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IIA-CIA-Part1 Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

An internal audit team was assigned to review the organization ' s information security protocol. After fieldwork was completed, an internal auditor identified an error in the review of security access. The error could affect the overall results of the engagement. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the internal auditor?

Options:

A.

Proceed with addressing the error and report any corrections to the engagement supervisor during the scheduled exit meeting.

B.

Issue the audit report to senior management on schedule but include a disclaimer about the error.

C.

Proceed with the scheduled closing of the engagement without consideration of the identified error.

D.

Inform the engagement supervisor of the error and allow the supervisor to determine the appropriate action to take.

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Questions 5

Senior management has decided to adopt the key principles approach of the ISO 31000 risk management framework. According to IIA guidance, which of the following principles is most appropriate when implementing the risk management process in a dynamic agency?

Options:

A.

Everyone in the agency has a primary responsibility for identifying and managing risks as part of the risk management process.

B.

The risk management process, while evaluating risk, should develop a mechanism to rank the relative importance of each risk.

C.

The risk management process should be regularly reviewed and respond to changes in the environment, to remain relevant.

D.

The risk management process should use a formal technique to consider the consequence and likelihood of each risk.

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Questions 6

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best demonstrates how the chief audit executive may ensure that due professional care is applied?

Options:

A.

Establish policies and procedures concerning the engagement process

B.

Develop a strategy for recruiting assigning, and training staff

C.

Outsource complex engagements to an external service provider

D.

Base the auditor evaluation process on the number of observations

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Questions 7

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the internal audit activity’s responsibilities in providing consulting services?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive is responsible for deciding the priority of consulting services in the internal audit plan

B.

The scope of consulting services is determined primarily by the internal auditor with input from management of the area under review

C.

The board defines the internal audit activity’s responsibilities over consulting activities

D.

Adding value to an organization requires the internal audit activity to initiate a consulting engagement

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Questions 8

An internal audit of warehouse inventory revealed no material deficiencies. However, management later discovered fraud, which occurred during the period that was audited, and determined that a major control deficiency allowed the fraud to occur. Given management ' s discovery, which of the following statements is valid?

Options:

A.

The internal auditors violated the standard for due professional care because they did not detect the fraud, even though it occurred during the period that was reviewed.

B.

The internal auditors should have had sufficient knowledge of fraud to identify red flags indicating possible fraud.

C.

The internal auditors could not have detected the fraud due to collusion among employees in the inventory unit.

D.

The internal auditors are not responsible for considering fraud risk, which is a management responsibility.

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Questions 9

Which of the following is a primary benefit of implementing a governance, risk management, and compliance framework within an organization?

Options:

A.

Fewer internal audits.

B.

More effective interviews.

C.

Automated risk management strategy tools.

D.

Reduced assurance costs.

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Questions 10

An existing Internal audit charter is currently under review for revision. Who is responsible for assuring that all required components are included?

Options:

A.

The audit committee.

B.

The head of legal and compliance.

C.

The chief audit executive.

D.

Senior management.

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Questions 11

According to IIA guidance, the internal audit activity must be free from interference in which of the following areas in order to maintain organizational independence?

Options:

A.

Monitoring resources.

B.

Compensating the chief audit executive.

C.

Determining scope.

D.

Allocating internal costs.

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Questions 12

An accounts payable clerk has recently transferred into the internal audit activity and has been assigned to an engagement related to accounts payable processes for which he was previously responsible. Which of the following is the best action for the new internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

If it is an assurance engagement, accept the assignment because direct knowledge of the existing accounts payable processes wifi provide depth and add more value.,

B.

If it is a consulting engagement, decline the assignment and ask to be reassigned, because in a consulting engagement the auditor must not assess operations for areas in which they were previously responsible.

C.

If it is a consulting engagement, accept the assignment because direct knowledge of the existing accounts payable processes will provide depth and add more value.

D.

If it is an assurance engagement, accept the assignment because the chief audit executive had knowledge of the internal auditor ' s previous role when this engagement was assigned.

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Questions 13

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between risk appetite and risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite applies to specific objectives, while risk tolerance refers to an organization ' s general attitude toward risk,

B.

Risk appetite refers to the degree of risk acceptance for a particular objective, while risk tolerance is one approach to risk management.

C.

Risk appetite refers to an organization ' s general level of acceptance, while risk tolerance is a more specific and subordinate concept.

D.

There is no significant difference between the two terms.

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Questions 14

Which of the following would be considered an indicator that an organization ' s ethics program is not yet well developed?

Options:

A.

Disciplinary actions for ethics compliance violations are reviewed by the internal audit activity for consistency.

B.

Communication of ethics compliance expectations is the responsibility of employees ' direct managers.

C.

The organization ' s code of ethics and related compliance policy are reviewed annually for potential updates.

D.

The board of directors reviews ethics oversight metrics for violations and compliance.

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Questions 15

Which of the following techniques should an internal auditor use in order to conduct an effective interview?

Options:

A.

Use technical language to establish credibility with the employee being interviewed

B.

Avoid straightforward questions to make the person being interviewed think before answering

C.

Prepare the next question while the interviewee is responding to demonstrate preparedness

D.

Appear confident but not arrogant during the interview to show professionalism

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Questions 16

Which of the following Code of Ethics principles specifically requires internal auditors to disclose all material facts known to them that, if not disclosed, may distort the reporting of activities under review?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality.

B.

Transparency.

C.

Integrity.

D.

Objectivity.

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Questions 17

In which of the following scenarios would it be appropriate for the chief audit executive (CAE) to report that the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards?

Options:

A.

It A new internal audit activity was formed four years ago. An external assessment was never performed, but successive internal assessments were performed and support the conclusion that the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards

B.

An internal self-assessment completed yesterday found that the internal audit activity did not conform with the Standards when carrying out its work. However, the preceding independent external assessment supports the conclusion that the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards.

C.

To reduce costs, the CAE excluded the use of external assessors from the internal audit activity ' s quality assurance and improvement program for the past seven years.However, the CAE concluded that the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards because all internal assessments over the period have supported this conclusion.

D.

The results of the last external assessment of the internal audit activity, performed a little over five years ago, indicated that the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards. The most recent internal assessment performed within the past year also indicates conformance.

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Questions 18

Which of the following fraud schemes is often an off-book fraud*?

Options:

A.

Payroll fraud

B.

Disbursement fraud

C.

Corruption

D.

Information misrepresentation

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Questions 19

Which of the following is a true statement regarding controls such as ethical values, tone at the top and operational style?

Options:

A.

Transaction testing, mapping and flowcharting is applicable while testing such controls

B.

Breakdowns in the these types of controls have historically led to fraudulent financial reporting

C.

Such controls can be defined as inherently ob)ective and tangible elements of control

D.

From an audit perspective it is significantly easier to assess ethical values than segregation of duties

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Questions 20

Which of the following activities is most likely to require a fraud specialist to supplement the knowledge and skills of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Planning an engagement of the area in which fraud is suspected.

B.

Employing audit tests to detect fraud.

C.

Interrogating a suspected fraudster

D.

Completing a process review to improve controls to prevent fraud

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Questions 21

Which statement accurately describes the authority of the internal audit activity as outlined in the audit charter?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) shall report directly to the board and administratively to the CEO.

B.

The CAE shall provide senior management and the board with performance updates quarterly.

C.

The internal audit team shall have full access to the organization ' s records, physical property, and personnel required to conduct audit engagements.

D.

The internal audit activity shall maintain a quality assurance and improvement program in conformance with the Standards.

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Questions 22

To comply with the proficiency standard which of the following would the chief audit executive likely consider as the primary hiring criterion when choosing a new internal auditor?

Options:

A.

The length and consistency of the auditor ' s work experience

B.

The auditor ' s demonstrated problem-solving skills

C.

The auditor ' s skills compared to those already possessed by other audit staff

D.

The auditor ' s ability to be self motivated and a good team player

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Questions 23

A regional entertainment organization is in the process of developing a corporate social responsibility (CSR) policy. Management invites ideas from employees when developing the CSR policy. Which of the following is the most appropriate idea to include?

Options:

A.

Management has overall responsibility for the effectiveness of governance, risk management, and internal control processes associated with CSR.

B.

The board is responsible for ensuring that CSR objectives are established, risks are managed, performance is measured, and activities are appropriately monitored and reported.

C.

Management is responsible for ensuring that the organization’s CSR principles are communicated, understood, and integrated into decision-making processes.

D.

Generally, CSR activities are limited to the management of the organization; thus, employees do not have a responsibility for ensuring the success of CSR objectives.

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Questions 24

The internal audit activity is performing an assessment of an organization ' s ethics program, and the engagement scope specifies a focus on the training program ' s design. According to IIA guidance, which of the following questions would be the most relevant?

1. Does the training include situations that require an ethical decision?

2. What percentage of employees have taken the training?

3. What are the results of the employee assessment of the organization ' s ethical climate?

4. Does the instructor provide feedback on the thought process to reach an ethical resolution?

Options:

A.

1 and 2.

B.

1 and 4.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

3 and 4.

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Questions 25

A chief audit executive has reported to the board that the internal audit activity is lacking financial accounting knowledge for specific audit projects. Upon approval from the board which of the following hiring approaches is best in this situation?

Options:

A.

An inbound rotational program

B.

A full-time permanent recruitment

C.

An outbound rotational program

D.

A guest auditor program

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Questions 26

Due to extreme liquid fuel price fluctuations, management decided to designate a specific price below which liquid fuel shall not be sold to customers, but instead shall be pumped into storage tanks. Which of the following risk responses has management selected?

Options:

A.

Risk reduction.

B.

Risk transfer.

C.

Risk acceptance.

D.

Risk avoidance.

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Questions 27

Which of the following scenarios provides the most concerning red flag or indicator of possible fraud?

Options:

A.

An employee receives a bonus for perfect attendance

B.

During the past 18 months three chief financial officers have left the organization after having been promoted to the position

C.

The organization does not perform any due diligence research on third party service providers

D.

Three competitors are highly profitable but a fourth equal in size is approaching bankruptcy limits

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Questions 28

Which of the following activities best demonstrates an internal auditor’s commitment to developing professional competencies?

Options:

A.

Requesting to be part of all engagements on the annual audit plan.

B.

Attending a series of locally offered training courses.

C.

Completing a skills assessment and development plan for targeted training needs,

D.

Attending a webinar on how to use data analytics

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Questions 29

Which of the following is a responsibility of the internal audit activity as it relates to risk and risk management?

Options:

A.

Evaluating and suggesting improvements to the risk management process.

B.

Establishing the organization ' s risk appetite.

C.

Determining whether the risk attitude is aligned with shareholder interests.

D.

Ensuring an adequate risk management system is in place.

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Questions 30

Which of the following best describes the differences between internal auditors and external auditors?

Options:

A.

External auditors are concerned about misstatements in the organization ' s financial statements, while internal auditors are concerned about fraudulent activities that could impact the organization’s financial statements

B.

External auditors are required to hold an accounting designation and are responsible for continuing their education, while internal auditors are required to hold an internal audit designation.

C.

External auditors focus on the accuracy and understandability of financial statements, while internal auditors help the organization accomplish its objectives by evaluating and improving the effectiveness of the control process.

D.

External auditors are not employees of the organization, while internal auditors are employees who have in-depth knowledge of the business, making their opinion more reliable to the board and senior management.

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Questions 31

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates due professional care?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor who previously worked in the payroll department within the last year was intentionally excluded by the chief audit executive from the audit team assigned to a payroll audit

B.

While performing a payroll audit an auditor became skeptical about significant payments made to a manager. The auditor sought to determine whether these payments were reasonable through discussion with a manager in a different department in the organization

C.

The head of the payroll department being audited is a business partner of the engagement supervisor During the audit the engagement supervisor sought to maintain his objectivity by not participating in fieldwork

D.

An auditor assigned to a payroll audit was unable to reperform some complex payroll computations for a small number of employees The sum of these payments was below the materiality thresholds provided so the auditor did not perform further tests

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Questions 32

Which of the following is an indicator of ineffective third-party risk management?

Options:

A.

Sourcing of third parties does not follow public procurement law.

B.

Violations of service conditions trigger either fines or termination.

C.

Due diligence of third parties is conducted only after contract signing.

D.

The right-to-audit clause is limited by personal data protection regulations.

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Questions 33

The board of a newly established organization was discussing the contents of the draft internal audit charter One board member suggested adding to the charter an obligation for the internal audit activity to develop controls in business procedures. The board member explained that the new organization needs professional-level developers, internal auditors have the necessary skills and competencies, and the internal audit activity is well positioned to assume this responsibility. Which of the following would be a potential concern if the board member’s suggestion is adopted?

Options:

A.

Due professional care.

B.

Internal audit objectivity.

C.

Risk management assurance.

D.

Professional development.

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Questions 34

The accounting department asked the chief audit executive (CAE) to perform a review of suspicious transactions The CAE was an accounting manager for the organization six months ago How should she respond to the request?

Options:

A.

Decline, if it is consulting engagement because she recently worked in the organization s accounting department

B.

Accept, 11 is an assurance engagement, as she has been out of the department long enough to not impair objectivity.

C.

Inform the accounting department mat me engagement can take place m the future once she has been removed from accounting for a longer period of time.

D.

Accept, it is a consulting engagement with agreed-upon scope and services to be provided by me internal audit activity.

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Questions 35

When a plant manager from within the organization is hired as a rotational internal auditor within the internal audit activity which area should he most likely be trained for immediately?

Options:

A.

Industry knowledge

B.

Project management

C.

Leadership skills

D.

Risk assessments

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Questions 36

According to IIA guidance which of the following statements regarding ethics is true?

Options:

A.

Business ethics may vary within an organization with both domestic and foreign operations

B.

Business ethics are universal n nature and organizations across the world are expected to comply with smear standards

C.

A business ethics policy for an organization s established solely to direct me behavior and expectations of employees

D.

Business ethics of an organization must remain independent torn those of supplier’s customers and business partners

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Questions 37

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding risk management in an organization?

Options:

A.

The risk management function has the sole responsibility for identifying and managing risks in all departments

B.

Risk management is a core responsibility of the internal audit activity

C.

The internal audit activity should consider the organization’s maturity, structure, and the competitive environment to establish the organization’s risk appetite

D.

The internal audit activity may use a risk management or control framework to assist in risk identification

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Questions 38

While conducting an engagement in the procurement department, the internal auditor noticed that the department head’s travel reports showed minor travel expenses, and there were no charges for hotels, meals, or transportation. However, the auditor knew that the department head frequently traveled worldwide to meet with suppliers and visit their production sites. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step for the auditor?

Options:

A.

The auditor should make a note of the issue for follow-up when employee travel expenses are audited.

B.

The auditor should analyze trends and changes among the organization’s suppliers over the past few years.

C.

The auditor should investigate whether there are any special arrangements regarding senior management travel.

D.

The auditor should analyze the list of destinations the department head visited to estimate typical costs.

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Questions 39

Senior management asks the chief audit executive to review the organization ' s compliance with recently introduced legislation on international transfer pricing. The review requires an internal auditor who thoroughly understands the legislation and pricing methods. The internal audit activity does not have an auditor with those skills. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?

Options:

A.

Outsource the engagement to an external audit firm that has appropriate skills.

B.

Recruit a lawyer with knowledge of the legislation to the audit team and ask the new auditor to perform the engagement.

C.

Decline to perform the engagement, as the internal audit activity does not have the appropriate skill set.

D.

Carry out the engagement using existing internal audit staff to help them gain the appropriate experience.

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Questions 40

Why is it imperative for the chief audit executive to track and develop the educational qualifications of internal audit staff?

Options:

A.

To accurately conduct performance appraisals

B.

To ensure that staff complete required continuing professional education credits annually.

C.

To ensure that the resources needed to complete the audit plan are available.

D.

To satisfy the audit committee requirements.

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Questions 41

According to NA guidance which of the following should be documented in the internal audit chatter?

Options:

A.

The risk assessment process applied by the internal audit activity

B.

The organization ' s internal control framework used by the internal audit activity

C.

The nature of consulting services provided by the internal audit activity

D.

The performance evaluation process used by the internal audit activity

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Questions 42

Which of the following offers the best evidence that the internal audit activity has achieved organizational independence?

Options:

A.

An independent third party has assessed the organization ' s system of internal controls to be adequate and effective,

B.

The chief audit executive reports both functionally and administratively to the CEO.

C.

The internal audit charter is drafted properly and approved by the appropriate parties.

D.

The mission statement and strategy of the internal audit activity demonstrates alignment to organizational objectives.

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Questions 43

Guidelines need to be set for various levels of suspected fraud within an organization and when it would be reported to the audit committee. Which of the following would be

reported at the next meeting?

Options:

A.

Minor theft of less than $10,000, not involving senior management.

B.

Theft using collusion for more than $10,000. but not involving senior management.

C.

Denial of access to requested employees during an audit.

D.

Discussion of replacement of the chief audit executive.

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Questions 44

Which of the following would best serve to deter unethical behavior and encourage internal auditors to be objective in their work?

Options:

A.

A requirement that internal auditors undergo objectivity training periodically

B.

Periodic communications reminding internal auditors of Standards requirements

C.

A review of the final audit report by the audit committee

D.

Ongoing monitoring and periodic internal quality assessments

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Questions 45

A third-party provider ' s questionable labor practices have exposed the organization to reputational risks and regulatory risks. Which of the organization ' s risk management practices was most likely ineffective?

Options:

A.

The organization ensured that the third-party vendor provided the best pricing for the requested services.

B.

The organization conducted quality control reviews of provided services to ensure industry standards were met.

C.

The organization performed a due diligence review of all vendors during the bid review process.

D.

The organization planned to issue a resolution concerning the third-party provider ' s labor practices.

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Questions 46

Which of the following statements is true with regard to services provided by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

For consulting engagements, internal auditors do not need to be alert to control issues.

B.

Assurance and consulting services have similar objectives.

C.

Internal auditors may not perform assurance and consulting roles at the same time.

D.

Both assurance and consulting engagements require a final engagement report

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Questions 47

A chief audit executive (CAE) was asked by senior management to establish and manage a risk management function. A new chief risk officer was hired a year later to assume these responsibilities. As this function was included in the current annual audit plan, the CAE engaged an external resource for a risk management engagement. Which of the following potential threats to objectivity was the CAE likely addressing?

Options:

A.

Self-review threat.

B.

Advocacy threat.

C.

Familiarity threat.

D.

Personal relationship threat.

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Questions 48

The results of an assessment of the adequacy of controls would be considered incomplete or misleading unless the internal auditor considers which of the following?

Options:

A.

Number of mitigating controls.

B.

Effectiveness of the control environment

C.

Use of computer-assisted auditing techniques.

D.

IT security controls

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Questions 49

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the internal audit activity ' s quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP)?

Options:

A.

Internal assessments rely solely on the review of completed audit engagements for demonstrated performance

B.

The chief audit executive is responsible for assessing the suitability and competence of an external assessor.

C.

QAIP results must first be discussed with the board and approval obtained for distribution to senior management

D.

At the board ' s discretion, the frequency of external assessments can exceed the five-year guideline

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Questions 50

An internal auditor is reviewing employee travel expenses from the previous six months for fraud. Which of the following tests would best detect instances where personal travel has been claimed?

Options:

A.

Verifying whether claims have been properly authorized for payment.

B.

Verifying whether claims are properly supported by invoices or other documents.

C.

Confirming that all claims are within the limits of the organization ' s travel policy.

D.

Reconciling claims against business trip requests that were approved by supervisors.

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Questions 51

Which of the following best describes why a chief audit executive might obtain the services of a fraud specialist to assist in a major fraud investigation ' ?

Options:

A.

Fraud specialists are better at using computer-assisted audit techniques

B.

Fraud specialists are better equipped to act as an expert witness in court

C.

Fraud specialists are better able to properly apply due professional care

D.

Fraud specialists are better at using crime scene investigation techniques

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Questions 52

Which of the following is a consulting service the internal audit activity can perform with respect to the organization ' s risk management?

Options:

A.

Delivering assurance on the risk management system

B.

Facilitating risk assessment workshops

C.

Evaluating principal risk reporting

D.

Deciding on the appropriate risk response

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Questions 53

Which of the following concepts is emphasized in the Mission of Internal Audit?

Options:

A.

Support of good governance and controls.

B.

Enhancement of organizational value.

C.

Protection of tangible and intangible assets.

D.

Provision of professional advisory and assurance services.

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Questions 54

Regarding the chief audit executive (CAE). which ot the following is considered an impairment to the independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The CAE reports administratively to the CEO.

B.

The CAE is asked to submit the liquidation of her travel allowances to human resources for approval.

C.

The CAE ' s supervisor is responsible for the risk management function.

D.

The CAE is asked to review new procedures before implementation.

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Questions 55

Which of the following describes a responsibility of operating management in an organization ' s corporate social responsibility (CSR) efforts?

Options:

A.

Responsible for implementing CSR principles and overseeing of CSR performance.

B.

Responsible for performing periodic internal self-verifications of reported CSR results.

C.

Responsible for performing analysis and comparison of CSR reports and performance.

D.

Responsible for ongoing CSR reporting and accomplishing of performance targets.

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Questions 56

Senior management has requested that the internal audit activity review and amend policies where necessary when auditing the purchasing department. To which of the following would the chief audit executive most likely give primary consideration when responding to this request?

Options:

A.

Auditor competency.

B.

Internal audit independence.

C.

Auditor objectivity.

D.

Engagement scope.

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Questions 57

In which of the following ways can a chief audit executive demonstrate to the board that the internal audit activity collectively possesses all of the skills needed to complete its annual goals?

Options:

A.

Involve board members in hiring activities and request advice.

B.

Require all internal audit staff to complete the same training course on a general audit subject,

C.

Require senior auditors to obtain a professional certification.

D.

Provide a competency assessment of the internal audit staff.

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Questions 58

Which of the following statements is true regarding management ' s use of judgement to design, implement, and conduct internal control?

Options:

A.

The use of judgment enhances management ' s ability to make better decisions about internal control, but cannot guarantee perfect outcomes.

B.

Introducing judgment generally diminishes management ' s ability to make good decisions about internal control.

C.

It is inappropriate for management to exercise judgement in areas such as specifying and using suitable accounting principles.

D.

It is inappropriate for management to exercise judgement in assessing whether components are present, functioning, and operating together

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Questions 59

Which of the following types of policies best helps promote objectivity in the interna! audit activity ' s work?

Options:

A.

Policies that are distributed to all members of the internal audit activity and require a signed acknowledgment,

B.

Policies that match internal auditors ' performance with feedback from management of the area under review.

C.

Policies that keep internal auditors in areas where they have vast audit expertise.

D.

Policies that provide examples of inappropriate business relationships.

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Questions 60

While auditing an organization ' s credit approval process, an internal auditor learns that the organization has made a large loan to another auditor ' s relative. Which course of action should the auditor take?

Options:

A.

Proceed with the audit engagement, but do not include the relative ' s information.

B.

Have the chief audit executive and management determine whether the auditor should continue with the audit engagement.

C.

Disclose in the engagement final communication that the relative is a customer.

D.

Immediately withdraw from the audit engagement.

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Questions 61

During an assurance engagement internal auditors interview operational management to gather and evaluate information. Which approach is most important for internal auditors to be able to listen effectively to interviewees in the given situation?

Options:

A.

Make an audio recording of the interview

B.

Interrupt with questions during unclear statements

C.

Express interest by asking follow-up questions

D.

Avoid periods of silence

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Questions 62

Which of the following actions would best help the internal audit activity promote continuous improvement in control effectiveness within the organization?

Options:

A.

Determining whether management measures and monitors the costs and benefits of controls.

B.

Providing training on controls and ongoing self-monitoring processes.

C.

Developing flowcharts to obtain information about control design adequacy.

D.

Identifying objectives and the risks involved in achieving them.

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Questions 63

Which of the following best describes the role of internal control frameworks?

Options:

A.

They outline specific internal controls for an organization to implement to ensure business objectives will be achieved.

B.

They provide guidance related to internal control design and implementation to assist with the evaluation and benchmarking of business practices.

C.

They serve as a list of appropriate internal controls for auditors to ensure an organization is using best practices.

D.

They serve as a template for identifying standardized best practices in effective risk management across industries and countries.

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Questions 64

An internal auditor is reviewing the results of an employee survey at a mining company. Which of the following would alert the auditor to a potential ethics issue?

Options:

A.

Women account for 20% of the total number of employees in the company.

B.

Thirty percent of employees feel confident in raising concerns without a fear of retaliation.

C.

Most employees believe that transparent and fair decision-making forms the basis of business ethics.

D.

Employees with longer work experience believe that they deserve more privileges than new hires.

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Questions 65

Which of the following best demonstrates the authority of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Suggesting alternatives to decision makers.

B.

Improving the integrity of information.

C.

Determining the scope of internal audit services

D.

Achieving engagement objectives.

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Questions 66

Of all the common characteristics of frauds, which of the following can the organization influence the most?

Options:

A.

Pressure or incentive.

B.

Rationalization

C.

Opportunity

D.

Commitment.

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Questions 67

An internal audit of an organization ' s disbursement department revealed that multiple payments were made to legitimate vendors bearing fraudulent banking information belonging lo employees in the department. These vendors were initially set up with accurate banking information but were subsequently modified by disbursement officers with access to the vendor management system. Which of the following controls would have likely prevented the fraudulent modification of vendors ' banking information?

Options:

A.

Management periodically reviews and verifies the information in the vendor master Tile.

B.

Management ' s approval is required for update to vendors ' banking information.

C.

Management randomly audits a sample of payments to verify the accuracy of vendors ' banking information.

D.

Management ' s approval is required before payments can be processed.

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Questions 68

Which of the following would be considered a violation of The HAfs mandatory guidance on independence?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) reports functionally to the board and administratively to the chief financial officer.

B.

The board seeks senior management ' s recommendation before approving the annual salary adjustment of the CAE.

C.

The CAE confirms to the board, at least once every five years, the organizational independence of the internal audit activity,

D.

The CAE updates the internal audit charter and presents it to the board for approval periodically, not on a specific timeline

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Questions 69

Which of the following is true regarding the use of a formal risk management framework?

1. It facilitates a methodical approach to risk mitigation.

2. It defines and standardizes the terminology used in risk communication.

3. It establishes the risk tolerance levels to be accommodated in the strategy.

4. It facilitates the alignment of risk mitigation strategies with management priorities.

Options:

A.

1. 2. and 3.

B.

1.2. and 4.

C.

1.3. and 4.

D.

2. 3, and 4.

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Questions 70

In a small company with a small budget, the board and senior management asked the chief audit executive (CAE) to develop specific controls prompted by a new regulatory requirement affecting a specific process. The CAE was also directed to report functionally to senior management. An audit engagement on this process was already set in the internal audit plan. Which of the following represents an impairment to the internal audit activity ' s independence?

Options:

A.

The development of controls by the CAE.

B.

The audit engagement regarding this process.

C.

The functional reporting of the CAE to senior management.

D.

The small budget.

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Questions 71

Which of the following scenarios best illustrates the concept of due professional care?

Options:

A.

After establishing engagement objectives and reviewing a process, the internal auditor assured process owners that all significant risk events were identified and tested using a systematic, disciplined approach.

B.

After conducting an audit based upon a predefined scope and objective, the internal auditor guaranteed management that the system of internal controls in an audited area operates effectively.

C.

As head of the internal audit activity, the chief audit executive reported functionally to the organization ' s board and administratively to senior management.

D.

As head of the internal audit activity, the chief audit executive ensures that engagement supervisors conduct post-engagement staff meetings.

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Questions 72

An internal audit activity maintains a quality assurance and improvement program that includes annual self-assessments. The internal audit activity includes in each engagement report a clause that the engagement is conducted in conformance with the International

Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing ( Standards) Which of the following justifies inclusion of this clause in the reports?

Options:

A.

Internal audit activity policies and engagement records provide relevant, sufficient, and competent evidence that the statement is correct

B.

The audit committee has reviewed the annual self-assessment results and approved the use of the clause

C.

The self-assessment results were validated by a qualified external review team three years prior

D.

The internal audit charter, approved by the audit committee requires conformance with the Standards

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Questions 73

Which of the following organizations has reached the most mature level of corporate social responsibility?

Options:

A.

An organization that is able to provide goods and services society needs and thus maximizes profit to its owners.

B.

An organization that ensures compliance to legal frameworks of the countries in which it operates and sells its products.

C.

An organization that is willing to make contributions not mandated by law or economics and expects no payback.

D.

An organization that requires its decision makers to act with equity, fairness, and respect for the rights of individuals.

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Questions 74

A business unit manager was impressed by the competence of the internal auditor who was conducting an assurance engagement in his area and the manager made the auditor an attractive job offer to begin after the audit was completed The auditor later told her auditor in charge that she was considering the offer. Which of the following IIA Code of Ethics principles was most likely violated?

Options:

A.

Integrity

B.

Confidentiality

C.

Objectivity

D.

No violation was committed

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Questions 75

Which of the following factors are commonly assessed to determine the magnitude of risk events?

Options:

A.

Tolerance and appetite

B.

Inherent and residual risk

C.

Cost and benefit

D.

Impact and likelihood

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Questions 76

Which of the following is considered to be a threat to the internal auditor ' s objectivity?

Options:

A.

The auditor drafted the operational procedures of the area that she is currently auditing.

B.

The auditor received a bonus that was approved by the board of directors.

C.

The assigned auditor recommended operational procedures for the organization.

D.

The assigned auditor rotated out of the same business activity three years ago

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Questions 77

Which of the following activities would an internal auditor perform as a consulting engagement for an organization?

Options:

A.

Advising new internal auditors working for the organization on how to develop strategies on planning audits for the upcoming fiscal year

B.

Assessing whether the organization ' s corporate social responsibility program is meeting its yearly goals to reduce carbon emissions.

C.

Briefing the organization ' s department managers on how to implement risk management processes into their daily operations.

D.

Communicating with senior management to better understand how new purchasing controls will minimize payment processing time.

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Questions 78

Which of the following is an indicator that an organization ' s risk management processes are effective?

Options:

A.

Departmental objectives are managed by department heads and are independent of the organization ' s mission.

B.

Organization wide mechanisms exist to enable the identification and assessment of all significant risks.

C.

Department heads have the autonomy to determine risk responses that fall outside of the organizations risk appetite

D.

Relevant risk information is captured and communicated primarily between management and the board

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Questions 79

IT management requires all employees in the IT department to attend annual training on the department’s mission values and key performance measures This activity is designed to prevent which of the following conditions?

Options:

A.

Knowledge’s kills gap

B.

Monitoring gap

C.

Accountability/reward failure

D.

Communication failure

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Questions 80

During a monthly internal audit staff meeting, the chief audit executive (CAE) decided to reinforce the importance of internal audit staff being objective in their work. Which of the following examples would be most appropriate for the CAE to include as part of the meeting presentation?

Options:

A.

Statistical sampling techniques should always be used to pull unbiased sampling for testing.

B.

Fieldwork completed by internal auditors should be appropriately reviewed.

C.

Internal auditors should avoid using the lunch room simultaneously with audit clients.

D.

During the audit review period, there should be no nonaudit dialogues with the audit client.

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Questions 81

Which of the following is true regarding internal audit role ' s in The IIA ' s Three Lines Model?

Options:

A.

As internal control is part of risk management, the internal audit role in risk management implies reduced emphasis on internal control.

B.

Internal audit can blur the distinction between the second and the third lines as long as value is added.

C.

Internal audit cannot rely on other assurance providers when opining on the effectiveness of risk management.

D.

Internal audit should be aligned with first- and second-line functions through effective communication, cooperation, and collaboration.

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Questions 82

Which competency is required of all staff internal auditors prior to the commencement of an IT audit?

Options:

A.

The ability to assess IT governance.

B.

The ability to provide an explanation on the risk profile of the organization to the board and senior management.

C.

The ability to ensure that proposals for improvements to internal controls are balanced with organizational objectives and capabilities.

D.

The ability to assess the potential for fraud risk and identifying common types of fraud associated with the engagement.

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Questions 83

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is a required aspect of an internal audit charter?

Options:

A.

Management approval

B.

Independent review

C.

Reporting relationships

D.

Quarterly assessment

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Questions 84

According to NA guidance, which of the following practices by the chief audit executive (CAE) best enhances the organizational independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

CAE reviews and approves the annual audit plan,

B.

CAE meets privately with the CEO at least annually.

C.

CAE meets privately with the board at least annually,

D.

CAE reports to the board regarding audit staff performance evaluation and compensation.

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Questions 85

Which of the following is an example of a risk reduction strategy?

Options:

A.

Outsourcing the payroll function.

B.

Absorbing the cost of losses.

C.

Insuring fixed assets.

D.

Installing cameras around the plant

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Questions 86

Which of the following organizations is adopting an acceptance technique in terms of its risk response?

Options:

A.

An organization that takes no action in managing the possible exposure to an earthquake.

B.

An organization that opts out of investing in a new region due to volatility in foreign exchange rates.

C.

An organization that takes out insurance policies to protect its property and equipment.

D.

An organization that deploys policies and procedures to guide business activities and practices

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Questions 87

Which of the following situations undermines the independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity is responsible for the company ' s risk management function, and its head manager reports to the chief audit executive.

B.

A senior member of the internal audit activity once worked in the corporate finance department.

C.

The organization’s CEO reviews the internal audit activity’s annual budget per the organization’s policies and procedures.

D.

The internal audit activity often uses management ' s risk profile to build its own risk profile for annual planning.

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Questions 88

During an audit of an organization ' s accounts payable area, an internal auditor identified anomalies in the information examined that may indicate potential fraud. Which test should the auditor perform first to verify this?

Options:

A.

Verify the completeness and integrity of the data being analyzed.

B.

Identify duplicated organizational transactions.

C.

Analyze all transactions within the targeted area.

D.

Check control totals that have may have been falsified.

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Questions 89

Which of the following could increase risks to the organization’s control environment?

Options:

A.

Strong board of directors oversight.

B.

Incentive-based compensation structures.

C.

Lower than average employee turnover.

D.

Implementation of a fraud hotline.

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Questions 90

The internal audit activity is responsible for conducting fraud investigations. A potential fraud instance was identified during an audit engagement. The chief audit executive appoints a lead investigate. Which of the following would most likely be the next step?

Options:

A.

Ask internal auditors to gather all relevant information evidence

B.

Identify and interview witnesses first potential suspects later.

C.

Conduct a fraud risk assessment to the most vulnerable areas.

D.

Determine me competencies needed and assess whatever team members have a conflict of interest.

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Questions 91

Which of the following statements is true regarding the importance of risk management?

Options:

A.

Risk management ensures the ability to eliminate potential hazards to the organization.

B.

Risk management includes consideration of potential opportunities for the organization.

C.

Risk management aids with the establishment of appropriate key performance indicators.

D.

Risk management increases employees ' commitment and belief in strategic goals.

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Questions 92

An internal auditor has completed an assurance engagement. Which of the following is most likely true regarding the engagement?

Options:

A.

During audit planning the auditor provided the client with the scope of the engagement for their agreement

B.

The results of tie engagement were included m a written report mat was issued to the cleint who requested me engagement

C.

During audit planning the auditor determined that the engagement scope would include a review of the security and privacy of payroll records

D.

The client requested the review of a new payroll system in order to improve the security of fie system

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Questions 93

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is an appropriate role for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Coaching management in responding to risks.

B.

Implementing risk responses on management’s behalf.

C.

Imposing risk management processes.

D.

Setting the risk appetite.

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Questions 94

Once an organization ' s risks are identified, what would be the next step to ensure resources are properly allocated to manage those risks?

Options:

A.

Risk responses must be selected.

B.

Risks must be assessed.

C.

The risk universe must be established.

D.

Risk responses must be aligned.

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Questions 95

Which of the following is most likely to result in the impairment of independence for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) has a dual reporting relationship within the organization.

B.

The CAE performs an audit of a functional area that is also under the CAE ' s oversight.

C.

The CAE has unrestricted access to information throughout the organization and to the board.

D.

The board is involved in decisions to hire or remove the CAE and in drafting and approving an internal audit charter.

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Questions 96

An internal audit activity is taking steps to promote professional development among the staff, and is in the process of implementing a mentorship program. According to HA guidance, which of the following is important for a successful mentorship program?

Options:

A.

It is best if the mentor is the chief audit executive.

B.

Mentor meeting documentation should be retained in personnel files.

C.

It should target both new hires and highly experienced staff.

D.

Meetings with mentors should be formal and scheduled.

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Questions 97

What should be the first step for a newly hired chief audit executive to build and maintain the proficiency of the internal audit activity ' ?

Options:

A.

Incorporate the basic criteria of internal audit competency into job descriptions

B.

Complete a periodic skills assessment of the internal audit activity

C.

Develop a competency or skill assessment tool.

D.

Perform benchmarking with competitors to learn what other firms are doing related to this topic

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Questions 98

Which of the following would the chief audit executive be required to disclose in the communication of quality assessment results to senior management and the board?

Options:

A.

The cost and frequency of both internal and external assessments.

B.

Any assumptions made by the assessment team

C.

A potential conflict of interest of the assessment team.

D.

The assessment team’s execution plan of relevant procedures.

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Questions 99

Which of the following actions taken during an audit engagement is the best demonstration of an internal auditor ' s due professional care?

Options:

A.

Ensure that all financial information related to the engagement is included in the audit plan and examined for irregularities.

B.

Document all audit tests completely.

C.

Consider the possibility of noncompliance or irregularities at all times during an engagement.

D.

Notify the audit committee of any noncompliance or irregularity discovered during an engagement

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Questions 100

Which of the following is true regarding risk analysis?

Options:

A.

Impact and likelihood should be assessed together.

B.

Impact and likelihood should be given equal consideration by the internal auditor.

C.

Impact and likelihood should be measured using quantitative methods.

D.

Impact and likelihood should be used to determine risk response.

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Questions 101

Which of the following best demonstrates conformance with IIA standards related to continuing professional development?

Options:

A.

Retaining evidence of training in the form of continuing education credits

B.

Seeking guidance regarding internal audit best practices from The IIA

C.

Retaining supervisory reviews conducted on the basis of the development plan

D.

Giving consideration to certain areas of specialization as part of development planning

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Questions 102

Which of the following is a key determinant used by external auditors to decide whether they can rely on work performed by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The auditors ' independence.

B.

The auditors ' objectivity.

C.

The auditors ' integrity.

D.

The auditors ' confidentiality.

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Questions 103

A chief audit executive added more money to the IT training budget to ensure the organization ' s internal auditors were able to perform data analytics while performing an audit. Which core competency is being addressed?

Options:

A.

Data analytics

B.

IT fraud detection.

C.

Continuing professional development

D.

Due professional care.

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Questions 104

An organization is testing a new IT system for digital data storage and security. The internal audit activity has been asked to evaluate the system in a consulting engagement. Although several internal auditors on staff are qualified to perform basic assessments of IT systems, none are familiar with the new system. Which of the following is a legitimate response to the prospective client?

1. Decline the engagement.

2. Proceed with the engagement, performing only those parts of the engagement that the internal auditors are qualified to perform.

3. Accept the engagement and develop the additional competencies in-house prior to the engagement ' s starting date.

4. Make arrangements to obtain assistance from a competent IT auditing expert.

Options:

A.

1 and 4 only.

B.

2 and 3 only.

C.

1. 2, and 3 only.

D.

1, 3, and 4 only.

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Questions 105

The organization s procurement manager asks the internal auditor to deliver training to the procurement team on the organization’s third-party risk management process. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor should reject the request it she previously worked in the procurement area to maintain objectivity

B.

The internal auditor should reject the request if the internal audit team does not have the requisite expertise.

C.

The internal auditor should accept the request and in fact she may assume some management responsibilities temporarily if the result is a relevant training benefit

D.

The internal auditor may accept the request only if she defines the scope to ensure conformance with the Code of Ethics

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Questions 106

Management assessed the organization’s risk of expanding operations into a new, but volatile, region and began looking for a compatible local partner to manage sales and distribution. Which of the following best describes this risk management technique?

Options:

A.

Avoidance.

B.

Acceptance.

C.

Reduction.

D.

Sharing

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Questions 107

If the skills and competencies are not present within the internal audit activity to complete an ad-hoc assurance engagement, which of the following is an acceptable

resolution?

Options:

A.

Politely decline the engagement due to a lack of qualified staff available at the time.

B.

Complete the engagement as requested, with the best of the current staffs abilities.

C.

Consider using employees from other departments in the organization on the audit team.

D.

Change the scope of the testing to ensure that only available staff proficiencies are used

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Questions 108

What is the primary purpose of The IIA ' s Code of Ethics?

Options:

A.

Communicate specific activities appropriate to the performance of internal auditing

B.

Promote ethical culture within corporations and other business organizations

C.

Establish mandatory standards of competence for the practice of internal auditing

D.

Establish principles and expectations governing behavior of individuals and organizations in the conduct of internal auditing

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Questions 109

An organization is in the process of hiring a new chief audit executive (CAE). Which of the following can the potential candidates expect to be a part of the recruiting process or in place when the CAE is hired?

Options:

A.

There are checks to determine the existence of any potential conflict of interest.

B.

The CAE reports functionally to the highest level of management, the CEO.

C.

The CAE’s compensation depends on the performance of the organizational departments.

D.

Hiring and termination of the CAE is dependent on the decision of senior executives.

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Questions 110

Which of the following is an example of an impairment to an internal auditor ' s independence?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor delays reporting material financial statement audit findings until after his parents sell all of their stock in the company

B.

Following the restructuring of the organization, the internal audit activity now reports functionally to the chief financial officer

C.

A new member of the internal audit activity, who was the accounts payable supervisor for two years, is asked to consult on the implementation of a new accounts payable system

D.

Believing there must be errors in a given balance sheet account the internal auditor decides to expand his testing

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Questions 111

Upon completion of an external assessment as part of the quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP), the chief audit executive (CAE) reported the results to senior management and the board The CAE included the following elements in the report

- Qualifications and independence of me external assessment team

- Conclusions of assessors

- Corrective action plans

How should the CAE improve the aforementioned approach to reporting the resets of QAIP?

Options:

A.

Senior management should be excluded from the reporting as the QAiP results must be communicated to re board only

B.

The report can be streamlined by removing unnecessary information such as the qualifications and me independence of external assessors

C.

The results must be snared with the external a auditors as well, so they can determine the extent to which they can rely on me work of the internal audit activity

D.

The report should indicate that the external assessment must be performed at least once every five years

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Questions 112

During an assurance engagement an internal auditor discovered that risk limits risk limit were set for a new market expansion project Management of the area under review was eager to comply and submitted a potential risk limit value for the auditor ' s review and approval. Which of the following would be an appropriate course of action for the auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Review the submission and if no further remarks exist approve the risk limits

B.

Provide advice if needed and ask management of the area under review to forward to senior management and the board for approval

C.

Develop risk limit calculation criteria and ask management of the area under review to resubmit the values.

D.

Avoid providing any advice or review until the audit report is issued

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Questions 113

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding consulting engagements performed by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Consulting engagements typically involve four or five parties: the internal audit activity, engagement client, senior management, board, and sometimes the external auditor.

B.

The scope of a consulting engagement is determined by either the engagement supervisor or chief audit executive, and it is finalized prior to beginning fieldwork.

C.

According to the Standards, internal auditors are permitted to carry out certain management functions during a consulting engagement.

D.

A preliminary risk assessment may not be needed for consulting engagements, because the expectations and objectives of the engagement are determined by the engagement client.

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Questions 114

Which of the following survey questions would be most effective to identify ethics violations within the organization?

Options:

A.

Are the performance targets in your department realistic and attainable?

B.

Do your coworkers have the knowledge, skills, and training needed to perform their job duties?

C.

Does your supervisor comply with laws and regulations affecting the organization?

D.

Do you have sufficient resources, tools, and time to accomplish your work objectives?

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Questions 115

According to ISO 31000, which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

The board is responsible for setting the organizational attitude through tone at the top,

B.

The internal audit activity will provide assurance over operating effectiveness but not over the design of risk management activities,

C.

The internal audit activity can give objective assurance on any part of the risk management framework for which it is responsible.

D.

The framework is designed to be effective for organizations no matter how small.

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Questions 116

Which of the following is the best example of an ongoing independent monitoring activity?

Options:

A.

Management quality assurance activities

B.

Internal audit fraud prevention and detection activities

C.

Management and supervisory activities

D.

External audit quality assurance activities

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Questions 117

Which of the following best demonstrates conformance with the Standards relating to continuing professional development of internal auditors?

Options:

A.

Regulatory approval from an accrediting agency.

B.

Self-assessments against a competency framework.

C.

Approval and signoff from the board of directors.

D.

A review by external auditors on an annual basis

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Questions 118

Which of the following is (he most effective way any organization can ensure proper governance over its internal controls?

Options:

A.

By adopting the best practices of similar organizations in the industry.

B.

By adjusting their internal control framework as business practices evolve.

C.

By introducing the universally accepted COSO internal control framework.

D.

By encouraging the internal audit activity to provide training on internal controls.

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Questions 119

Which of the following is a legitimate requirement for an internal audit activity’s quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP)?

Options:

A.

Quality assessments should be performed by individuals with sufficient knowledge of the internal audit practices

B.

External quality assessments should be conducted every seven years

C.

All quality assessments should be either conducted or validated by an independent assessment team

D.

The results of the QAIP should be communicated to shareholders annually

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Questions 120

Prior to commencing a financial compliance engagement, the engagement supervisor reads the business plan for the finance department and meets informally with the director to learn more about any key issues. Which of the following competencies is the engagement supervisor demonstrating?

Options:

A.

The ability to inspire trust

B.

The ability to communicate effectively

C.

The ability to display courage

D.

The ability to understand the needs of stakeholders

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Questions 121

The chief audit executive (CAE) has hired a new internal auditor who was immediately assigned to a procurement function audit. Because the new auditor ' s name is similar to that of the procurement manager, some staff members think the two are related, although they are not. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Take no action, as there is no impairment to independence.

B.

Remove the new internal auditor from the engagement team.

C.

Discuss the matter with the appropriate personnel to alleviate concerns.

D.

Closely supervise the new auditor and carefully review his work.

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Questions 122

Which of the following is the most effective way for internal auditors to determine whether ethical values are followed throughout the organization?

Options:

A.

Review the organization ' s ethical value structure and reporting procedures.

B.

Review what the organization considers to be ethical behavior, such as the employee code of conduct.

C.

Review employee survey responses and follow up on those that suggest weaknesses in the ethical climate.

D.

Review the organization ' s records to ensure all employees have signed statements that they will follow ethical practices.

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Questions 123

Which of the following statements is true with regard to the quality assurance and improvement program (GAIP)?

Options:

A.

As the head of the organization, the CEO selects and appoints the external quality assessment team to perform the OAIP reviews.

B.

The chief audit executive determines the scope and frequency of both internal and external quality assessments based on the availability and capacity of resources in accordance with the annual internal audit plan.

C.

Minutes of meetings held with senior management and the board to discuss the scope and frequency of internal and external assessments support the OAIP reporting requirement.

D.

The internal audit activity needs to assess whether each engagement on the annual internal audit plan is conducted in conformance with the Standards.

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Questions 124

Which of the following would be most helpful to measure whether an internal audit activity successfully provides risk-based assurance?

Options:

A.

Percentage of highly significant risks covered by internal audit plan.

B.

Percentage of previously unknown risks identified per engagement.

C.

Percentage of internal audit staff skilled in alignment with the organization ' s structure and key risks.

D.

Percentage of observations made in assurance engagements compared to advisory engagements.

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Questions 125

Which of the following must be considered by the chief audit executive before writing the internal audit charter?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors ' level of competencies and skills.

B.

The manner in which the internal audit activity is viewed by the board.

C.

Evaluation of staff certifications and continued development.

D.

Effectiveness of the quality assurance and improvement program.

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Questions 126

An internal auditor in a busy internal audit activity reviews her continuing professional development records toward the end of the year and is concerned to find she has undertaken limited training and formal professional development. Which of the following actions is the most appropriate for her to take?

Options:

A.

Remind the chief audit executive (CAE) that he is responsible for her continuing professional development and needs to address the issue

B.

Contact her professional organization and explain that she does not need formal professional development, as she is being developed sufficiently through undertaking audit engagements.

C.

Accept that she is unlikely to meet continuing professional development requirements but look to attend training courses at the next available time.

D.

Accept that she is responsible for her own continuing professional development, develop a professional plan, and discuss it with the CAE.

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Questions 127

In which of the following ways can a whistleblower hotline serve as a prevent

Options:

A.

active control? 3

B.

Third parties who operate the hotline ensure anonymity for whistle blowers. D Whistleblower tips help discover wrongdoings and violations of the code of conduct.Potential perpetrators of fraud know that their actions can be reported easily.

C.

Better investigation protocols are triggered by the whistleblower hotline.

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Questions 128

Which of the following policies promotes internal audit objectivity?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) reports functionally to the CEO

B.

The CAE s compensation is approved by the chief financial officer

C.

The CAF ' s appointment is determined by the CEO

D.

The CAE reports administratively to the chief operating officer

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Questions 129

A snow removal company is conducting a scenario planning exercise where participating employees consider the potential impacts of a significant reduction in annual snowfall for the coming winter. Which of the following best describes this type of risk?

Options:

A.

Residual.

B.

Net.

C.

Inherent.

D.

Accepted.

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Questions 130

Which of the following threatens internal audit objectivity ' ?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors are expected by senior management to identify a minimum of five major control weaknesses in each area audited

B.

Internal auditors are prevented from accessing information necessary to undertake their audit engagements

C.

The chief audit executive reports directly to the chief financial officer who previously led the internal audit activity

D.

The CEO requests the internal audit activity develop a charter that clearly delineates its purpose and responsibilities within the organization

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Questions 131

Which of the following statements is correct regarding disclosure of conformance or Standards?

Options:

A.

An internal audit activity that has been in existence fewer than five years cannot Indicate that it is operating in conformance with the Standards because it has not yet undergone an external assessment.

B.

Once an external assessment validates conformance with the Standards, the internal audit activity may continue to use the statement until the next external assessment.

C.

If it has been more than five years since the last external assessment was conducted, the Internal audit activity must cease indicating that it operates in conformance with the Standards.

D.

The chief audit executive must disclose every instance of noncompliance with the Code of Ethics or the Standards.

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Questions 132

The board of directors of a global organization has found an increased number of reported cases of unethical practices since last year. To assist the board in gaining a better understanding of the degree of ethics awareness within the organization, which of the following actions should be undertaken?

Options:

A.

Request the internal audit activity to perform an ethics-related assurance engagement.

B.

Offer in-house ethics-related training seminars for employees to attend.

C.

Reaffirm the importance of the organization ' s code of ethics to all employees.

D.

Conduct an organizationwide employee survey on ethical practices

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Questions 133

Which documents would help a forensic auditor identify instances of collusion between an employee and vendor to defraud the organization?

Options:

A.

Email correspondence.

B.

Payment request forms.

C.

Vendor invoices.

D.

Bank statements.

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Questions 134

Senior management purchased surveillance cameras and installed them over a door that provides entry to an area where according to a recent internal audit report, hazardous materials exist and there is a high risk of explosion Which type of control was implemented in this situation?

Options:

A.

A corrective control

B.

A detective control

C.

A preventive control

D.

A directive control

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Questions 135

In a small organization, management is unable to achieve adequate segregation of duties for its cash-handling procedures Therefore hidden surveillance cameras were installed to monitor cash-handling activities Which of the following best describes this type of control?

Options:

A.

Corrective control

B.

Process-level control

C.

Compensating control

D.

Preventive control

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Questions 136

A new internal audit activity is considering the adoption of a risk and control framework. Which of the following is the most appropriate consideration during this process?

Options:

A.

The framework should not be developed by the internal audit activity

B.

The framework should apply to individual projects rather than the organization as a whole

C.

The framework should always be tailored to the organization

D.

The framework should require fewer resources to implement

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Questions 137

A chief audit executive (CAE) has just joined an organization with an existing internal audit activity. Based on her review of the current organizational structure, the CAE determines that the internal audit activity lacks adequate independence. Which of the following actions is the CAE ' s best step to take next to move the internal audit activity toward organizational independence?

Options:

A.

Ensure the limitations are disclosed through communication with the board and senior management, so that the internal audit activity can continue operating under the same organizational structure.

B.

Request that the board restructure the reporting line of the internal audit activity to ensure the CAE has unrestricted access to the board.

C.

Rotate internal audit assignments among members of the internal audit activity to minimize the effects of the current structure.

D.

Train internal auditors about organizational independence and have them sign an acknowledgment of understanding.

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Questions 138

When beginning an engagement to assess the effectiveness of the organization ' s newly revamped risk management processes, which of the following should internal auditors review first?

Options:

A.

Key risk disclosures in the annual report.

B.

Existing risk assessment and identification processes.

C.

Organizational strategy and business plans.

D.

Risk mitigation plans and risk responses.

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Questions 139

An automobile manufacturer will become one of the first in the industry to adopt a new inventory management software. Despite the system being new to the market, senior management believes that the benefits are great enough to offset the potential risks. Which of the following aspects of risk management does senior management’s decision best illustrate?

Options:

A.

Residual risk.

B.

Inherent risk.

C.

Risk tolerance.

D.

Risk appetite.

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Questions 140

Which of the following statements is true regarding external quality assessments?

Options:

A.

They can be performed by self-assessment with independent external validation, but they must be performed every three years.

B.

When a new chief audit executive (CAE) is appointed, an external quality assessment should be undertaken during the CAE’s first year of office.

C.

An external quality assessment must be conducted at least once every five years by a qualified, independent assessor or assessment team.

D.

An external assessment by a qualified professional from outside of the organization can be performed in place of an internal assessment.

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Questions 141

According to IIA guidance, which of the following activities would typically be examined when using the maturity model approach for assessing an organization ' s risk management program?

Options:

A.

Monitor and review

B.

Performance measurement.

C.

Setting the context.

D.

Communication.

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Questions 142

A chief audit executive (CAE) identifies that the internal audit activity lacks a necessary skill to perform a management request for a consulting engagement. According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate action the CAE should take regarding the request?

Options:

A.

Assign the engagement to a more senior internal auditor.

B.

Decline the engagement request.

C.

Allow the internal auditors to acquire the needed skills while performing the engagement.

D.

Supervise the assigned internal auditors throughout the engagement.

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Questions 143

Which of the following scenarios would most significantly restrict the areas where internal audit could perform assurance services?

Options:

A.

Regulators mandate specific audit engagements to be included in the audit plan.

B.

The internal audit activity reports functionally to the chief financial officer

C.

The internal audit activity reports administratively to the CEO and functionally to the audit committee.

D.

The internal audit activity reports administratively to the chief financial officer.

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Questions 144

Which of the following statements is true regarding a key difference between assurance and consulting services provided by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

When conducting a consulting engagement, the nature and scope of the engagement are determined by the internal audit activity.

B.

Three parties are participants in assurance services, while consulting engagements generally involve two parties.

C.

An assurance engagement has two participants, while consulting engagements generally involve three parties.

D.

When conducting an assurance engagement, the engagement objectives, scope, and techniques are agreed with the area under review.

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Questions 145

There is a growing perception that employees generally evade their responsibilities. What impact will an internal auditor most likely see during an engagement?

Options:

A.

Supervisors are likely to reduce their level of supervision and increase span of control.

B.

Employees are likely to be supervised closely and given little freedom.

C.

Peer employees are likely to trust one another, but distrust management.

D.

Employees are likely to join forces to accomplish their duties as teams.

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Questions 146

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding mentoring programs designed to assist internal auditors with their professional development?

Options:

A.

The mentor must have a higher position in the organization than the mentee

B.

An auditor s supervisor is best positioned to serve as the auditor ' s mentor

C.

Meetings between a mentor and a mentee should be formal and well documented

D.

Auditors at the same level may be assigned different mentors and some auditors may have no mentor

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Questions 147

How do assurance services and consulting services differ?

Options:

A.

There is less variety of consulting services that an internal audit activity might provide compared to assurance services

B.

Assurance services are limited to financial events or actions, and consulting services are not limited in this way

C.

Consulting services do not have to be included in the internal audit charter

D.

Other employees in an organization can provide consulting services but only an internal audit activity can provide assurance services

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Questions 148

An internal auditor extended the scope of testing for a disbursements engagement following a fraud risk assessment Despite the investment of additional audit resources no significant issues were found Unfortunately a major payment fraud was discovered several

months later According to IIA guidance which of the following statements is true regarding the internal auditor ' s application of due professional care?

Options:

A.

Due professional care was not applied because no additional work should have been performed unless there was actual evidence of fraud

B.

Due professional care was not applied because the extended scope resulted in no issues being identified, while fraud actually existed

C.

Due professional care was applied as the internal auditor modified the scope based on reasonable judgment, despite the additional cost of resources

D.

Due professional care was applied as the cost of audit resources should not be a determining factor in the degree of testing undertaken

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Questions 149

How should the internal audit activity promote continuous improvement of organizational controls?

Options:

A.

By assessing implementation of controls m individual processes during audit engagements

B.

By identifying the most significant business processes and designing effective controls for those processes

C.

By implementing an internationally accepted internal control framework across the organization

D.

By facilitating control self-assessment sessions for managers responsible for business processes

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Questions 150

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding proficiency?

Options:

A.

The globally accepted Certified Internal Auditor designation is mandatory at chief audit executive levels.

B.

Internal auditors are encouraged to obtain appropriate professional designations.

C.

Specialty designations are required for those who perform specialized audit and consulting work.

D.

Studies for professional designations are the preferred source of continuing professional education

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Questions 151

Which of the followIng would permit an internal audit activity to use the statement " conducted m conformance with the International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing m audit reports?

Options:

A.

The result of a quality assurance and improvement program confirm there are no material issues.

B.

Engagement workpapers are retained by the internet audit activity according to the retention and deletion policy.

C.

The internal audit activity receives positive feedback from the managers of the areas that were under review.

D.

internal auditors demonstrate proficiency by maintaining professional internal audit certifications

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Questions 152

According to IIA guidance, which of the following would the internal audit activity examine in order to evaluate the organization ' s governance process for strategic and operational decisions ' ?

Options:

A.

The risk assessment process including interviews with senior management.

B.

The organization’s mission and value statements, code of conduct, and whistleblowing policy

C.

Board meeting minutes the board policy manual, and past audit reports

D.

Staff compensation objective setting and the performance evaluation policy and process

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Questions 153

Which of the following is most important for an internal auditor to consider when developing an approach for an audit engagement in a foreign country?

Options:

A.

Currency exchange rates, as they relate to internal audit-related expenses.

B.

Differences in typical working hours, compared to other countries.

C.

The effects of subtle language nuances on translations.

D.

Accepted practices that may be illegal in other countries.

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Questions 154

An internal audit activity maintains a quality assurance and improvement program that includes annual self-assessments. The internal audit activity includes in each engagement report a clause that the engagement is conducted in conformance with the International! Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (Standards). Which of the following justifies inclusion of this clause in the reports?

Options:

A.

Internal audit activity policies and engagement records provide relevant, sufficient, and competent evidence that the statement is correct.

B.

The audit committee has reviewed the annual self-assessment results and approved the use of the clause.

C.

The self-assessment results were validated by a qualified external review team three years prior.

D.

The internal audit charter, approved by the audit committee, requires conformance with the Standards

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Questions 155

Which of the following is the primary engagement responsibility of an entry-level internal auditor?

Options:

A.

Leadership.

B.

Documentation.

C.

Analysis.

D.

Reporting.

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Questions 156

An organization established 20 years ago has had its internal audit activity in place for the last three years. Which of the following would allow the internal audit activity to accurately state that it is in conformance with the Standards ' ?

Options:

A.

Documented assessment was performed by the audit committee and confirmed conformance.

B.

Internal and external assessments are performed annually, and nonconformance results are reported to the board.

C.

The independent and objective judgement of the chief audit executive confirmed conformance with the Standards.

D.

Documented internal assessments are performed periodically and confirm conformance.

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Questions 157

An internal auditor believes that a weakness exists in the control environment relating to the delegation of authority and responsibility within the management structure. Which of the following actions should the internal auditor first consider in this matter?

Options:

A.

Recommend a control change and obtain management support

B.

Evaluate the potential impact on related controls

C.

Address the risk with senior management and the board

D.

Develop and communicate the scope and evaluation criteria to be used by management

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Questions 158

An organization employs ongoing monitoring and is considering implementing periodic evaluations to assess the continuing effectiveness of its risk management process. Which of the following statements Is true with regard to such periodic evaluations?

Options:

A.

Periodic evaluations are considered to be less objective than ongoing monitoring.

B.

Periodic evaluations can be more effective than ongoing monitoring.

C.

Periodic evaluation frequency may depend on the results of ongoing monitoring.

D.

Periodic evaluations frequently identify problems more quickly than ongoing monitoring.

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Questions 159

Internal controls belong to which risk response category?

Options:

A.

Reduction.

B.

Avoidance.

C.

Sharing.

D.

Acceptance.

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Questions 160

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate for a chief audit executive to include in the internal audit policy manual in order to promote objectivity?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors may conduct a financial effectiveness engagement in a business unit at any point after being transferred from that area.

B.

Internal auditors may conclude that a business unit ' s current control environment is adequate and effective if the review of the prior year ' s workpapers and audit report supports that conclusion.

C.

Internal auditors may conduct an engagement in a business unit at any point after providing a training workshop in that area.

D.

Internal auditors should limit the scope of an engagement if they become aware of a potential impairment of their objectivity in order to reduce the potential impact of the impairment on the engagement results.

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Questions 161

A chief audit executive (CAE) is considering hiring a candidate who most recently worked for a large public accounting firm What would be the CAE’s most likely concern regarding this candidate*?

Options:

A.

Low-level audit expertise

B.

Narrow industry experience

C.

MPotential conflict of interest

D.

Weak interpersonal skills

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Questions 162

Which of the following is the best reason why the engagement supervisor should take care in explaining to local management the criteria that will be used to measure the effectiveness of the control environment?

Options:

A.

The assessment will cover soft controls and company values.

B.

The assessment will focus on the policy for a particular process.

C.

The assessment will lack a defined scope

D.

The assessment will probably uncover fraud risks.

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Questions 163

An electric company hires several independent contractors to trim trees that are in close proximity to electricity lines. Which of the following would be the most effective control to mitigate the risk of contractors submitting fraudulent invoices regarding work completed?

Options:

A.

Require contractors to submit completed and signed work acceptance sheets

B.

Utilize unmanned drones to conduct regular flights and photo shoots over the areas where work is performed

C.

Reconcile invoices and work acceptance sheets submitted by contractors

D.

Compare actual payments to contractors with budgeted values and analyze discrepancies

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Questions 164

In which of the following audits would the internal auditors most likely contribute to the assessment of organizational governance?

Options:

A.

An assessment of compliance of individual data protection procedures with data protection regulations

B.

An assessment of profit and loss generated by financial assets and instruments in the past quarter

C.

An assessment of the effectiveness of back-up procedures and execution of business recovery plans

D.

An assessment of performance management practices and establishment of key performance indicators

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Questions 165

Which of the following engagements would be considered an appropriate consulting service?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity of a commercial bank routinely performs branch audits for compliance with regulations.

B.

The internal audit activity participates in a cosourcing arrangement with an IT audit firm to test information systems security.

C.

The internal audit activity facilitates biannual training of the risk management team in risk identification methodologies.

D.

The internal audit activity partners with external auditors annually to complete fieldwork required as a part of the external audit exercise.

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Questions 166

According to HA guidance, if an internal auditor suspects fraud during an assurance engagement, what should the auditor do first?

Options:

A.

Recommend parties involved to be sanctioned in accordance with the organization ' s policy.

B.

Determine whether any additional audit work needs to be performed.

C.

Launch an investigation to obtain details of the fraud and parties involved.

D.

Request that the responsible process owner remediate the issue immediately.

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Questions 167

With regard to governance, which of the following is a board-level responsibility rather than a management responsibility?

Options:

A.

Obtaining assurance on external financial, regulatory, and internal audits.

B.

Complying with laws, regulations, and codes.

C.

Assigning authority and responsibilities organization wide.

D.

Monitoring and measuring performance.

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Questions 168

According to IIA guidance, a new internal auditor is expected to possess which of the following competencies?

Options:

A.

Technical industry-specific expertise.

B.

Expertise in cybersecurity, an area of increasing risk.

C.

Knowledge of IT risks and controls.

D.

Knowledge of forensic accounting.

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Questions 169

The chief audit executive (CAE) is drafting the annual internal audit plan and seeks input from senior management and the external auditor prior to submitting it for approval to the board. According to MA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding this scenario?

Options:

A.

The CAE ' s actions are likely to impair the Independence of the internal audit activity.

B.

The CAE acted appropriately, and the independence of the internal audit activity was not impaired.

C.

The CAE should have developed the audit plan without outside influence to maintain objectivity.

D.

The CAE acted appropriately, as he has authority to determine who reviews and approves the audit plan.

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Questions 170

Which of the following relates to the concept of due professional care?

Options:

A.

An auditor attempts to obtain information needed to complete an assurance engagement but is denied access.

B.

The appointment of the chief audit executive is ratified by the board.

C.

An auditor demonstrates a good understanding of the steps involved in carrying out a consulting engagement.

D.

The internal audit resource plan is only approved by the chief financial officer.

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Questions 171

Which combination of strategies would provide the best evaluation of the effectiveness of the organization ' s risk assessment activity?

1. Interview staff at various levels to discuss the organization ' s objectives, significant risks, and risk appetite.

2. Review board meeting minutes to determine whether the significant risks identified are communicated timely to the board.

3. Evaluate the adequacy and timeliness of management remediation actions by reviewing the control design, testing the controls, and reviewing monitoring procedures.

4. Review the professional development plans of internal audit staff to ensure all are competent to assess the organization ' s risk assessment activity.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only.

B.

1.2, and 3 only.

C.

1.3. and 4 only.

D.

3 and 4 only.

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Questions 172

Which of the following documents are internal auditors most likely to be asked to sign as a demonstration of due professional care?

A description of their job responsibilities,

Options:

A.

A non-disclosure agreement.

B.

An annual declaration of commitment to

C.

The IIA s Code of Ethics.

D.

The internal audit charter.

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Questions 173

After the final audit report was issued, the engagement supervisor received an expensive gift from management recognizing her assistance in improving the business, if the gift is accepted, which of the following would be true?

Options:

A.

The engagement supervisor violated The IIA ' s Code of Ethics principle of integrity.

B.

The engagement supervisor violated The IIA ' s Code of Ethics principle of objectivity.

C.

The engagement supervisor violated The IIA’s Code of Ethics principle of confidentiality.

D.

The engagement supervisor did not violate any principles of The IIA’s Code of Ethics.

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Questions 174

Which of the following is a typical characteristic of an organization ' s risk management framework?

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance may or may not align with risk appetite depending on whether the assessment is quantitative or qualitative

B.

Risk is assessed on both an inherent and a residual basis

C.

The framework addresses four organizational objective categories strategic, historical, operational, and investment

D.

External risks and internal opportunities are omitted from the risk assessment scope

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Questions 175

During an audit of a foreign subsidiary an internal audit team discovered that products were sold to a prohibited country due to sanctions. What is the best course of action for the internal audit team?

Options:

A.

Include the facts m the engagement communications

B.

Inform me external auditors of the violation.

C.

Report the violation to the government regulators

D.

Consult with the legal department

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Questions 176

Which of the following is an example of risk monitoring to ensure a system is performing as intended?

Options:

A.

Checking the progress of risk treatment plans

B.

Considering the consequence and likelihood of risks

C.

Documenting the risks and their areas of impact

D.

Communicating to management about risks

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Questions 177

An experienced internal auditor is planning an assurance engagement of the organization ' s sales activities. During process walkthroughs and interviews, many sales representatives expressed concerns about management ' s escalating demands to meet the organization ' s sales goals. According to the MA guidance, which of the following is the best application of due professional care in planning the engagement?

Options:

A.

Disregard the complaints because the information isn ' t reliable and isn ' t sufficient to support engagement conclusions and results.

B.

Consider the significance of the risks related to the complaints and develop appropriate assurance procedures in work programs.

C.

Disregard the complaints because using them would violate the confidentiality principle.

D.

Discuss management ' s needs and expectations related to including the complaints in the audit scope.

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Questions 178

The internal audit activity completed its analysis of sample transactions to determine occurrences of double billings According to If A guidance, which of the following best demonstrates that internal auditors exercised due professional care during the review?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors found no instances of double billing and concluded there were no significant risks in this area.

B.

Internal auditors documented the scope and methodology of the data testing.

C.

Internal auditors discussed with management how data is safeguarded.

D.

Internal auditors received formal performance feedback from the engagement supervisor.

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Questions 179

Which of the following would be considered a primary control to reduce the risk associated with setting up duplicate vendors?

Options:

A.

Receipt of a signed and approved vendor setup form.

B.

Segregation of duties between setting up vendors and making vendor payments.

C.

System validation and edit checks on vendor identification number

D.

A vendor setup policy and procedure.

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Questions 180

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal controls?

Options:

A.

Strategic objectives are prerequisites to establishing internal controls.

B.

Internal controls eliminate process breakdowns caused by human errors.

C.

Well-established internal controls cannot be overridden.

D.

Robust internal controls ensure business success.

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Questions 181

Anew internal auditor suspects fraud is taking place. Which action should the new auditor take?

Options:

A.

Collect relevant audit evidence and begin working with management of the area to investigate the fraud.

B.

Inform the chief audit executive and meet with the suspect to determine whether the person committed fraud.

C.

Document supporting information and recommend an investigation to the appropriate audit management.

D.

Evaluate existing controls and implement new procedures to mitigate the opportunity for fraud.

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Questions 182

Which of the following best describes the internal audit activity ' s contribution to the implementation of the risk management framework?

Options:

A.

Internal audit identifies key risk areas during assurance reviews and provides audit findings.

B.

Internal audit assists with the prioritization of identified risks.

C.

Internal audit participates in setting the risk appetite.

D.

Internal audit takes part in the design of risk mitigation measures.

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Questions 183

The chief audit executive (CAE) decided to conduct a self-assessment with independent validation. Which of the following is the most likely reason the CAE selected this course of action?

Options:

A.

The audit committee requested the self assessment for quality assurance purposes

B.

The staff auditors have the necessary knowledge and experience to conduct the review

C.

The internal audit activity is relatively small in size and is due for an external assessment

D.

The internal audit activity is due for a self-assessment which is specifically required at least once every five years

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Questions 184

Which of the following is the best example of a risk appetite statement concerning an investment portfolio?

Options:

A.

We will request CEO approval for investments greater than S20 million and board approval for investments greater than $50 million.

B.

We will hedge 95 percent of our U S. currency exposure and 100 percent of our European currency exposure.

C.

We have a moderate tolerance for investment earnings volatility with a target value at risk of S50 million.

D.

We will report to the risk committee all credit losses greater than S10 million and all market value losses greater than S20 million.

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Questions 185

Which of the following most accurately describes the role of the board when it comes to organizational governance?

Options:

A.

Responsibility for outcome of the process.

B.

Responsibility to be involved in management of the organization.

C.

Responsibility to determine who is accountable for outcomes.

D.

Responsibility to identify risks in the organization’s business environment

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Questions 186

Which of the following options describes the reason that conformance with The IIA ' s Code of Ethics is mandatory for internal auditors?

Options:

A.

Ethical compliance provides the basis for stakeholder confidence in the competence of the internal audit activity and of professional internal auditors.

B.

Ethical compliance is necessary for internal auditors and the internal audit activity to accept responsibility for providing g absolute assurance about the organization ' s risk management.

C.

Ethical compliance provides the basis for stakeholder trust and confidence in the validity of the profession of internal auditing and the internal audit activity ' s findings.

D.

The internal audit activity ' s ethical compliance sets the tone for the ethical compliance by the organization ' s board, management, and employees.

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Questions 187

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is ultimately responsible for seeing that the internal control system of an organization’s social responsibility program is effective?

Options:

A.

Senior management

B.

Internal audit activity.

C.

All employees.

D.

Board of directors.

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Questions 188

An engagement supervisor notes that an internal auditor usually documents and submits draft audit reports for review without giving the process owners the opportunity to state their position on the issues raised. How should the engagement supervisor respond?

Options:

A.

Encourage the auditor to continue this practice, as it demonstrates objectivity.

B.

Encourage the auditor to improve communication skills.

C.

Encourage the auditor to conduct post-engagement surveys to obtain the audit client ' s position on the issues raised.

D.

Encourage the auditor to sign the draft reports before submitting them.

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Questions 189

According to the Standards, which of the following demonstrates the proficiency of an internal auditor?

Options:

A.

Each internal auditor must hold one or more certifications in the area of fraud and seek out continuing professional development related to fraud detection and fraud investigation.

B.

Each internal auditor must have sufficient knowledge of IT risks and controls, and be able to evaluate the risk of fraud and the manner in which it is managed by the organization.

C.

Each internal auditor on the engagement team must possess the same level of knowledge, skills, and other competencies as other auditors on the engagement team.

D.

Each internal auditor must be paired, by the chief audit executive, with an individual who possesses the knowledge, skills, or other competencies required to complete the audit.

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Questions 190

Which of the following statements is true regarding the quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP)?

Options:

A.

Reporting on the QAIP to the board should occur at least once every five years

B.

The responsibility for the selection of an external assessor rests with the board

C.

The qualifications of the assessors must be communicated to the board

D.

The reporting of outcomes of the QAIP can be delegated to senior audit staff

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Questions 191

An external assessment was performed as part of the organization ' s quality assurance and improvement program. Which of the following conclusions confirms that the internal audit activity is in conformance with the Standards ' ?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive is well qualified and has responsibilities over operational areas that the internal audit activity assesses.

B.

Periodic self-assessments are assigned to entry-level internal audit staff to support their continuing professional development.

C.

All audit workpapers are reviewed and signed by the engagement supervisor before the audit report is issued.

D.

Employees who rotate into the internal audit activity from other areas of the organization are assigned to audit areas where they previously worked, to take advantage of their operational expertise and experience.

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Questions 192

Which of the following items related to the quality assurance and improvement program should the chief audit executive report to the board?

Options:

A.

Ongoing monitoring results

B.

Periodic management assessment results

C.

Annual risk assessment results

D.

Internal auditors ' training evaluation results

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Questions 193

The organization ' s chief audit executive (CAE) is planning an immediate assurance engagement following several product recalls. However, the internal audit staff does not have the required Knowledge and experience to adequately assess all the relevant processes and procedures. According to 11A guidance, which of the following actions should the CAE take under these circumstances?

Options:

A.

Use the current available resources to conduct the review and exclude those procedures that can ' t currently be performed.

B.

Implement an accelerated training plan to provide the audit staff with the necessary skills and knowledge to conduct the engagement.

C.

Encourage management to accept the assessed risk until the internal audit activity is able to adequately review the area.

D.

Obtain assistance for the audit team from other internal assurance providers who possess the requisite expertise in the area.

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Questions 194

In an environment where employees are frequently penalized for mistakes and the organizational culture is one of fear and blame which of the following is an internal auditor most likely to find?

Options:

A.

Management regularly overrides key controls

B.

Employee turnover is tow

C.

Careless behavior becomes normal

D.

Employee morale is low

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Questions 195

According to NA guidance, which of the following is true regarding typical fraud schemes?

1. A diversion occurs when an employee has an undisclosed personal economic interest in a transaction that adversely affects

the organization.

2. Tax evasion is intentional reporting of false or misleading information on a tax return by an organization to reduce taxes owed.

3. Skimming involves stealing cash or assets from the organization and is normally concealed by adjusting the organization’s

records.

4, Disbursement fraud occurs when a person causes the organization to issue a payment for fictitious goods or services.

Options:

A.

1 and 3.B.

B.

1 and 4.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

2 and 4.

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Questions 196

Which of the following practices is generally most effective to protect internal audit objectivity?

Options:

A.

Ensuring regular documentation of auditor skills and experience in the workpapers.

B.

Basing performance evaluations heavily on customer satisfaction surveys.

C.

Prohibiting auditors from accepting gifts from audit clients or potential clients.

D.

Ensuring that auditors have a balance of both operational and internal audit responsibilities.

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Questions 197

Which of the following actions is a chief audit executive most likely to take in order to identify gaps in the internal audit activity’s knowledge, skills, and competencies?

Options:

A.

Complete a skills assessment of the internal audit activity based on. The IIA Global Internal Audit Competency Framework.

B.

Develop a competency assessment tool for the internal audit activity based on The IIA Global Internal Audit Competency Framework.

C.

Incorporate the basic criteria for competency of the internal audit activity into the job descriptions of potential internal auditors,

D.

Develop an internal audit activity plan for training internal auditors to perform required assurance and consulting activities.

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Questions 198

Which of the following is an indicator that the organization ' s risk management process is effective?

Options:

A.

The organization ' s risk appetite, mission, and objectives are clearly outlined.

B.

The organization ' s risk management practices are assessed as mature.

C.

The organization has adopted risk management frameworks and global models.

D.

The organization ' s significant risks are identified and adequately assessed.

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Questions 199

During the planning stage of an assurance engagement, a payroll clerk informed the internal auditor that he is often asked to add new employees to the payroll without any formal new-hire documentation from human resources. The auditor is concerned that this increases the risk for fraud. To complete engagement planning, which of the following is the most appropriate next step for the auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Increase the sample size to be tested, ensuring a thorough review of the payroll records.

B.

Advise the chief audit executive of the clerk ' s assertion, despite the lack of supporting evidence.

C.

Ask the clerk to provide a list of any suspicious new employee names on the payroll.

D.

Investigate the matter further to understand precisely how many payroll records were affected.

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Questions 200

An internal audit activity is performing a governance engagement. Which of the following would provide the best evidence for an internal auditor when evaluating the organization’s culture?

Options:

A.

Personnel and customer surveys, actual reports, and due diligence results regarding third-party governance practices.

B.

Details on mandatory reporting to third parties, disclosure committee charter and responsibilities, and the internal communication system.

C.

Succession plans, development programs, and job descriptions with responsibilities and authorities.

D.

Ethics and integrity policy; structured interviews with employees; and established and communicated values, mission, and vision.

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Questions 201

The head of human resources notified the internal audit activity that a key account manager was fired because he did not register a large number of contracts with clients As a result the organization was unaware of its duties and would suffer some financial loss Which of the following should be expected from a competent internal auditor who is analyzing this situation?

Options:

A.

The ability to apply forensic methods to obtain legally admissible evidence

B.

The ability to conduct admission-seeking interviews with potential suspects

C.

The ability to evaluate whether such attributes as intent and personal gain were present

D.

The ability to retrieve concealed or deleted information from the former employee ' s laptop

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Questions 202

An internal auditor found that his organization did not make a disclosure that is required by law. However, the auditor decided not to raise an audit finding. Which of the following Code of Ethics principles was violated?

Options:

A.

Objectivity.

B.

Integrity.

C.

Proficiency.

D.

Confidentiality.

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Questions 203

Which of the following statements is most likely to be true regarding a consulting engagement involving an organization ' s new payroll system?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor and engagement client established an understanding that the scope would include the new payroll system project.

B.

The payroll system engagement was scheduled as a result of internal audit ' s risk-based annual planning process.

C.

The internal auditor concluded that the engagement objectives would include assessing the effectiveness of the payroll process controls.

D.

The internal auditor acknowledged the engagement client’s satisfactory performance in the final engagement results that were communicated to senior management and the board.

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Questions 204

The level of authority for the internal audit activity is granted by which of the following?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive.

B.

The internal audit charter.

C.

The International Professional Practices Framework.

D.

The IIA ' s Code of Ethics.

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Questions 205

When performing an audit of the risk management process an auditor makes the observations listed below. Which poses the greatest risk to the organization?

Options:

A.

The identified risks have not undergone a detailed review to ensure completeness in the past two years.

B.

The controls in place to mitigate the risks are not tested on an annual basis to confirm operating effectiveness.

C.

The process in place to identify and evaluate new risks to the organization is informal and poorly documented.

D.

The identified risks have not been ranked to establish their importance and risk management priority.

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Questions 206

The collaborating style for conflict resolution, where the parties promote assertiveness and work together to develop a mutually beneficial solution, is best used in which of the following situations?

Options:

A.

Parties are confident of the solution and are ready to defend it.

B.

There is a high level of trust among the parties.

C.

Resolution is time sensitive and a quick decision is necessary.

D.

The issue is more important to one patty than the others.

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Questions 207

The internal audit activity is undergoing a self-assessment as part of its quality assurance and improvement program Which of the following observations must be addressed in order for the internal audit activity to achieve conformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

The internal audit charter does not identify which audit services are outsourced

B.

The internal audit charter has not been reviewed by the legal department

C.

The internal audit charter has not been approved by the board within the past year

D.

The internal audit charter does not describe the authority of the internal audit activity

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Questions 208

When taken by a chief audit executive, which of the following actions would be most likely to prevent division management from exaggerating sales reports?

1. Announcing a series of internal audit engagements focusing on compliance with corporate sales-reporting policies.

2. Asking the president and the board to issue a statement of corporate policy stressing the importance of accurate management

reporting and the negative consequences of intentional misreporting.

3. Setting up a hotline for employees to report fraudulent behavior anonymously,

4. Assisting the controller in developing and monitoring a series of business process indicators, which are historically correlated with, but independent of sales.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only.

B.

2 and 3 only.

C.

2 and 4 only.

D.

3 and 4 only

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Questions 209

An internal auditor is providing consulting services on an area he was responsible for three years ago. Part of the consulting scope covers a review of a performance measuring system that the auditor helped to develop. What is the best course of action for the auditor to take concerning the consulting service?

Options:

A.

Accept the consulting services only after receiving approval to do so from the board.

B.

Accept the consulting services. The objectivity won ' t be impaired if it has been more than a year since he last worked in the area under review.

C.

Refrain from providing the consulting service because he was responsible for that area and his objectivity will be impaired,

D.

Disclose the potential impairment to the customer before accepting the consulting engagement

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Questions 210

Which of the following situations would best indicate to the chief audit executive that one of the audit team members is struggling with application of due professional care?

Options:

A.

The engagement supervisor requests that an auditor carry out improvements to workpapers to address numerous problems: evidence is missing, references are incorrect, and conclusions are superfluous

B.

Audit work was completed m accordance with the established goals; however, a material misstatement was later uncovered in the audited area by another assurance provider.

C.

According to the audit report, several control failures occurred due to irresponsible behavior of local management, who was consequently deprived of bonuses and wrote a negative feedback to the auditor

D.

The delivery of audit results was several weeks late because the internal auditor had to spend additional time trying to understand the nature of certain transactions with derivation.

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Questions 211

An internal auditor performed a risk assessment and concluded that the controls over access privileges to a bank account were appropriate. Later, the auditor learned that a contractor was using a shared password provided by an authorized user of the account. Which of the following statements best describes the auditor ' s application of due professional care?

Options:

A.

Due professional care was exercised, despite the auditor’s failure to identify the significant risk.

B.

Due professional care was not exercised because the auditor failed to identify all the significant risks during the risk assessment.

C.

Due professional care was not exercised because the residual risk from the possibility of authorized users sharing their passwords was not considered.

D.

Due professional care was not exercised because the auditor failed to conduct interviews to obtain testimonial evidence of possible password sharing

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Questions 212

At what point in time can an organization conclude that the established organizational governance framework was correctly implemented?

Options:

A.

When the internal auditor conducts observations and fieldwork.

B.

When management completes the risk assessment.

C.

When the internal auditor evaluation shows its soundness.

D.

When the organization ' s goals and objectives are met.

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Questions 213

During an assurance engagement, an internal auditor uses benchmarking research to support preparation of a report to stakeholders that contains significant findings about control deficiencies. Which of the following skills did the auditor demonstrate?

Options:

A.

Internal audit management.

B.

Conflict negotiation.

C.

Critical thinking.

D.

Persuasion and collaboration.

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Questions 214

Nine months ago, an employee who was responsible for collections in the accounts receivables department joined the internal audit team. There is an accounts receivables assurance audit scheduled as part of this year ' s approved audit plan, which will include a review of the collections unit. With the knowledge and experience of this individual in the area, which of the following is the best approach for the chief audit executive (CAE) to take?

Options:

A.

Have the auditor formerly with the collections unit assist with planning and documenting the audit field work.

B.

Have the auditor formerly with the collections unit not participate on the audit team.

C.

Have the auditor formerly with the collections unit conduct the fieldwork and ensure it is reviewed by the CAE.

D.

Have the auditor formerly with the collections unit review all fieldwork done to ensure that there was adequate coverage.

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Questions 215

Which of the following is true about corporate social responsibility (CSR)?

Options:

A.

Social and environmental considerations are required parts of an organization ' s decision making

B.

The Global Reporting Initiative provides standards on required disclosures of CSR.

C.

CSR activities are overseen and managed by operational management.

D.

Internal auditors can provide assurance on reported sustainability results.

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Questions 216

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true of assurance services provided by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors cannot assess an operation for which they were responsible within the previous year.

B.

Management of the area under review must agree with the engagement objectives, scope, and techniques.

C.

The engagement results will vary in form and content depending upon the needs and wishes of the engagement client.

D.

The only parties involved in the engagement are the internal auditor and management of the area under review.

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Questions 217

For a new board chair who has not previously served on the organization ' s board, which of the following steps should first be undertaken to ensure effective leadership to the board?

Options:

A.

Chair should learn the current organizational culture of the company.

B.

Chair should learn the current risk management system of the company.

C.

Chair should determine the appropriateness of the current strategic risks.

D.

Chair should gain an understanding of the needs of key stakeholders.

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Questions 218

Which of the following types of fraud tests would be most effective if an internal auditor was looking for possible fictitious vendors?

Options:

A.

Checking for invoice amounts that do not match that of the purchase order.

B.

Searching for identical invoice numbers and payment amounts.

C.

Running checks to uncover post office box addresses matching employee addresses.

D.

Comparing prices across vendors to see whether one vendor is unreasonably high.

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Questions 219

An audit client who was unsatisfied with the audit report rating called the chief audit executive (CAE) and complained that the internal auditor who performed the audit was biased because his spouse, who worked in the area under review, was on a list of employees to be terminated. Which of the following measures would be most appropriate to prevent this situation from arising?

Options:

A.

Initiating an internal investigation to clarify whether a biased judgment took place.

B.

Requiring the internal auditors to disclose any potential conflicts of interest.

C.

Requiring that the audit client disclose any potential conflicts of interest with the auditor.

D.

Requiring human resources manager to submit all future job applicants ' data in order to identify relatives of auditors.

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Questions 220

Which of the following best illustrates the principle of due professional care?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity uses key performance indicators for all staff members after all audit engagements.

B.

The internal auditors provide assurance to third parties indicating that their work was properly supervised.

C.

The internal auditors demonstrate they have an understanding of engagement objectives and scope.

D.

The internal auditors are heavily involved in training and development to enhance their skills.

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Exam Code: IIA-CIA-Part1
Exam Name: Internal Audit Fundamentals
Last Update: Jul 28, 2026
Questions: 735

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