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GRCP Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

What are some key practices involved in managing policies within an organization?

Options:

A.

Having internal audit design standard policy templates to make assessment of their effectiveness easier

B.

Delegating policy management to each unit of the organization so there is a sense of accountability established

C.

Implementing, communicating, enforcing, and auditing policies and related procedures to ensure that they operate as intended and remain relevant

D.

Establishing policy management technology that has pre-populated templates so the organization’s policies meet industry standards

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Questions 5

What are key compliance indicators (KCIs) associated with?

Options:

A.

Number of non-compliance events investigated

B.

The level of employee training and understanding of requirements

C.

The impact of environmental and social initiatives

D.

The degree to which obligations and requirementsare addressed

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Questions 6

When should anonymity be afforded to stakeholders who raise issues through notification pathways?

Options:

A.

Anonymity should never be afforded, as it encourages false reporting.

B.

Anonymity should be afforded where legally permitted or required.

C.

Anonymity should only be afforded to stakeholders who are not employees of the organization.

D.

Anonymity should be afforded only when the issue raised is of minor importance.

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Questions 7

What does it mean for an organization to be "agile" within the context of the LEARN component?

Options:

A.

The ability to rapidly expand and scale the organization’s operations in response to change

B.

The ability to quickly re-learn context and culture when things change

C.

The ability to adapt the organization’s mission and vision to changing market conditions

D.

The ability to effectively manage risks and respond to compliance issues that are identified

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Questions 8

In the IACM, what is the role of Governance Actions & Controls?

Options:

A.

To assist the governing authority in constraining and constraining the organization

B.

To develop and implement innovative business strategies

C.

To engage with stakeholders and address their concerns

D.

To monitor and evaluate the performance of suppliers and vendors

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Questions 9

Which of the following is most often responsible for balancing the competing needs of stakeholders and guiding, constraining, and conscribing the organization to achieve objectives reliably, address uncertainty, and act with integrity to meet these needs?

Options:

A.

A risk manager

B.

A general counsel

C.

A compliance unit

D.

A governing board

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Questions 10

What are some examples of industry factors that may influence an organization’s external context?

Options:

A.

Product development, branding, and advertising campaigns.

B.

Political involvement of competitors.

C.

New entrants, competitors, suppliers, and customers.

D.

New technologies available to the organization and its competitors.

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Questions 11

What role do mission, vision, and values play in the ALIGN component?

Options:

A.

They specify the processes as well as the technology and tools used in the alignment process.

B.

They determine the allocation of financial resources within the organization.

C.

They outline the legal and regulatory requirements that the organization must satisfy and define how they relate to the business objectives.

D.

They provide clear direction and decision-making criteria and should be well-defined and consistently communicated throughout the organization.

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Questions 12

How do organizational values contribute to acting with integrity?

Options:

A.

Adhering to established organizational values helps create a shared sense of purpose and direction, aligning actions and decisions with the organization's mission and goals

B.

Organizational values contribute to acting with integrity by increasing the organization’s market share and profitability, which will satisfy shareholders to whom promises were made

C.

Organizational values contribute to acting with integrity by allowing the organization to bypass certain legal and regulatory requirements

D.

Organizational values contribute to acting with integrity by reducing the likelihood of enforcement actions because the organization is self-regulating

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Questions 13

Which trait of the Protector Mindset involves bringing stability against volatile, uncertain, complex, and ambiguous realities?

Options:

A.

Dynamic

B.

Versatile

C.

Stable

D.

Accountable

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Questions 14

What is the significance of assigning a single owner to each objective?

Options:

A.

Assigning a single owner to each objective ensures clear accountability and authority to ensure successful achievement

B.

Assigning a single owner to each objective ensures that the owner receives recognition and rewards for achieving the objective

C.

Assigning a single owner to each objective allows the owner to delegate tasks to other employees to achieve the objective

D.

Assigning a single owner to each objective allows the owner to make unilateral decisions without consulting other stakeholders, which is necessary to keep plans for achieving the objective on track

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Questions 15

What criteria should objectives meet to be considered effective?

Options:

A.

Objectives should be based only on financial metrics for each unit or department

B.

Objectives should meet the SMART criteria (Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Timebound)

C.

Objectives should only have one timescale, e.g., quarterly, annually, 5 years

D.

Objectives should be sought by a majority of the stakeholder categories for the organization

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Questions 16

How does the GRC Capability Model define the term "enterprise"?

Options:

A.

The enterprise is the most superior unit that encompasses the entirety of the organization.

B.

The enterprise refers to the organization's sales and distribution channels.

C.

The enterprise refers to the organization's information technology infrastructure and systems.

D.

The enterprise refers to a starship that boldly goes where no man has gone before.

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Questions 17

(Why is independence considered important in the assurance process?)

Options:

A.

It allows the assurance provider to make decisions without consulting the governing authority

B.

It ensures that the assurance provider has no financial interest in the organization being evaluated

C.

It guarantees that the assurance provider will not be influenced by external factors

D.

It is a means to achieve objectivity and is important for enhancing the impartiality and credibility of the assurance process

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Questions 18

What is the purpose of proactively developing communication channels within an organization?

Options:

A.

To ensure that all communication is delivered in written form only.

B.

To ensure that the channels are available before they are needed.

C.

To formalize the process so that employees know that anything they communicate will be kept in records.

D.

To limit communication to a single channel for simplicity and cost savings.

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Questions 19

In the IACM, what is the role of Prevent/Deter Actions & Controls?

Options:

A.

To decrease the likelihood of unfavorable events

B.

To identify areas in the organization where compliance issues may arise

C.

To promote collaboration and teamwork among employees

D.

To ensure compliance with industry-specific regulations

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Questions 20

What is the benefit of recognizing, compounding, and accelerating the impact of favorable events?

Options:

A.

To preserve records and other evidence for investigation

B.

To ensure confidentiality of the information and determine privilege

C.

To apply consistent discipline to individuals at fault

D.

To maximize benefit and promote future occurrence of favorable events

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Questions 21

What is meant by the term "residual risk"?

Options:

A.

The risk that is transferred to a third party

B.

The risk that exists in all business activities

C.

The level of risk in the presence of actions & controls

D.

The risk that remains after eliminating all threats

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Questions 22

How can "assurance competence" contribute to the level of assurance provided?

Options:

A.

It is solely based on the assurance provider's credentials and ensures the highest level of assurance

B.

It is determined by the number of years the assurance provider has been in the industry and ensures high levels of assurance

C.

A greater degree of it allows the assurance provider to use sophisticated, professional, and structured techniques to evaluate the subject matter, resulting in a higher level of assurance

D.

It is only relevant for external audits and does not apply to internal assurance activities and level of assurance

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Questions 23

What are some examples of non-economic incentives that can be used to encourage favorable conduct?

Options:

A.

Appreciation, status, professional development

B.

Stock options, salary increases, bonuses, and profit-sharing

C.

Gift baskets, extra vacation time, and employee competitions

D.

Health insurance, retirement plans, paid time off, and sick leave

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Questions 24

How can organizations recover from negative conduct, events, and conditions, and correct identified weaknesses within their governance, management, and assurance processes?

Options:

A.

Through open and transparent acknowledgment of the identified unfavorable conduct or events and acceptance of responsibility by the CEO.

B.

Through the application of responsive actions and controls that recover from unfavorable conduct, events, and conditions; correct identified weaknesses; execute necessary discipline; recognize and reinforce favorable conduct; and deter future undesired conduct or conditions.

C.

Through the use of both technology and physical actions and controls to recover from negative conduct and conditions, correct identified weaknesses, and establish barriers to future misconduct.

D.

Through focusing on promoting positive behavior and establishing reward systems for employees who identify weaknesses in the systems of control.

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Questions 25

Which design option is characterized by ceasing all activity or terminating sources that give rise to the opportunity, obstacle, or obligation?

Options:

A.

Share

B.

Accept

C.

Control

D.

Avoid

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Questions 26

What is the role of risk management systems and key risk indicators (KRIs) in an organization?

Options:

A.

To assess the level of compliance with legal and regulatory requirements

B.

To evaluate the potential impact of market fluctuations and economic conditions

C.

To address obstacles and measure the negative, unfavorable effect of uncertainty on objectives

D.

To identify and mitigate potential threats to the organization's security and reputation

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Questions 27

What is the importance of linking (or laddering) objectives with superior-level objectives?

Options:

A.

Linking with superior-level objectives is important for ensuring that employees receive appropriate compensation and benefits based on meeting objectives

B.

Linking with superior-level objectives is essential to ensure organizational alignment and to ensure that subordinate units contribute to the most important objectives and priorities of the organization

C.

Linking with superior-level objectives is essential to ensure that the same exact objectives are used by all levels and units in their day-to-day jobs

D.

Linking with superior-level objectives is necessary to reduce the number of objectives and simplify the organization’s structure

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Questions 28

What is the purpose of assigning accountability for external factors within an organization?

Options:

A.

To eliminate the need for hiring consultants or law firms to monitor external factors

B.

To ensure that individuals with authority and resources are responsible for successfully analyzing, influencing, and sensing external factors that may impact the organization

C.

To reduce the workload of the organization's top management and having staff people track external factors relevant to their own roles

D.

To know who will be using technology to track external events so proper access can be assigned

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Questions 29

(How is the effectiveness of the PERFORM component measured?)

Options:

A.

By assessing the design and operating effectiveness of Perform actions and controls

B.

By analyzing feedback and suggestions from employees and stakeholders about Perform actions and controls

C.

By evaluating the return on investment (ROI) of organizational initiatives supported by Perform actions and controls

D.

By conducting regular audits and inspections of organizational processes integrated with Perform actions and controls

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Questions 30

What are some examples of action and control categories as described in the IACM?

Options:

A.

Policy, process change, punishment, incentives, and employee education

B.

Policy, people, process, physical, informational, technological, and financial actions and controls

C.

Outsourcing, downsizing, and automation as the primary means of control

D.

Random selection, trial and error, and reliance on intuition and experience

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Questions 31

Why is it important for an organization to sense and analyze changes in context within the LEARN component?

Options:

A.

To evaluate the effectiveness of the organization’s risk management framework

B.

To comply with legal and regulatory requirements related to governance and risk management

C.

To ensure that the organization’s financial statements are accurate and up to date

D.

To determine necessary changes to the organization and to understand which changes are significant and which are distractions

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Questions 32

At a very high level, how can an organization address an opportunity, obstacle, or obligation?

Options:

A.

By avoiding any actions that could lead to uncertainty

B.

By focusing on immediate goals and actions that don't present uncertainty

C.

By obtaining risk insurance

D.

By using design options such as Avoid, Accept, Share, and Control

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Questions 33

What is the purpose of defining design criteria?

Options:

A.

To identify the key stakeholders involved in the design process

B.

To guide, constrain, and conscribe how actions and controls are prioritized to achieve acceptable levels of risk, reward, and compliance

C.

To establish a timeline for the implementation of the design

D.

To determine the budget allocated for the design project

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Questions 34

In the context of GRC, which is the best description of the role of governance in an organization?

Options:

A.

Developing marketing strategies and driving sales growth to meet objectives established by the governing body

B.

Indirectly guiding, controlling, and evaluating an entity by constraining and conscribing resources

C.

Conducting audits and providing assurance on the effectiveness of controls

D.

Implementing operational processes and overseeing day-to-day activities

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Questions 35

(Why is it important to periodically evaluate the capability of an organization?)

Options:

A.

To ensure that the organization's supply chains aren't disrupted

B.

To ensure that the capability remains relevant in light of changing circumstances, especially changes in the internal and external context

C.

To ensure that the organization’s brand image is positive

D.

To ensure that the organization's stock price or value remains stable

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Questions 36

What are some examples of technology factors that may influence an organization's external context?

Options:

A.

Market segmentation, pricing strategies, and promotional activities

B.

Research and Design activity, innovations in materials, mechanical efficiency, and the rate of technological change

C.

How the organization uses technology for employee recruitment, onboarding processes, and performance appraisals

D.

How the organization uses financial forecasting, budgeting, and cost control

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Questions 37

How can inquiry be conceptualized in terms of information-gathering mechanisms?

Options:

A.

As a "pushing" mechanism where individuals push information to external sources.

B.

As a "pulling" mechanism where individuals pull information from people and systems for follow-up and action.

C.

As a mechanism that relies solely on technology-based tools.

D.

As a centralized process managed by a single department.

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Questions 38

Which trait of the Protector Mindset involves acting deliberately in advance to reduce the risk of being caught off guard?

Options:

A.

Proactive

B.

Versatile

C.

Collaborative

D.

Assertive

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Questions 39

In the Lines of Accountability Model, what is the role of the Second Line?

Options:

A.

Individuals and Teams who are responsible for financial reporting and budgeting activities within the organization.

B.

Individuals and Teams who establish performance, risk, and compliance programs for the First Line and provide oversight through frameworks, standards, policies, tools, and techniques.

C.

Individuals and Teams who manage external relationships with stakeholders, investors, and regulators.

D.

Individuals and Teams who provide legal advice and support to the organization in case of disputes or litigation.

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Questions 40

Culture is difficult or even impossible to "design" because:

Options:

A.

People are not motivated to change.

B.

It is an emergent property.

C.

It takes too long.

D.

There are too many subcultures.

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Questions 41

(When are additional governance actions and controls considered necessary in the IACM?)

Options:

A.

When the organization experiences rapid growth and expansion

B.

Only when mandated by external regulatory authorities

C.

Are never necessary, as management actions and controls are adequately provided by the application of the IACM

D.

When management actions and controls do not provide enough information or guidance to constrain and conscribe the organization

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Questions 42

What is the difference between reasonable assurance and limited assurance?

Options:

A.

Reasonable assurance is provided by external auditors as part of a financial audit and indicates conformity to suitable criteria and freedom from material error, while limited assurance results from reviews, compilations, and other activities performed by competent personnel who are sufficiently objective about the subject matter.

B.

Reasonable assurance is provided by internal auditors as part of a risk assessment, while limited assurance results from external audits and regulatory examinations.

C.

Reasonable assurance is provided by the Board of Directors as part of governance activities, while limited assurance results from employee self-assessments.

D.

Reasonable assurance is provided by management as part of strategic planning, while limited assurance results from operational reviews and performance evaluations.

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Questions 43

Which of these would not trigger the reconsideration of internal factors within an organization?

Options:

A.

Fluctuations in the stock market and economic conditions.

B.

Ordinary seasonal fluctuations in purchases.

C.

The launch of a new product or service by a competitor.

D.

Changes in government regulations and industry standards.

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Questions 44

What is the goal of implementing an internal investigation?

Options:

A.

To compound and accelerate the impact of favorable events

B.

To provide incentives to employees for favorable conduct

C.

To ensure timely and consistent reporting to applicable stakeholders

D.

To address allegations or indications of unfavorable events and respond to external inquiries and investigations

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Questions 45

What does resilience measure in the context of the ALIGN component?

Options:

A.

Resilience measures the durability and longevity of the organization’s physical assets

B.

Resilience measures the organization’s ability to recover from financial losses and setbacks

C.

Resilience measures the ability to withstand stress and the capability to align after stress

D.

Resilience measures the organization’s ability to maintain a positive reputation in the face of public scrutiny

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Questions 46

In the context of GRC, what is the importance of aligning objectives throughout the organization?

Options:

A.

It ensures that superior-level objectives cascade to subordinate units and that subordinate units contribute to the most important objectives and priorities of the organization.

B.

It enables the governing authority to only focus on the highest-level objectives that are tied to financial outcomes.

C.

It frees the organization to focus solely on short-term financial performance.

D.

It eliminates the need for excessive communication and collaboration between different departments within the organization.

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Questions 47

What is the primary goal of defining an education plan?

Options:

A.

To evaluate the current skill level of the workforce.

B.

To develop a plan that is tailored to the specific needs of each audience.

C.

To create a helpline for anonymous reporting and asking questions.

D.

To implement Bloom’s Taxonomy in the education program.

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Questions 48

What are some considerations that should be taken into account when examining an organization’s internal context?

Options:

A.

Regulatory compliance, legal disputes, and contractual obligations on a unit-by-unit or division-by-division basis

B.

How any changes to the internal context might affect supplier relationships, distribution channels, and pricing strategies

C.

Mission and vision, values, value propositions and operating models, organizational charts and operating model mapping, key department scope and purpose, and potential perverse incentives

D.

Market share, employee and customer satisfaction, and brand reputation

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Questions 49

What type of incentives are established through compensation, reward, and recognition programs?

Options:

A.

Social Incentives

B.

Economic Incentives

C.

Management Incentives

D.

Individualized Incentives

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Questions 50

What is the difference between an organization’s mission and vision?

Options:

A.

The mission is a financial target, while the vision is a non-financial target.

B.

The mission is an objective that states who the organization serves, what it does, and what it hopes to achieve, while the vision is an aspirational objective that states what the organization aspires to be and why it matters.

C.

The mission is a short-term goal or set of goals, while the vision is a long-term goal or set of goals.

D.

The mission is focused on external stakeholders, while the vision is focused on internal stakeholders.

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Questions 51

What factors should be considered when selecting the appropriate sender of a message?

Options:

A.

The sender’s fluency in the language of the needed communication, cultural background, and comfort in communicating with the target audience.

B.

The sender’s preference for formal or informal communication and their ability to respond appropriately to feedback.

C.

The purpose of communication, desired results, reputation with audience members, and shared culture and background with the audience.

D.

The sender’s job title, office location, years of experience, and favorite communication channel.

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Questions 52

In the GRC Capability Model, what is the primary focus of the REVIEW component?

Options:

A.

Implementing new policies and procedures to enhance organizational performance

B.

Continuously improving total performance by monitoring actions and controls and providing assurance about priority objectives, opportunities, obstacles, and obligations

C.

Exclusively focusing on monitoring actions and controls without providing assurance

D.

Conducting audits and inspections to identify non-compliance issues

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Questions 53

What does the initialism GRC stand for?

Options:

A.

Governing risk and compliance

B.

Governance, risk, and compliance

C.

Governance, risk, and controls

D.

Government, regulation, and controls

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Questions 54

Why is it necessary to provide timely disclosures about the resolution of issues to relevant stakeholders?

Options:

A.

To escalate incidents for investigation and identify them as in-house or external.

B.

To ensure protection of anonymity and non-retaliation for reporters.

C.

To compound and accelerate the impact of favorable events.

D.

To meet legal requirements and provide confidence to stakeholders about the process.

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Questions 55

In the context of Total Performance, how is responsiveness measured in the assessment of an education program?

Options:

A.

The number of new courses added to the education program each year.

B.

The number of positive reviews received for the education program.

C.

The percentage of employees who pass the final assessment.

D.

Time taken to educate a department, time to achieve 100% coverage, and time to detect and correct errors.

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Questions 56

What is the purpose of defining identification criteria?

Options:

A.

To establish the organizational hierarchy for decision-making

B.

To guide, constrain, and conscribe how opportunities, obstacles, and obligations are identified, categorized, and prioritized

C.

To create a list of potential stakeholders for communication purposes

D.

To determine the budget allocation for risk management activities

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Questions 57

(Which aspect of culture includes arranging resources and operating the organization, including how the organization is inspired to achieve effective, efficient, responsive, and resilient performance?)

Options:

A.

Assurance culture

B.

Performance culture

C.

Management culture

D.

Governance culture

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Questions 58

What is the primary purpose of interacting with stakeholders in an organization?

Options:

A.

To understand expectations, requirements, and perspectives that impact the organization

B.

To gather feedback for marketing campaigns

C.

To negotiate contracts and agreements with stakeholders

D.

To ensure stakeholders invest in the organization

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Questions 59

What is the role of suitable criteria in the assurance process?

Options:

A.

These criteria are performance metrics used to assess the efficiency of the organization's operations.

B.

These criteria are standards for the ethical conduct of employees and stakeholders.

C.

These criteria are guidelines for the allocation of resources within the organization.

D.

These criteria are benchmarks used to evaluate subject matter that yield consistent and meaningful results.

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Questions 60

What is the essence or the central meaning of GRC?

Options:

A.

A connected and integrated approach that provides a pathway to Principled Performance by overcoming VUCA and disconnection

B.

A system for monitoring and evaluating the performance of employees and teams

C.

A set of guidelines and regulations for corporate governance and ethical conduct

D.

A framework for managing financial risks and ensuring fiscal responsibility

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Questions 61

Why is it essential to make the mission, vision, and values explicit within an organization?

Options:

A.

It is important for gaining and maintaining buy-in from all stakeholders.

B.

It is necessary to comply with industry regulations and standards.

C.

It is crucial for developing the organization’s training and development programs aligned with the mission, vision, and values.

D.

It helps the workforce understand and make decisions at all levels, preventing the organization from operating on ad hoc beliefs and interests.

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Questions 62

What are some examples of environmental factors that may influence an organization's external context?

Options:

A.

Climate and natural resources

B.

Organizational procurement, vendor selection, and contract negotiation for hazardous waste disposal

C.

Organizational performance metrics, goal setting, and progress tracking regarding climate-related projects

D.

Organizational response to new carbon emission regulations

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Questions 63

The Critical Discipline skills of Compliance & Ethics help organizations through which of the following?

Options:

A.

Setting direction, setting objectives and indicators, identifying opportunities, aligning strategies, and managing systems

B.

Planning for risks, identifying risks, assessing risks, addressing risks, measuring and monitoring risks, and using decision science

C.

Identifying mandatory and voluntary obligations, assessing risk, setting policy, educating the workforce, and shaping ethical culture

D.

Fostering creativity, encouraging innovation, facilitating brainstorming, supporting idea generation, and promoting design thinking

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Questions 64

How can an organization evaluate the adequacy of current levels of residual risk/reward and compliance?

Options:

A.

The organization can evaluate adequacy by looking at the number of lawsuits and enforcement actions.

B.

The organization can use analysis criteria to evaluate the adequacy of current levels and determine if additional analysis is required.

C.

The organization can evaluate adequacy by removing controls and seeing if the levels change.

D.

The organization can evaluate adequacy by hiring an outside auditor to make an assessment.

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Questions 65

What is the goal of monitoring improvement initiatives?

Options:

A.

To assess the level of employee satisfaction about the improvement initiatives

B.

To evaluate the financial impact of the improvement initiatives

C.

To ensure progress, verify completion, and address any necessary follow-up actions associated with the improvement initiatives

D.

To determine the need for additional training associated with the improvement initiatives

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Questions 66

What is a consideration to keep in mind when using economic incentives to encourage favorable conduct?

Options:

A.

Ensure that incentives are not "perverse incentives" that encourage adverse conduct

B.

Ensure that any unions or employee organizations approve them

C.

Ensure that economic incentives are only provided to senior management

D.

Ensure that economic incentives are based solely on individual performance metrics

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Questions 67

What is the importance of tracking attendance and assessments?

Options:

A.

To have evidence for defense in enforcement actions

B.

To know which employees need discipline for not attending

C.

To define the learning objectives for the workforce

D.

To provide evidence of "best efforts" and ensure that knowledge is transferred

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Questions 68

In the context of Principled Performance, what is the definition of integrity?

Options:

A.

Integrity is the absence of any legal disputes or conflicts within an organization

B.

Integrity is the ability to achieve financial success as promised to shareholders

C.

Integrity is the process of complying with all government regulations

D.

Integrity is the state of being whole and complete by fulfilling obligations, honoring promises, and cleaning up the mess if a promise was broken

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Questions 69

What is the role of likelihood and impact in measuring the effect of uncertainty on objectives?

Options:

A.

Likelihood measures the chance of an event occurring, and impact measures the economic and non-economic consequences

B.

Likelihood measures the number of obstacles, and impact measures the number of opportunities

C.

Likelihood measures the financial gain, and impact measures the financial loss

D.

Likelihood and impact are irrelevant in measuring the effect of uncertainty

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Questions 70

(What is the significance of establishing ethical decision-making guidelines within an organization?)

Options:

A.

Ethical decision guidelines are optional and have no impact on the organization’s decision-making process

B.

Ethical decision guidelines are used instead of policies and procedures so employees learn how to make the right choices

C.

Ethical decision guidelines are only applicable to the organization’s external stakeholders

D.

Ethical decision guidelines help people decide what to do without an explicit policy or procedure when the circumstances are not explicitly covered

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Questions 71

(Why is it important to incorporate change management activities in all improvement plans?)

Options:

A.

It reduces the need for employee training and development

B.

It ensures the accuracy of financial reporting and accounting

C.

It increases the likelihood of successful mergers and acquisitions

D.

It increases awareness of and acceptance of changes

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Questions 72

In the context of GRC, which is the best description of the role of assurance in an organization?

Options:

A.

Allocating financial resources and evaluating their use to manage the organization’s budget better.

B.

Providing the governing body with opinions on how well its objectives are being met based on expertise and experience.

C.

Designing and monitoring the organization’s information technology systems to be accurate and reliable so management can be assured of meeting established objectives.

D.

Objectively and competently evaluating subject matter to provide justified conclusions and confidence.

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Questions 73

(Which of the following is the ultimate goal of Total Performance?)

Options:

A.

To maximize profits and increase shareholder value

B.

To achieve regulatory compliance and avoid penalties

C.

To expand the organization’s market share and customer base

D.

A balance of effectiveness, efficiency, responsiveness, and resilience

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Questions 74

What is the primary purpose of assurance in an organization?

Options:

A.

To ensure that the organization complies with all industry-specific regulations

B.

To provide confidence to management, governing authorities, and stakeholders by objectively and competently evaluating subject matter

C.

To facilitate communication and collaboration between different departments within the organization

D.

To provide legal protection to the organization in case of disputes or litigation

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Questions 75

What should be done with information and findings obtained from all pathways in the context of inquiry?

Options:

A.

Discarding information that is not directly related to compliance

B.

Focusing solely on findings related to unfavorable events

C.

Sharing all findings with external stakeholders and the public

D.

Analysis of information and findings to identify, prioritize, and route findings to management and stakeholders

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Questions 76

A self-legitimizing person, group, or other entity with a direct or indirect invested interest in an organization’s actions because of the perceived or actual impact is referred to as?

Options:

A.

Shareholder

B.

Stakeholder

C.

Executive Team

D.

Customer

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Questions 77

What is the purpose of implementing incentives in an organization?

Options:

A.

To reduce the overall cost of employee compensation and benefits.

B.

To reduce the need for performance reviews and evaluations.

C.

To discourage employees from seeking employment opportunities elsewhere.

D.

To encourage the right proactive, detective, and responsive conduct in the workforce and extended enterprise.

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Questions 78

The difference between the current skill level and the target skill level is referred to as?

Options:

A.

Learning Objective

B.

Educational Needs

C.

Skill Gap

D.

Skill Set

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Questions 79

How is the efficiency of the LEARN component measured in terms of the use of capital?

Options:

A.

By measuring changes in the organization's market share and competitive position.

B.

By evaluating the return on investment from undertaking LEARN activities.

C.

By assessing the efficiency of using financial, physical, human, and information capital to learn.

D.

By analyzing the organization's budget allocation and resource utilization.

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Questions 80

Can the Second Line provide assurance over First Line activities, and under what conditions?

Options:

A.

No, the Second Line cannot provide assurance over First Line activities because it is focused on strategic planning and long-term goals, not on assurance activities

B.

Yes, the Second Line can provide assurance over First Line activities regardless of the design or performance of the activities because it has a higher level of authority and the necessary skills

C.

Yes, the Second Line may provide assurance over First Line activities so long as the activities under examination were not designed or performed by the Second Line, and the Second Line personnel have the required degree of Assurance Objectivity and Assurance Competence relative to the subject matter and desired Level of Assurance

D.

No, the Second Line cannot provide assurance over First Line activities because it lacks the necessary authority and jurisdiction

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Questions 81

What is the role of compliance management systems and key compliance indicators (KCIs) in an organization?

Options:

A.

To deliver compliance training to employees

B.

To measure the degree to which obligations and requirements are addressed

C.

To ensure adherence to ethical standards and codes of conduct

D.

To monitor and evaluate the effectiveness of internal controls and procedures

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Exam Code: GRCP
Exam Name: GRC Professional Certification Exam
Last Update: Feb 27, 2026
Questions: 271
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