that allows the trading desk to match all customer positions immediately with an equal and opposite position by trading internally or with another bank.

B.

A covering strategy that manages positions in the product by executing covering deals or hedging deal at the discretion of the trading des.

C.

A passive hedging strategy that allows the traders to price transactions with customers and other banks, at the relevant bid price on the market.

D.

A market-maker strategy that allows the traders to quote a buy and sell price to customers and other banks and to trade at the relevant price on the sell side of the market.

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Questions 18

What is a difference between currency swaps and interest rate swaps?

Options:

A.

Currency swaps do not require the exchange of notional principal on maturity.

B.

Currency swaps allow banks and customers to obtain the risk/reward profile of long-term interest rates without having to use long-term funding.

C.

Currency swaps are OTC derivative contracts.

D.

Currency swaps generate foreign exchange rate risk in addition to interest rate risk.

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Questions 19

A corporate bond was trading with 2%probability of default and 60% loss given default. Due to the credit crisis the probability of default increased to 10% and the loss given default increased to 100%. Assuming that the risk premium remained the same how did the credit spread change?

Options:

A.

Increased by 1120 basis points

B.

Increased by 880 basis points

C.

Increased by 1000 basis points

D.

Decreased by 880 basis points

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Questions 20

John owns a bond portfolio worth $2 million with duration of 10. What positions must he take to hedge this portfolio against a small parallel shifts in the term structure.

Options:

A.

Long position worth $2 million with duration of 10.

B.

Long position worth $20 million with duration of 1.

C.

Short position worth $2 million with duration of 10.

D.

Short position worth $20 million with duration of 1.

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Questions 21

Which one of the following four statements best describes challenges of delta-normal method of mapping options positions?

Delta-normal method understates

Options:

A.

Risks of long and short positions for both calls and puts.

B.

Risks of long option positions for puts and overstates risks of short option positions for calls.

C.

Risks of long option positions for calls and overstates risks of short option positions for puts.

D.

Risks of short option positions and overstates risks of long option positions for both calls and puts.

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Questions 22

Which one of the following statements describes Macauley's duration?

Options:

A.

The change in value of a bond when yields increase by 1 basis point.

B.

The weighted average life of the bond payments.

C.

The present value of the future cash flows of a bond calculated at a yield equal to 1%.

D.

The percentage change in a bond price when the yields change by 1%.

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Questions 23

Which of the following statements about the option gamma is correct? Gamma is the

I. Second derivative of the option value with respect to the volatility.

II. Percentage change in option value per percentage change in the price of the underlying instrument.

III. Second derivative of the value function with respect to the price of the underlying instrument.

IV. Rate of change of the option delta with respect to changes in the underlying price.

Options:

A.

I only

B.

II and III

C.

III and IV

D.

II, III, and IV

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Questions 24

James Johnson manages a bond portfolio with all investment grade bonds. Adding which of the following bonds would minimize the credit risk of his portfolio?

Options:

A.

A

B.

B

C.

C

D.

D

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Questions 25

The exercise for an American type option prior to expiration day is virtually certain in the following case:

Options:

A.

In the event of a high dividend for an in-the-money call option

B.

In the event of a high dividend for an in-the-money put option

C.

In the event of a low dividend for an in-the-money call option

D.

In the event of a low dividend for an in-the-money put option

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Questions 26

A large multinational bank is concerned that their duration measures may not be accurate since the yield curve shifts are not parallel. Which of the following statements would be typically observed regarding variability of interest rates?

Options:

A.

Short-term rates are more variable than long-term rates.

B.

Short-term rates are less variable than long-term rates.

C.

Short-term rates are equally variable as long-term rates.

D.

Short-term rates and long-term rates always move in opposite directions.

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Questions 27

In the United States, stock investors must comply with the Regulation T of the Federal Reserve Bank and may borrow up to ___ of the value of the securities from their brokers.

Options:

A.

30%

B.

40%

C.

50%

D.

60%

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Questions 28

An options trader for a large institutional investor takes a long equity option position. Which of the following risks need to be considered when taking this position?

I. All the risks of underlying equities

II. Perceived volatility changes

III. Future dividends yields

IV. Risk-free interest rates

Options:

A.

I, II

B.

II, III

C.

III, IV

D.

I, II, III, IV

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Questions 29

Which one of the following four statements correctly defines credit risk?

Options:

A.

Credit risk is the risk that complements market and liquidity risks.

B.

Credit risk is a form of performance risk in contractual relationship.

C.

Credit risk is the risk arising from execution of a company's strategy.

D.

Credit risk is the risk that summarizes the exposures a company or firm assumes when it attempts to operate within a given field or industry.

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Questions 30

A credit risk analyst is evaluating factors that quantify credit risk exposures. The risk that the borrower would fail to make full and timely repayments of its financial obligations over a given time horizon typically refers to:

Options:

A.

Duration of default.

B.

Exposure at default.

C.

Loss given default.

D.

Probability of default.

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Questions 31

Which one of the following four statements regarding bank's exposure to credit and default risk is INCORRECT?

Options:

A.

The more the bank diversifies its credit portfolio, the better spread its credit risks become.

B.

In debt management, the value of any loan exposure will change typically in a fashion similar the same way that an equity investment can.

C.

In debt management, the goal is to minimize the effect of any defaults.

D.

Default risk cannot be hedged away fully, and it will always exist for the holder of the credit or for the person insuring against the credit or default event.

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Questions 32

Foreign exchange rates are determined by various factors. Considering the drivers of exchange rates, which one of the following changes would most likely strengthen the value of the USD against other foreign currencies?

Options:

A.

The expected US inflation rate increases

B.

The global demand for US products decreases

C.

The economic performance in the US weakens

D.

The US current account surplus increases

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Questions 33

Which of the following risk types are historically associated with credit derivatives?

I. Documentation risk

II. Definition of credit events

III. Occurrence of credit events

IV. Enterprise risk

Options:

A.

I, IV

B.

I, II

C.

I, II, III

D.

II, III, IV

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Questions 34

Alpha Bank determined that Delta Industrial Machinery Corporation has 2% change of default on a one-year no-payment of USD $1 million, including interest and principal repayment. The bank charges 3% interest rate spread to firms in the machinery industry, and the risk-free interest rate is 6%. Alpha Bank receives both interest and principal payments once at the end the year. Delta can only default at the end of the year. If Delta defaults, the bank expects to lose 50% of its promised payment.

What may happen to the Delta's initial credit parameter and the value of its loan if the machinery industry experiences adverse structural changes?

Options:

A.

Probability of default and loss at default may decrease simultaneously, while duration rises causing the loan value to decrease.

B.

Probability of default and loss at default may decrease simultaneously, while duration falls causing the loan value to decrease.

C.

Probability of default and loss at default may increase simultaneously, while duration rises causing the loan value to decrease.

D.

Probability of default and loss at default may increase simultaneously, while duration falls causing the loan value to decrease.

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Questions 35

Most loans and deposits in the interbank market have a maturity of:

Options:

A.

More than 10 years

B.

More than 5 years but less than 10 years

C.

More than 3 years but less than 5 years

D.

Less than one year

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Questions 36

The value of which one of the following four option types is typically dependent on both the final price of its underlying asset and its own price history?

Options:

A.

Stout options

B.

Power options

C.

Chooser options

D.

Basket options

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Questions 37

According to a Moody's study, the most important drivers of the loss given default historically have been all of the following EXCEPT:

I. Debt type and seniority

II. Macroeconomic environment

III. Obligor asset type

IV. Recourse

Options:

A.

I

B.

II

C.

I, II

D.

III, IV

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Questions 38

Which one of the following four options correctly identifies the core difference between bonds and loans?

Options:

A.

These instruments receive a different legal treatment.

B.

These instruments have different pricing drivers.

C.

These instruments cannot be used to estimate credit capital under provisions of the Basel II Accord.

D.

These instruments are subject to different credit counterparty regulations.

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Questions 39

Which one of the following four options is NOT a typical component of a currency swap?

Options:

A.

An initial currency exchange of the notional amount

B.

Denomination of the original notional amount into a foreign currency

C.

Periodic exchange of interest payments in different currencies

D.

A final currency exchange

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Questions 40

The pricing of credit default swaps is a function of all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Probability of default

B.

Duration

C.

Loss given default

D.

Market spreads

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Questions 41

The risk management department of VegaBank wants to set guidelines on commodity carry trades. Which of the following strategies should she pursue to achieve a profitable commodity carry?

I. Buy short-term commodity futures and sell longer-dated position when the curve is in contango.

II. Buy short-term commodity futures and sell longer-dated position when the curve is in backwardation.

III. Buy long-term commodity futures and sell shorter-dated positions when the curve is in contango.

IV. Buy long-term commodity futures and sell shorter-dated positions when the curve is in backwardation.

Options:

A.

I, II

B.

I, III

C.

II, IV

D.

I, IV

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Questions 42

The operational risk policy should include:

I. The firm's definition of risk

II. The governance of operational risk including who owns it, what it owns, and how issues should be escalated

III. The main activities and elements that are managed by the operational risk function

Options:

A.

I, II

B.

I, III

C.

II, III

D.

I, II, III

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Questions 43

An associate from the finance group has been identified as an operational risk coordinator (ORC) for her department. To fulfill her ORC responsibilities the associate will need to:

I. Provide main communication contact with operational risk department

II. Provide main reporting contact with audit department

III. Coordinate collection of key risk indicators in her area

IV. Coordinate training and awareness activities in her area

Options:

A.

I, II

B.

II, III, IV

C.

I, II, III

D.

I, III, IV

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Questions 44

Which one of the four following statements about consortium databases is correct?

Consortium databases

Options:

A.

Gather information from news articles.

B.

Use data from the top 5% of the industry.

C.

Provide data to map risk categories with causes.

D.

Contain anonymous information.

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Questions 45

What are the add-on losses faced by a bank that is going bankrupt?

I. The discount accepted by the bank for selling its assets in a fire sale.

II. The increased cost of funding liabilities in a financially distressed situation.

III. The reduction in the present value of future growth opportunities.

IV. Loss of goodwill and intangible assets.

Options:

A.

I, II

B.

II, III, IV

C.

III, IV

D.

I, II, III, IV.

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Questions 46

Which one of the following four statements about planning for the operational risk framework is INCORRECT?

Options:

A.

Planning for the operational risk framework involves setting clear goals, realistic milestones and achievable deliverables that add value.

B.

An operational risk framework is a complex and evolving challenge, and to keep its development under control it is important to apply strong project management skills to the design and implementation of each new element.

C.

Planning for the operational risk framework suggests that short-term planning and focus on immediate benefits is strongly preferred to the long-term planning approach.

D.

Once the elements of an operational risk framework are up and running, they need to be monitored to ensure they maintain their integrity and do not deteriorate over time.

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Questions 47

Which of the following assets on the bank's balance sheet has greatest endogenous liquidity risk?

Options:

A.

A 2-year U.S treasury bond

B.

A 1-week corporate loan with a AAA rated company

C.

A 10-year U.S treasury bond

D.

A 3-year subprime mortgage

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Questions 48

Which one of the following four statements correctly identifies disadvantages of using the economic capital?

Options:

A.

The economic capital models used by banks may be subject to significant model risk.

B.

Economic capital may do not take into consideration the regulatory requirements.

C.

Since banks are putting their money at risk they have an incentive to increase economic capital.

D.

Economic capital estimates the level of expected losses.

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Questions 49

Which one of the four following statements about technology systems for managing operational risk event data is incorrect?

Options:

A.

Operational risk event databases are always integrated with the other components of the operational risk management program.

B.

Operational risk loss event data collection software can be internally developed.

C.

Operational risk event databases are independent elements of the operational risk management framework.

D.

The implementation of a new operational risk event loss database has to incorporate an analysis of the advantages and disadvantages of external systems.

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Questions 50

Which of the following statements is a key difference between customer loans and interbank loans?

Options:

A.

Customers are less credit-worthy than banks on average and hence yields are higher on average for customer loans as compared to interbank loans

B.

Customer loans are of shorter duration than interbank loans

C.

Customer loans are easier to sell than interbank loans

D.

Interbank loans are more customized than commercial loans

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Questions 51

On January 1, 2010 the TED (treasury-euro dollar) spread was 0.4%, and on January 31, 2010 the TED spread is 0.9%. As a risk manager, how would you interpret this change?

Options:

A.

The decrease in the TED spread indicates a decrease in credit risk on interbank loans.

B.

The decrease in the TED spread indicates an increase in credit risk on interbank loans.

C.

Increase in interest rates on both interbank loans and T-bills.

D.

Increase in credit risk on T-bills.

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Exam Code: 2016-FRR
Exam Name: Financial Risk and Regulation (FRR) Series
Last Update: Apr 25, 2024
Questions: 342
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