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FPGEE Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following is considered normal sodium serum in human body?

Options:

A.

35 to 47 mEq/L

B.

147 to 150 mEq/L

C.

135 to 147mEq/L

D.

75 to 135 mEq/L

E.

125 to 145 mEq/L

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Questions 5

Diazepam Injection U.S.P

Diazepam 5 mg/ml

Ethanol 10%

Propylene glycol 40%

Benzyl alcohol 1.5%

Water for Injection qs 100%

In the formulation given above, the following ingredient(s) function(s) as a cosolvent(s):

I ethanol

II propylene glycol

III benzyl alcohol

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 6

Diphtheria is caused by:

Options:

A.

Plasmodium.

B.

Vibrio.

C.

Shigella.

D.

Neisseria.

E.

Corynebacterium.

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Questions 7

Identify the correct pathway of blood flow from the small intestine to the liver:

Options:

A.

haemorrhoidal vein ? portal vein.

B.

mesenteric vein ? portal vein.

C.

haemorrhoidal vein? inferior vena cava.

D.

mesenteric vein ? hepatic artery.

E.

gastric vein ? hepatic vein.

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Questions 8

Which of the following is the only polysaccharide NOT synthesized during human metabolism?

Options:

A.

Maltase

B.

Sucrose

C.

Glucose

D.

Cellulose

E.

Frutose

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Questions 9

Mechanism of action of zalcitabine is:

Options:

A.

Inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase

B.

Inhibits reverse transcriptase

C.

Inhibits DNA gyrase

D.

Inhibits viral protease

E.

Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase

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Questions 10

Mechanism of action of enalapril is:

Options:

A.

serotonin reuptake inhibitor

B.

Inhibits bone resorption

C.

beta-2 agonist

D.

Inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme

E.

Induces "freezing" of initiation complex

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Questions 11

Mechanism of action of vancomycin is:

Options:

A.

Potentiates glucose-mediated insulin secretion

B.

Inhibits phospholipase C

C.

Mitotic spindle poison

D.

Inhibits transpeptidase

E.

Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis

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Questions 12

Bioavailability is related to which of the following parameters, according to the equation F = 1 - E

Options:

A.

Excretion

B.

Elimination

C.

Extraction Ratio

D.

Enterohepatic Recycling

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Questions 13

Class of nystatin is:

Options:

A.

Thiazides

B.

Antiprotozoan agents

C.

Autonomic nervous system drugs

D.

Polyenes

E.

Oral hypoglycemics

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Questions 14

Indication of primaquine is:

Options:

A.

Broad spectrum antibacterial agent

B.

Amebiasis

C.

Malaria

D.

Shock

E.

Rheumatoid arthritis

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Questions 15

Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of sulfametoxazole?

Options:

A.

Inhibit protein synthesis

B.

Inhibit cell growth by competitive antagonism with folic acid synthesis

C.

Inhibit synthesis of essential metabolites

D.

Alter the function of cell membrane permeability

E.

Inhibit translation of genetic information

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Questions 16

Route of administration of erythromycin is:

Options:

A.

Inhalation

B.

IV

C.

Sublingual

D.

Intra-auricular

E.

Oral

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Questions 17

Which pyrimidine base is not present in RNA sequence?

Options:

A.

Uracil

B.

Thiamine

C.

Cytosine

D.

Guanine

E.

Adenine

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Questions 18

Purine may be the end product of:

Options:

A.

Amines

B.

Amino acids

C.

Uric acid

D.

Proteins

E.

Enzymes

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Questions 19

Wrong statement regarding antifungal agents includes which of the following?

Options:

A.

Polyene antifungal act binding to ergosterol from pores resulting in linkage of cellular.

B.

Azoles antifungal act blocking the synthesis of ergosterol.

C.

Polyene antifungal has the widest spectrum compared to any other agent

D.

Side effects of antifungals include fever, chills, anorexia, headaches and muscle pain

E.

Side effects of antifungals cannot be treat for Tylenol due to high drug interaction.

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Questions 20

Subclass of tolbutamide is:

Options:

A.

Sulfonylureas

B.

Organic nitrates

C.

Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

D.

Potassium channel agonists

E.

Biguanides

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Questions 21

Class of phenobarbital is:

Options:

A.

Barbiturates

B.

Antiprotozoan agents

C.

Antimycobacterial

D.

Benzodiazepines

E.

Sedatives

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Questions 22

Example of drug(s) used in treatment of tuberculosis include:

I- Isoniazid

II- Rifampin

III- Ethambutol

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 23

Class of cocaine is:

Options:

A.

Retinoids

B.

Anti-asthmatic agents

C.

Autonomic nervous system drugs

D.

Loop diuretics

E.

Antiarrhythmic agents

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Questions 24

Class of tocainide is:

Options:

A.

Thiazides

B.

Antiarrhythmic agents

C.

Cephalosporins

D.

Autonomic nervous system drugs

E.

Beta blockers

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Questions 25

Correct statements regarding CEPHALOSPORINS include:

I- Bactericidal antimicrobial

II- Derivated from natural source: Cephalosporium acremonium

III- Broad-spectrum agent

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 26

Which of the following best classify metronidazole?

Options:

A.

Antiprotozoa

B.

Antibiotic

C.

Antifungal

D.

Antiviral

E.

Antimicrobial

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Questions 27

For highly polar drugs (e.g. mannitol) what primarily determines elimination rate?

Options:

A.

Excretion rate

B.

Metabolism rate

C.

Absorption rate

D.

Distribution rate

E.

All of the above

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Questions 28

Which of the following is not related to a drug toxicity of Atenolol?

Options:

A.

CHF

B.

Tachycardia

C.

AV block

D.

Sedative appearance

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Questions 29

Which of the following is not directly related to a drug toxicity of Nitroglycerin?

Options:

A.

Headaches

B.

Tachycardia

C.

Dizziness

D.

Projectile vomiting

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Questions 30

What would be the preferred route of metabolism of succinyl choline?

Options:

A.

Ester hydrolysis

B.

N-oxidation

C.

Glucuronide conjugation

D.

A & B

E.

All of the above

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Questions 31

Indication of PTU is:

Options:

A.

Glaucoma

B.

Migraine prophylaxis

C.

Thyrotoxicosis - preparation for radioactive iodine therapy

D.

Severe recurrent ventricular tachyarrhythmias

E.

Broad spectrum antibacterial agent

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Questions 32

Indication of aspirin is:

Options:

A.

Insomnia

B.

Cyanide poisoning

C.

Cardiac arrest

D.

Inflammation

E.

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

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Questions 33

Mechanism of resistance of dicloxacillin is:

Options:

A.

Decreased drug uptake by bacteria

B.

Mutations in M (matrix) protein

C.

Beta-lactamase

D.

Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs)

E.

Antibodies resulting from streptococcal infection

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Questions 34

Which of the following is not related to a drug toxicity of Prednisone?

Options:

A.

Cataracts

B.

Hypotension

C.

Psychosis

D.

Acne

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Questions 35

Which of the following statements refers to HPMPC?

Options:

A.

Tricyclic.

B.

Cytosine monophosphate analog

C.

Works by accumulating in and changing pH of lysosomes.

D.

Mild intrinsic sympathomimetic activity - does not decrease heart rate and contractility as much during exercise.

E.

Metabolized in liver by P450.

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Questions 36

With respect to bioalence, the parameter “Cmax” is:

Options:

A.

Affected by the extent of absorption only.

B.

Affected by the rate of absorption only.

C.

Affected by neither rate nor extent of absorption.

D.

Affected by both rate and extent of absorption.

E.

The only significant parameter.

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Questions 37

Water used for reconstitution of an additive for a large volume parenteral should be:

Options:

A.

sterile water

B.

distilled water

C.

Bacteriostatic Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard)

D.

Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard)

E.

Sterile Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard)

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Questions 38

Which is the correct start dose of methothrexate in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?

Options:

A.

7.5mg once a week

B.

15mg once a week

C.

7.5mg daily

D.

15mg daily

E.

22mg once a week

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Questions 39

Pernicious anemia is:

Options:

A.

due to dietary deficiency of vitamin B12.

B.

prevented by oral administration of a vitamin B12 supplement.

C.

treated by parenteral administration of folic acid.

D.

treated by parenteral administration of vitamin B12.

E.

caused by dietary iron deficiency.

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Questions 40

Which of the following terms indicates a loss of moisture?

Options:

A.

Deliquescence

B.

Efflorescence

C.

Hygroscopicity

D.

Polymorphism

E.

Condensation

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Questions 41

Biceps muscles are part of:

I the arm

II the thigh

III the rib cage

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 42

Structure-activity studies of cholinergic drugs indicate that:

I maximum activity is achieved when the quaternary nitrogen is three carbons removed from the ester oxo group.

II structures which display a quasi-ring conformation exhibit muscarinic activity.

III one methyl group of the trimethylammonium group can be replaced by an ethyl group with only slight loss of activity.

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 43

The optic disk is also called the:

Options:

A.

blind spot

B.

cornea

C.

iris

D.

pupil

E.

macula lutea

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Questions 44

Condition characterized by a reversible form of airflow obstruction is known as:

Options:

A.

Aneurism

B.

Emphesema

C.

Embolism

D.

Cirrhose

E.

Jaundice

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Questions 45

The number of milli-alents of lithium that KJ will receive with each dose is:

Options:

A.

8

B.

16

C.

24

D.

32

E.

48

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Questions 46

Osteoporosis is a disease characterized by loss of bone mass and may be aggravated by:

I-Corticosteroids

II-Menopausa

III-Grave’s disease

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 47

Chronic progressive lower airway destruction causing reduced pulmonary inspiration and expiratory capacity is known as:

Options:

A.

Asthma

B.

Bronchitis

C.

GERD

D.

COPD

E.

CHF

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Questions 48

Sulfinpyrazone is used as a(n):

Options:

A.

analgesic agent

B.

antipyretic agent

C.

anti-inflammatory agent

D.

agent which increases renal tubular reabsorption of uric acid

E.

uricosuric agent

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Questions 49

Correct administration of Penicillamine in the treatment of rheumatois arthritis include:

Options:

A.

With meals

B.

In emptying stomach

C.

With plenty of water

D.

With orange juice

E.

Before bedtime

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Questions 50

Which is not a drug used for smoke cessation?

Options:

A.

Nicotine polacrilex

B.

Transdermal nicotine patches

C.

Nicotine sublingual tablets

D.

Bupropion

E.

Buspirone

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Questions 51

Prednisone may produce all of the following effects, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

skeletal muscle weakness

B.

hypoglycemia

C.

sodium retention

D.

peptic ulceration

E.

lowered resistance to infection

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Questions 52

Otitis extern, an ear infection may be best is best treated by:

Options:

A.

Ciprofloxacin eardrop

B.

Gentamicin eardrop

C.

Prednisone eardrop

D.

Levobunolol eardrop

E.

Saline solution

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Questions 53

All of the following are examples of quinolone antimicrobial agents, EXCEPT

Options:

A.

Cephalexin

B.

Ofloxacin

C.

Norfloxacin

D.

Ciprofloxacin

E.

Levofloxacin

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Questions 54

Which of the following statements refers to carbamazepine?

Options:

A.

Effects in hypertension: 1. Blood pressure - decrease 2. Systemic vascular resistance - decrease 3. Heart rate - no change 4. Stroke volume - no change 5. Ejection fraction - no change 6. Venous capacitance - increase 7. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure - no change 8. Renin - increase 9. Plasma aldosterone - decrease 10. Plasma norepinephrine - no change

B.

Cognitive side effects, respiratory depression.

C.

Generally very effective as a single drug.

D.

Few cognitive or behavioral side effects.

E.

Is found in breast milk.

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Questions 55

Treatment of large intestine infection mainly caused by food intoxication may include:

I- Lots of fluids

II- Ciprofloxacin

III- Metronidazole

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 56

Folic acid has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity which is based on the:

Options:

A.

pyrimidine ring

B.

purine ring

C.

pyrazine ring

D.

pteridine ring

E.

pyridine ring

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Questions 57

Abundant element in the interstitial fluid may include:

Options:

A.

Potassium

B.

Sodium

C.

Magnesium

D.

Calcium

E.

Chloro

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Questions 58

False statement regarding vitamin D3 metabolism include:

Options:

A.

Vitamin C facilitates absorption of vitamin D3 in the liver

B.

Hydroxylation of D3 is in kidney

C.

Hydroxylation of is D3 in the liver

D.

Parathyroid hormone activate metabolism of vitamin D3 in the kidney

E.

Skin activates synthesis of vitamin D3 by sunlight

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Questions 59

The formation of glucose from non-carbohydrates sources such as lactate and Kreb’s cycle metabolites is an anabolic process called:

Options:

A.

Glycogenolysis

B.

Glycolysis

C.

Glycogenesis

D.

Gluconeogenesis

E.

None of the above

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Questions 60

Which of the following is the most important vitamin in pregnancy?

Options:

A.

Cyanocobalamin

B.

Folic acid

C.

Pantothenic acid

D.

Pyridoxine

E.

Niacin

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Questions 61

Which of the following compounds are considered the building blocks of nucleic acids?

Options:

A.

Nucleotides

B.

Nucleosides

C.

Monosaccharides

D.

Purines

E.

Amino acids

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Questions 62

Non-protein portion of hemoglobin consist of:

Options:

A.

Ferrous complex of protophorphirin IX

B.

3 Heme unit surrounding an iron atom

C.

4 Heme unit surrounding a ferric ion

D.

4 Pyrrole rings linked through a Fe³+ mol.

E.

All are correct

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Questions 63

Bacterial resistance to an antibiotic may occurs due to:

I- Mutation

II- Adaptation

III- Gene transfer

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Exam Code: FPGEE
Exam Name: Foreign Pharmacy Graduate Equivalency Examination
Last Update: May 3, 2024
Questions: 426
$64  $159.99
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