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FPGEE Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

Drug considered as the drug of choice in a specific asthma emergency treatment include:

Options:

A.

Salmeterol

B.

Adrenaline

C.

Albuterol

D.

Cortisone

E.

Zafirlukst

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Questions 5

Correct statements regarding Erythromycin ESTOLATE may include:

I- Primarily effective against gram-positive bacteria and also have activity against some Gram-negative bacteria

II- It is a macro lid antibiotic very useful as alternative to penicillin for those that have Allergy to penicillin antibiotics

III- Regular erythromycin is better absorbed from GIT that erythromycin estolate

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 6

All of the following are examples of DMRA-Disease Modifying Antirheumatic Agents, EXCEPT

Options:

A.

Methothrexate

B.

Sulfasalazine

C.

Organic Gold Compounds

D.

Sulfinpyrazone

E.

Penicillamine

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Questions 7

All are correct concerning the action of corticosteroids in asthma status, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Suppress the inflammatory response

B.

Decrease production of inflammatory mediators

C.

Decrease airway responsiveness to inflammation

D.

Relieve brochocontriction

E.

Increase β-agonist receptors response

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Questions 8

Which of the following is considered a polyene antifungal agent?

Options:

A.

Miconazole

B.

Clotrimazole

C.

Amphotericin

D.

Itraconazole

E.

Ketoconazole

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Questions 9

Which of the following conditions are quinolone antimicrobial drugs mainly used?

Options:

A.

Respiratory tract infections

B.

Urinary tract infections

C.

Gastrointestinal tract infections

D.

Endocarditis

E.

Cerebral infections

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Questions 10

Class of urokinase is:

Options:

A.

Sedatives

B.

Anti-asthmatic agents

C.

Antimycobacterial

D.

Antidepressants

E.

Thrombolytics

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Questions 11

Which vitamin is/are fat-soluble?

I- Vitamin E

II- Vitamin K

III- Vitamin B

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 12

Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of sulfametoxazole?

Options:

A.

Inhibit protein synthesis

B.

Inhibit cell growth by competitive antagonism with folic acid synthesis

C.

Inhibit synthesis of essential metabolites

D.

Alter the function of cell membrane permeability

E.

Inhibit translation of genetic information

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Questions 13

Mechanism of resistance of dicloxacillin is:

Options:

A.

Decreased drug uptake by bacteria

B.

Mutations in M (matrix) protein

C.

Beta-lactamase

D.

Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs)

E.

Antibodies resulting from streptococcal infection

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Questions 14

Effect of bisacodyl is:

Options:

A.

Decreases total cholesterol by 8-12%

B.

Decreases water absorption

C.

Decreases total cholesterol by 20-50%

D.

Enhances mucociliary clearance

E.

Decreases triglycerides by 10-20%

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Questions 15

The use of indomethacin in gout treatment:

Options:

A.

Inhibit the acute gout arthritis inflammation by inhibition of prostaglandin formation

B.

Inhibits tubulin synthesis

C.

Accelerate renal excretion of uric acid

D.

Inhibit uric acid synthesis

E.

Inhibit the reabsorption of uric acid by the kidney

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Questions 16

Half-life of tolbutamide is:

Options:

A.

12-24 hours

B.

3 hours

C.

6-12 hours

D.

10 hours

E.

8 hours

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Questions 17

Cigarette smoke causes an increase in levels of CYP1A isozymes. Theophylline is primarily metabolized by the CYP1A system. What would happen to theophylline clearance for an asthmatic patient in hospital who could not smoke?

Options:

A.

No change

B.

Increase

C.

Decrease

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Questions 18

Mechanism of action of cefoxitin is:

Options:

A.

monoamine reuptake inhibitor

B.

Inhibits cholesterol synthesis

C.

Inhibits activation of GPIIb/IIIa

D.

Inhibits transpeptidase

E.

Inhibits Na-K-2Cl transporter

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Questions 19

Examples of drug(s) that may precipitate asthma include all of the following, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Aspirin

B.

β-Blockers

C.

Ipratropium

D.

NSAIDs

E.

Cholinergic drugs

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Questions 20

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding tablet formulation?

Options:

A.

Diluents are fillers to add bulk to the tablet.

B.

Lubricants help the patient to swallow the tablet more easily.

C.

Binding agents may be added dry or in solution.

D.

Disintegrants draw water into the tablet causing it to burst.

E.

Glidants promote the flow of materials during compression.

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Questions 21

Which of the following vitamin is the precursor of collagen synthesis?

Options:

A.

Vitanin A

B.

Vitamin B

C.

Vitamin C

D.

Vitamin D

E.

Vitamin E

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Questions 22

Mechanism of action of doxorubicin is:

Options:

A.

Inhibits topoisomerase II

B.

alpha antagonist

C.

Inhibits peptidyl transferase

D.

beta antagonist

E.

Allosterically enhances GABAergic inhibition

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Questions 23

Which of the following statements refers to phenelzine?

Options:

A.

Mechanism of action probably involves NO.

B.

Rapid IV infusion predisposes to neuromuscular paralysis.

C.

May work when other antidepressants fail.

D.

Long half-life.

E.

MOA is inhibited irreversibly. Response occurs when >80% platelet MOA is inhibited.

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Questions 24

Route of administration of paromomycin is:

Options:

A.

Inhalation

B.

Subcutaneous

C.

IV

D.

Oral

E.

Sublingual

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Questions 25

Which of the following is not directly related to a drug toxicity of Ibuprofen?

Options:

A.

Nausea

B.

Renal dysfunction

C.

Anemia

D.

Muscle wasting

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Questions 26

The Michaelis-Menten equation will appear first order:

Options:

A.

when the substrate concentration is much smaller than Km.

B.

when Km is much smaller than the substrate concentration.

C.

when Vmax is much smaller than Km.

D.

when Vmax is much larger than Km.

E.

when Km approaches Vmax.

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Questions 27

The effectiveness of VANCOMYCIN is seen ONLY in:

Options:

A.

Virus

B.

Gram-negative bacterias

C.

Gram-positive bacterias

D.

Both gram-positive and negative bacterias

E.

Plasmodium

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Questions 28

Which of the following is the predominant intracellular element?

Options:

A.

Sodium

B.

Magnesium

C.

Potassium

D.

Calcium

E.

Phosphorous

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Questions 29

Autoimmune disorders include which of the following?

I Graves' disease

II Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

III Osteoarthritis

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 30

Drug known as the new relative cromolyn like drug include:

Options:

A.

Cromolyn sodium

B.

Cromoglycanate sodium

C.

Cromolyin disodium

D.

Disodium cromoglycanate

E.

Nedocromil sodium

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Questions 31

If the total body clearance of a drug is 200 mL/min in a normal healthy adult and the renal clearance is 10 mL/min then one may assume that:

Options:

A.

the drug is extensively metabolized.

B.

greater than normal drug accumulation would occur in patients with moderate renal failure.

C.

entero-hepatic recycling is significant.

D.

the drug is not bound to plasma proteins.

E.

the drug is concentrated in adipose tissue.

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Questions 32

Osteoporosis is a disease characterized by loss of bone mass and may be aggravated by:

I-Corticosteroids

II-Menopausa

III-Grave’s disease

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 33

The MOST well known characteristic symptom of asthma include:

Options:

A.

Wheezing

B.

Mucosal edema

C.

Cough

D.

Chest tightness

E.

Tachycardia

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Questions 34

Which of the following is not related to a drug toxicity of Prednisone?

Options:

A.

Cataracts

B.

Hypotension

C.

Psychosis

D.

Acne

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Questions 35

Mercapturic acid derivatives in phase II metabolism can result from reactions of:

Options:

A.

glutathione conjugates.

B.

glucuronide conjugates.

C.

glycine conjugates.

D.

glutamate conjugates.

E.

sulfate conjugates.

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Questions 36

The style of management in which the owner of a pharmacy emphasizes the development of detailed policies and written procedures for employees to observe at all times is referred to as:

Options:

A.

autocratic

B.

bureaucratic

C.

participative

D.

benevolent

E.

consultative

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Questions 37

Importance of Vitamin D in osteoporosis:

I- Increase the absorption of calcium from the small intestine

II- The best vitamin D analog to treat osteoporosis is calcitriol

III- Antacids containing aluminum and magnesium may interfere with proper activity of vitamin D.

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 38

Aerosol OT (AOT) is used in veterinary medicine as a laxative. If 250 g of AOT is dissolved in 1 000 mL of glycerin (density of glycerin is 1.25 g/mL), the concentration of AOT in the solution is:

Options:

A.

12.5% w/w.

B.

16.7% w/w.

C.

20.0% w/w.

D.

23.8% w/w.

E.

25.0% w/w.

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Questions 39

The pharmacist fills a prescription for sumatriptan 100 mg tablets for a migraine patient. Appropriate information to provide to the patient includes which of the following?

Options:

A.

If the sumatriptan does not relieve the headache within four hours, ergotamine may be used.

B.

If no relief is achieved in two hours, sumatriptan may be repeated.

C.

If the headache is relieved but another headache occurs eight hours later, sumatriptan may be used for the second headache.

D.

The maximum dosage in any 24 hour period is six tablets.

E.

If relief is not achieved, no other medication can be used for 24 hours.

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Questions 40

A patients with allergy to Sulphonamides (i.e.: SulphametoxazolE. can take all of the following medications, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Penicillin

B.

Lidocaine

C.

Celecoxib

D.

Clindamycin

E.

Tetracycline

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Questions 41

Structure-activity studies of cholinergic drugs indicate that:

I maximum activity is achieved when the quaternary nitrogen is three carbons removed from the ester oxo group.

II structures which display a quasi-ring conformation exhibit muscarinic activity.

III one methyl group of the trimethylammonium group can be replaced by an ethyl group with only slight loss of activity.

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 42

True statements regarding the use of monoclonal antibodies include which of the following?

I Flu-like symptoms commonly occur at the start of therapy.

II T cells are blocked from initiating the rejection process.

III Orthoclone is a human immunoglobulin product.

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 43

Drugs shown to be effective in the prevention of Travellers'

Diarrhea, which might have been prescribed for SM include:

I doxycycline

II cotrimoxazole

III amoxicillin

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 44

A patient purchasing sublingual nitroglycerin tablets should be told to store the medication:

Options:

A.

in the refrigerator

B.

in a plastic vial with a childproof cap

C.

with the original cotton

D.

in an amber glass bottle with a metal cap

E.

in a warm, dry place

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Questions 45

Potassium-sparing diuretics:

I exert their effect in the proximal tubule.

II may cause intracellular alkalosis.

III include the aldosterone antagonists.

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 46

Beriberi is caused by deficiency of which of the following vitamins?

Options:

A.

Thiamine

B.

Riboflavin

C.

Niacin

D.

Pyridoxine

E.

Folic acid

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Questions 47

Diazepam Injection U.S.P

Diazepam 5 mg/ml

Ethanol 10%

Propylene glycol 40%

Benzyl alcohol 1.5%

Water for Injection qs 100%

In the formulation given above, the following ingredient(s) function(s) as a cosolvent(s):

I ethanol

II propylene glycol

III benzyl alcohol

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 48

Side effect of dipyridamole is:

Options:

A.

Diarrhea

B.

Headache

C.

Bleeding

D.

Hypercalcemia

E.

Pseudothrombocytopenia (clumping of platelets)

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Questions 49

A drug ending in the suffix (pril) is considered a ______.

Options:

A.

H2 agonist

B.

ACE inhibitor

C.

Antifungal

D.

Beta agonist

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Questions 50

A drug ending in the suffix (azole. is considered a ______.

Options:

A.

H2 agonist

B.

ACE inhibitor

C.

Antifungal

D.

Beta agonist

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Questions 51

Class of buspirone is:

Options:

A.

Anticonvulsants

B.

Lipid lowering drugs

C.

Beta blockers

D.

Benzodiazepines

E.

Sedatives

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Questions 52

Side effect of OKT-3 is:

Options:

A.

Myalgia

B.

Restlessness

C.

Cognitive dulling

D.

Dyspnea

E.

Cough

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Questions 53

Class of cascara is:

Options:

A.

H2 antagonists

B.

Macrolides

C.

Cathartics

D.

Analgesics

E.

Lipid lowering drugs

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Questions 54

Which of the following is not directly related to a drug toxicity of Nitroglycerin?

Options:

A.

Headaches

B.

Tachycardia

C.

Dizziness

D.

Projectile vomiting

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Questions 55

Half-life of adenosine is:

Options:

A.

70 days

B.

7-20 hours

C.

4 hours

D.

2 hours

E.

1-2 minutes

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Questions 56

Route of administration of interferon alpha is:

Options:

A.

Intramuscular

B.

Inhalation

C.

Topical

D.

Oral

E.

Intra-auricular

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Questions 57

A drug ending in the suffix (tidine. is considered a ______.

Options:

A.

Antidepressant

B.

Protease inhibitor

C.

Beta antagonist

D.

H2 antagonist

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Questions 58

Class of nelfinavir is:

Options:

A.

Glucocorticosteroids

B.

Anti-asthmatic agents

C.

Polyenes

D.

Antivirals

E.

Autonomic nervous system drugs

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Questions 59

Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of hepatitis?

Options:

A.

Valproic acid

B.

Quinidine

C.

Isoniazid

D.

Ethosuximide

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Questions 60

Class of metformin is:

Options:

A.

Lipid lowering drugs

B.

Antimycobacterial

C.

Thyroid agents

D.

Vasodilators

E.

Oral hypoglycemics

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Questions 61

Indication of aspirin is:

Options:

A.

Insomnia

B.

Cyanide poisoning

C.

Cardiac arrest

D.

Inflammation

E.

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

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Questions 62

Which of the following statements refers to etidronate?

Options:

A.

Binds to DNA, preferentially to GC pairs. Inhibits RNA, DNA, and protein synthesis.

B.

Human, pig, salmon, and eel calcitonins are available.

C.

Is used for both therapy and prophylaxis of influenza A.

D.

Bioavailability increases with administered dose.

E.

Only approved by FDA for hypertension treatment.

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Questions 63

Side effect of furosemide is:

Options:

A.

Nausea

B.

Mucositis

C.

Constipation

D.

Hearing impairment

E.

Weight gain

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Questions 64

Class of nitrogen mustard is:

Options:

A.

Aquaretics

B.

Alkylating agents

C.

Lipid lowering drugs

D.

Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis

E.

Antivirals

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Questions 65

Indication of metoprolol is:

Options:

A.

Bacteroides (other than Bacteroides fragilis)

B.

Duodenal ulcer

C.

Stage fright

D.

Ventricular tachyarrythmias provoked by exercise

E.

Cardiac arrest

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Questions 66

How much of a 10 mg dose of morphine reaches the systemic circulation given F = .24?

Options:

A.

24mg

B.

0.24 mg

C.

2.4 mg

D.

4.1 mg

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Questions 67

Mechanism of action of amiloride is:

Options:

A.

Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

B.

Modulation of CD3 receptor from the cell surface

C.

Inhibits renal epithelial Na channels

D.

Aldosterone antagonist

E.

Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

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Questions 68

Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Lead?

Options:

A.

Naloxone

B.

Nitrite

C.

CaEDTA

D.

Dialysis

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Questions 69

Lansoprazole is not used in which of the following cases?

Options:

A.

Gastritis

B.

Peptic Ulcers

C.

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

D.

Thalamus hypertrophy

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Questions 70

Contraindication of indacrinone is:

Options:

A.

Pregnancy

B.

Hyperlipidemia

C.

Diabetes

D.

Diabetes mellitus

E.

Hearing impairment

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Questions 71

Route of administration of ofloxacin is:

Options:

A.

Intra-auricular

B.

Sublingual

C.

Oral

D.

IV

E.

Intramuscular

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Questions 72

Mechanism of action of vancomycin is:

Options:

A.

Potentiates glucose-mediated insulin secretion

B.

Inhibits phospholipase C

C.

Mitotic spindle poison

D.

Inhibits transpeptidase

E.

Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis

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Questions 73

Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

Options:

A.

Mexiletine

B.

Aminodarone

C.

Quinidine

D.

Procainamide

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Questions 74

Class of tocainide is:

Options:

A.

Thiazides

B.

Antiarrhythmic agents

C.

Cephalosporins

D.

Autonomic nervous system drugs

E.

Beta blockers

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Questions 75

Mechanism of action of PAS is:

Options:

A.

Activates antithrombin III

B.

Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis

C.

Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase

D.

Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

E.

beta-1 antagonist

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Questions 76

Antiviral drugs act in many different ways, they can be classified in:

Options:

A.

RNA inhibitors only

B.

DNA inhibitors only

C.

RNA and DNA inhibitors

D.

Protease inhibitors

E.

All are correct

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Questions 77

Subclass of tolbutamide is:

Options:

A.

Sulfonylureas

B.

Organic nitrates

C.

Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

D.

Potassium channel agonists

E.

Biguanides

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Questions 78

Which of the following statements best describes the action of the antitubercular agent ISONIAZID?

Options:

A.

Inhibit cell wall synthesis of mycobacterium

B.

Inhibit the DNA duplication of mycobacterium

C.

Inhibit arachydonic acids that feed mycobacterium

D.

Inhibit mycolic acids that are unique for mycobacterium

E.

Inhibit protein synthesis of mycobacterium

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Questions 79

Cephalosporin mechanism of action may include:

Options:

A.

Inhibit protein synthesis

B.

Inhibit cell wall synthesis

C.

Inhibit synthesis of essential metabolites

D.

Alter the function of cell membrane permeability

E.

Inhibit translation of genetic information

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Questions 80

Correct statements regarding aminoglycosides may include:

I- Has a half-life of 12hours

II- The effect continue remain after all drug is eliminated

III- The relation plasma concentration and half-life is not clear

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 81

Example of drug(s) used in treatment of tuberculosis include:

I- Isoniazid

II- Rifampin

III- Ethambutol

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 82

Resistance is the major problem with penicillins due to ability of bacteria to breakdown the lactam ring of penicillin and inactivates the drug. To overcome these problem penicillins can be administrated together with β-lactamase inhibitors.

Examples of β-lactamase inhibitors is/are:

I- Clavulanic acid

II- Sulbactam

III- Tazobactam

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 83

Which of the following agents would be used in the treatment of infections caused by Helicobacter pylori as combination therapy?

Options:

A.

Penicillin, amoxicillin, ampicillin and metronidazole

B.

Clarithromycin, amoxicillin, omeprazole and metronidazole

C.

Clarithromycin, azithromycin and lansoprazole

D.

Ceftriaxone and metronidazole only

E.

Combinations of antibiotic should not be used due to resistance.

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Questions 84

Which of the following statements refers to fansidar?

Options:

A.

Effect monitored by PT (prothrombin timE.

B.

Embryopathy is due to production of epoxide metabolites. It is especially common when several anticonvulsants are used together.

C.

Is a mixture of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole

D.

Minimal GI absorption.

E.

Allergic reactions (cutaneous) can be fatal in 1/20,000 users.

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Questions 85

Which of the following is an anti-infective agent with lowest therapeutic index?

Options:

A.

Macrolide

B.

Cephalosporins

C.

Cloramphenicol

D.

Aminoglycosides

E.

Antifungal agents

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Questions 86

Correct statements regarding Pellagra include:

I- Caused due to deficiency of niacin

II- Caused by failure in converting tryptophan to niacin

III- Characterized by dermatitis, diarrhea and dementia

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 87

Which of the following is NOT a side effect of tetracycline?

Options:

A.

Alteration in gut flora

B.

Disulfiram like reactions

C.

Teeth permanent discoloration

D.

Fanconi like syndrome

E.

Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis

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Questions 88

Indication of thiabendazole is:

Options:

A.

Cestodes

B.

Status epilepticus

C.

Strongyloides stercoralis

D.

Ancylostoma duodenale

E.

Ventricular fibrillation

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Questions 89

Fluoroquinolone are anti-infective agents analogs of:

Options:

A.

PABA

B.

Folic acid

C.

Vitamin K

D.

Cyanide

E.

Nalidixic acid

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Questions 90

Which of the following statements refers to flunisolide?

Options:

A.

Penetrates placenta less readily than MMI

B.

Causes fetal complications more frequently than PTU.

C.

Is not as effective for acute attacks as beta-2 agonists.

D.

Used only for maintenance/prophylaxis. Systemic steroids are used in case of acute exacerbations.

E.

Cigarette smoking increases metabolism. Liver failure - decreases metabolism.

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Questions 91

Which of the following statements refers to pyrazinamide?

Options:

A.

Accumulates inside mycobacteria

B.

Effects: vasodilator in CHF patients; vasodilator and inotropic in normal individuals.

C.

Is active in acidic environment, therefore especially useful for killing intracellular mycobacteria

D.

Nephrotoxicity is almost always reversible.

E.

Lupus occurs more commonly in slow acetylators.

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Questions 92

Indication of sodium valproate is:

Options:

A.

Prophylaxis of certain infections

B.

Partial complex seizures

C.

Bipolar disorder

D.

Delirium tremor

E.

Primary immunodeficiency

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Questions 93

Mechanism of action of Prozac is:

Options:

A.

Induces translation misreadings

B.

dopamine antagonist

C.

Damages mitochondrial DNA

D.

serotonin reuptake inhibitor

E.

monoamine reuptake inhibitor

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Questions 94

Indication of norepinephrine is:

Options:

A.

Life-threatening ventricular tachyarrhythmias

B.

Cardiac stimulation

C.

Decongestant

D.

Hypertension

E.

Asthma

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Questions 95

Indication of diazepam is:

Options:

A.

Migraine prophylaxis

B.

Bipolar disorder

C.

Myoclonic seizures

D.

Thyrotoxicosis - preparation for surgery

E.

Trigeminal neuralgia

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Questions 96

Antioxidants, which mechanistically act as reducing agents, include:

I ascorbic acid

II sodium bisulfite

III citric acid

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 97

Which of the following agent is classified as lincosamide antibiotic?

Options:

A.

Tetracycline

B.

Aminoglycosides

C.

Vancomycin

D.

Cloramphenicol

E.

Clindamycin

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Questions 98

Glycine reaction is normally mediated by:

Options:

A.

Acetyl Coenzyme A

B.

UDP Glucoronyl tranferase

C.

PAPS- Phosphoadenosine-5-Phosphosulfate

D.

Sulfotranferase

E.

GST-Glutathione S-Transferase

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Questions 99

All of the following statements are true regarding chronic inflammation, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

It may develop as a granulomatous inflammation.

B.

It may be caused by persistent infections such as tuberculosis.

C.

It may occur with autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis.

D.

large numbers of macrophages are found in the infiltrate.

E.

Lymphocytes and eosinophils are rarely involved in its development.

F.

Pharmaceutical Sciences

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Questions 100

Example of compound that is phospholipids include:

Options:

A.

Glycogen

B.

Leucine

C.

Lecithin

D.

Hyaluronic acid

E.

Phenylalanine

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Questions 101

Which of the following is the end product of ANAEROBIC reactions?

Options:

A.

Pyruvic acid

B.

CO2

C.

CO2 + H2O

D.

Lactic acid

E.

Proteins

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Questions 102

Zwintter ion reacts with a substrate as:

Options:

A.

Neutral ion

B.

Proton acceptor ion

C.

Proton donor ion

D.

Anionic

E.

Cationic

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Questions 103

The codon sequence Adenine-Guanine-Cytosine-Uracil is seen in

I- RNAs

II- DNAs

III- Both DNAs and RNAs

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 104

Enzyme that enables DNA fragments from different sources to be joined:

Options:

A.

DNA polymerase

B.

DNA gyrase

C.

DNA ligase

D.

RNA transferase

E.

None of the above

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Questions 105

Which vitamin can be classified as hormone?

Options:

A.

Vitamin D

B.

Vitamin D3

C.

Vitamin E

D.

Vitamin K

E.

Vitamin B12

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Questions 106

Which of the following is the most important vitamin in pregnancy?

Options:

A.

Cyanocobalamin

B.

Folic acid

C.

Pantothenic acid

D.

Pyridoxine

E.

Niacin

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Questions 107

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding enzymes?

I-Enzymes are proteins

II- Enzymes are catalyst because they are never altered during a reaction

III- Michaelis-Menten theory describe the enzymatic reactions

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 108

Vitamin that requires an intrinsic factor to be carried out to ileum in order to suffer absorption from the small intestine:

Options:

A.

Cyanocobalamin

B.

Folic acid

C.

Pantothenic acid

D.

Pyridoxine

E.

Niacin

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Questions 109

Both isoxazole and oxazole rings are found as substituents in some bacteriostatic sulfanilamides. They are present in these structures specifically because of their:

Options:

A.

Sizes and shapes

B.

Tautomeric activities

C.

Enzymatic activities

D.

Electron-donating effects

E.

Electron-withdrawing effects

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Questions 110

Purine may be the end product of:

Options:

A.

Amines

B.

Amino acids

C.

Uric acid

D.

Proteins

E.

Enzymes

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Questions 111

Which of the following vitamin is not water-soluble?

Options:

A.

Vitamin B

B.

Vitamin C

C.

Vitamin D

D.

Folic acid

E.

Riboflavin

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Questions 112

Which of the following vitamin has its chemical structure related to PABA?

Options:

A.

Cyanocobalamin

B.

Folic acid

C.

Pantothenic acid

D.

Pyridoxine

E.

Niacin

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Questions 113

If the pKa of phenobarbital is 7.4, what approximate fraction of the drug would be ionized at pH 8.4?

Options:

A.

10%

B.

30%

C.

50%

D.

90%

E.

100%

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Questions 114

Proteins are formed from:

Options:

A.

Purines

B.

Carbohydrates

C.

Amino acids

D.

Monosaccharides

E.

Nucleosides

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Questions 115

Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA. is:

I the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain

II found primarily in interneurons

III synthesized from glycine

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 116

Atropine is the primary example of an important class of muscarinic antagonists which are esters of tropic acid and which contain:

Options:

A.

aniline and piperidine rings.

B.

aniline and piperazine rings.

C.

aniline and pyrrolidine rings.

D.

pyrrolidine and piperazine rings.

E.

pyrrolidine and piperidine rings.

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Questions 117

GLYCOGENESIS is a process characterized by:

Options:

A.

The breakdown of glycogen into glucose

B.

The transformation of glucose to glycogen

C.

The breakdown of sugar into pyruvate

D.

The breakdown of sugar into lactate

E.

The formation of glucose from non-carbohydrates sources

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Questions 118

Which of the following is the end product of proteins?

Options:

A.

Amino acids

B.

Urea

C.

Uric acid

D.

Purine

E.

Phosphorous

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Questions 119

Common etiologic agents of community-acquired pneumonia include:

I Escherichia coli

II Haemophilus influenzae

III Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 120

Which of the following vitamins is depleted in the blood by smoke?

Options:

A.

Vitamin C

B.

Vitamin B

C.

Vitamin E

D.

Vitamin D

E.

Vitamin A

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Questions 121

An oral chelating agent used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is:

Options:

A.

Allopurinol

B.

Sulphinpyrazone

C.

Indomethacin

D.

Penicillamine

E.

Methotrexate

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Questions 122

Allopurinol, xanthine oxidase inhibitor, used in gout treatment may produce all the following side effects, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Increase in protrombin time

B.

Hypersensitivity rashes

C.

GIT intolerance

D.

Peripheral neuritis

E.

Necrotizing vasculitis

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Questions 123

All of the following drugs will increase the heart rate directly or by reflex when injected intravenously into a young healthy adult, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

isoproterenol

B.

histamine

C.

phentolamine

D.

phenylephrine

E.

atropine

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Questions 124

An angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE. inhibitor for which both renal elimination and metabolism are important in the elimination of the drug and its active metabolites is:

Options:

A.

enalapril

B.

fosinopril

C.

lisinopril

D.

quinapril

E.

ramipril

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Questions 125

When evaluating patients with angina for possible development of nitrate tolerance, true statements include:

I tolerance is rarely associated with isosorbide dinitrate.

II tolerance does not occur in patients who are concurrently on

metoprolol.

III tolerance is dependent upon the administration schedule of nitrate medication.

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 126

Goals of gout treatment may include:

I- Reduce inflammation during acute attacks

II- Accelerate renal excretion of uric acid

III- Reduce the conversion of purine to uric acid

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 127

In an adequately powered, randomized controlled trial conducted over 2 years, the desired clinical outcome (i.e. prevention of a serious cardiovascular event) with a new drug is achieved in 25% of the study sample. In the patients who receive a placebo, only 15% obtain the same clinical benefit. The relative risk reduction achieved with the new drug over the study period is:

Options:

A.

10%.

B.

15%.

C.

25%.

D.

40%.

E.

50%.

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Exam Code: FPGEE
Exam Name: Foreign Pharmacy Graduate Equivalency Examination
Last Update: Dec 1, 2024
Questions: 426
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