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IIA-CIA-Part2 Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following types of policies best helps promote objectivity in the internal audit activity’s work?

Options:

A.

Policies that are distributed to all members of the internal audit activity and require a signed acknowledgment.

B.

Policies that match internal auditors ' performance with feedback from management of the area under review

C.

Policies that keep internal auditors in areas where they have vast audit expertise.

D.

Policies that provide examples of Inappropriate business relationships

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Questions 5

Which of the following would offer the strongest evidence to support the internal auditor ' s conclusion that a product is in stock, as stated in the accounting records?

Options:

A.

The auditor performs an observation.

B.

The vendor provides third-party confirmation.

C.

The auditor documents interviews with multiple warehouse personnel.

D.

Warehouse management submits photographs of the product on the inventory shelf.

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Questions 6

In a small internal audit function, a single auditor is responsible for conducting the entire audit engagement. In this situation, what is the benefit of using a checklist as part of an engagement work program?

Options:

A.

Allocation of tasks and responsibilities within the team.

B.

Facilitation of review by business representatives involved.

C.

Overview of results from previous audits.

D.

Retention of an audit trail regarding completion of tasks.

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Questions 7

Due to price risk from the foreign currency purchase of aviation fuel, an airliner has purchased forward contracts to hedge against fluctuations in the exchange rate. When recalculating the exchange losses from individual purchases of jet fuel, which of the following details does the internal auditor need to validate?

1. The hedge documentation designating the hedge.

2. The spot exchange rate on the transaction date.

3. The terms of the forward contract.

4. The amount of fuel purchased.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

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Questions 8

Which of the following would be the most helpful to a chief audit executive when developing a talent management strategy?

Options:

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Staff preferences

C.

Maturity analysis

D.

Extent of external audit coverage

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Questions 9

Which of the following internal audit procedures commonly involves sampling?

Options:

A.

Confirmation and financial statement analysis

B.

Reperformance and inspection

C.

Vouching and tracing

D.

Trend analysis and benchmarking

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Questions 10

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal auditors and other assurance providers?

Options:

A.

Assurance providers who report to management and/or are part of management cannot provide control serf-assessments services

B.

Internal auditors should always reperform and validate audit work completed by external assurance providers

C.

Internal auditors may rely on the work of internal compliance teams to expand their coverage of the organization without increasing direct audit

D.

hours Internal auditors can rely on the work of other assurance providers only rf the other assurance providers report directly to the board

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Questions 11

Which of the blowing is an example of a compliance assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Proving in-house training to senior management regarding applicable laws and regulations

B.

Proving an assessment of the design adequacy of controls related to consumer privacy and confidentially.

C.

Providing an assessment of customer satisfaction with customer service provided by the organization

D.

Providing testing on the operating effectiveness of controls ever the reliability of financial reporting

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Questions 12

Which of the following could increase risks to the organization’s control environment?

Options:

A.

Strong board of directors oversight.

B.

Incentive-based compensation structures

C.

Lower than average employee turnover.

D.

Implementation of a fraud hotline

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Questions 13

An organization recently acquired a subsidiary in a new industry, and management asked the chief audit executive (CAE) to perform a comprehensive audit of the subsidiary prior to recommencing operations The CAE is unsure her team has the necessary skills and knowledge to accept the engagement According to IIAguidance, which of the following responses by the CAE would be most appropriate?

Options:

A.

The CAE should accept the engagement and ensure that an explanation of the expertise limitations is included in the final audit report.

B.

The CAE should ask management to hire an external expert who is familiar with the industry to perform an independent audit for management

C.

The CAE should accept the engagement and hire an external expert to assist the audit team with the audit of the subsidiary

D.

The CAE should recommend postponing the engagement until the internal audit team is able to develop sufficient knowledge of the new industry

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Questions 14

The head of customer service asked the chief audit executive (CAE) whether internal auditors could assist her staff with conducting a risk self-assessment in the customer service department The CAE promised to meet with customer service managers analyze relevant business processes and come up with a proposal Who is most likely to be the final approver of the engagement objectives and scope?

Options:

A.

Senior management of the organization

B.

The chief audit executive

C.

The head of customer service

D.

The board of directors

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Questions 15

The audit manager asked the internal auditor to perform additional testing because several irregularities were found in the financial information. Which of the following would be the most appropriate analytical review for the auditor to perform?

Options:

A.

Compare the firm ' s financial performance with organizations in the same industry

B.

Interview all managers involved in preparing the financial statements

C.

Perform a bank reconciliation to confirm the cash balance in the financial statements.

D.

Trace each financial transaction to the original supporting document

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Questions 16

According to IIA guidance, which of re following actions should the internal auditor take immediately after having considered fraud scenarios and identified and prioritized fraud risks?

Options:

A.

Determine which controls if any are in place to mitigate the fraud risks

B.

Follow protocol for internal reporting and investigating fraud allegations

C.

Research frauds that nave occurred t\ similar organizations

D.

Incorporate the fraud risk assessment into the engagement plan

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Questions 17

Which of the following actions are appropriate for the chief audit executive to perform when identifying audit resource requirements?

1. Consider employees from other operational areas as audit resources, to provide additional audit coverage in the organization.

2. Approach an external service provider to conduct internal audits on certain areas of the organization, due to a lack of skills in the organization.

3. Suggest to the audit committee that an audit of technology be deferred until staff can be trained, due to limited IT audit skills among the audit staff.

4. Communicate to senior management a summary report on the status and adequacy of audit resources.

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Questions 18

Which of the following is the primary weakness of internal control questionnaires (ICQs)?

Options:

A.

ICQs do not allow for open-ended questions.

B.

ICQs do not allow for evaluating multiple locations.

C.

ICQs require significant auditor follow-up, as different managers may give different responses.

D.

ICQ respondents have incentives to answer that there are internal controls in place.

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Questions 19

Which of the following best demonstrates internal auditors performing their work with proficiency?

Options:

A.

internal auditors meet with operational management at each phase of the audit process.

B.

Internal auditors adhere to The IIA ' s Code of Ethics.

C.

Internal auditors work collaboratively with their engagement team.

D.

Internal auditors complete a program of continuing professional development.

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Questions 20

Which of the following is the best option for the chief audit executive to consider for effective coordination of assurance coverage?

Options:

A.

Create an assurance map to illustrate each provider ' s level of assurance and planned activities for each area of the organization

B.

LIMIT© ricks inventory to identify the risks and controls in place and the relevant control owners.

C.

Rely on the risk and control and management testing information maintained for compliance with the regulatory framework

D.

Prepare a risk likelihood and impact heal map to prioritize assurance coverage coordination.

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Questions 21

An internal auditor observes a double payment transaction on a supplier invoice during an accounts payable engagement. Which of the following steps would be the most effective in helping the auditor determine whether fraud exists?

Options:

A.

Switch the existing assurance engagement into a fraud investigation engagement

B.

Extend the audit scope and perform additional testing of controls on other related areas

C.

Review the poor year ' s transaction volume and amounts paid compared to the poor year ' s budget

D.

Perform data analytics on the supplier ' s information, invoiced amounts, and payments performed

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Questions 22

At the conclusion of a quality assurance review, the chief audit executive (CAE) was informed that several audits included incomplete workpapers, and some workpapers were not completed within the established timeframe. How should the CAE address the issue of incomplete workpapers?

Options:

A.

Delete incomplete workpapers from the audit folder.

B.

Establish a task force to complete workpapers for audits that are contested.

C.

Develop guidelines and procedures for completing workpapers.

D.

Verify that the workpapers that support audit findings are complete; if so, no further action is required.

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Questions 23

The board of directors of a global organization has found an increased number of reported cases of unethical practices since last year. To assist the board in gaining a better understanding of the degree of ethics awareness within the organization, which of the following actions should be undertaken?

Options:

A.

Request the internal audit activity to perform an ethics-related assurance engagement.

B.

Offer in-house ethics-related training seminars for employees to attend

C.

Reaffirm the importance of the organization ' s code of ethics to all employees

D.

Conduct an organization wide employee survey on ethical practices.

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Questions 24

In which of following scenarios is the internal auditor performing benchmarking?

Options:

A.

The auditor compares information from one period with the same information from the poor period

B.

The auditor compares new information to his general knowledge of the organization

C.

The auditor compares information he collected with simmer information from another source

D.

The auditor compares expected outcomes with actual results

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Questions 25

Which of the following best describes the internal audit activity ' s responsibility within a risk and control framework?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity constitutes the first line of defense in effective risk management.

B.

The internal audit activity provides direction regarding internal controls implementation.

C.

The internal audit activity verifies that management has met its responsibility for implementing effective controls.

D.

The internal audit activity implements the internal control framework and advises management regarding best practices

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Questions 26

During an audit of the accounts payable process, an internal auditor was assigned to confirm the quantity of goods received on receiving documents to invoices for those goods and subsequent postings in the accounting system. Which of the following procedures would be most appropriate for this test?

Options:

A.

Independent confirmation

B.

Tracing

C.

Vouching

D.

Reperformance

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Questions 27

An internal auditor has been asked to join a project team to help design controls in a software application to address specific risks that have been identified by the team Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the internal auditor to perform?

Options:

A.

Facilitate a control assessment to ensure all application risks were appropriately identified

B.

Advise the project team on how to develop effective controls

C.

Direct the project team to implement the appropriate controls within the software application

D.

Provide assurance that the design of the controls will mitigate the identified application risks

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Questions 28

Which of the following is an inherent risk of issuing an opinion on the overall effectiveness of internal control?

Options:

A.

The results of individual engagements do not support a satisfactory opinion on the effectiveness of internal control.

B.

The results of the individual engagements do not support a positive assurance opinion on the effectiveness of internal control

C.

The audit risk and associated legal implications increase

D.

The reliance on other assurance providers increases

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Questions 29

During follow-up. the internal auditor discovered that operational management did not implement effective actions to address a significant control breach If the issue is left unresolved it may result in regulatory sanctions and damage the organization ' s reputation What is the most appropriate next step for the chief audit executive to lake?

Options:

A.

Report the matter to the board

B.

Implement the recommended control to address the exposure

C.

Discuss the matter with senior management

D.

Ask the regulatory agency to persuade management to address the issue

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Questions 30

The internal audit manager has been delegated the task of preparing the annual internal audit plan for the forthcoming fiscal year All engagements should be appropriately categorized and presented to the chief audit executive for review Which of the following would most likely be classified as a consulting engagement?

Options:

A.

Evaluating procurement department process effectiveness

B.

Helping in the design of the risk management program

C.

Assessing financial reporting control adequacy

D.

Reviewing environmental, social, and governance reporting compliance

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Questions 31

What type of audit engagement would be the most appropriate to determine how an organization could be more profitable in the long term?

Options:

A.

Operational audit

B.

Compliance and financial audit

C.

Performance audit

D.

Quality audit

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Questions 32

What is the primary reason that audit supervision includes approval of the engagement report?

Options:

A.

To ensure the objectives of the area under review are met.

B.

To ensure senior management supports the report ' s conclusions.

C.

To ensure report style and grammar are appropriate.

D.

To ensure report findings are substantiated.

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Questions 33

According to IIA guidance, organizations have the most influence on which element of fraud?

Options:

A.

Opportunity.

B.

Rationalization.

C.

Pressure.

D.

Incentives.

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Questions 34

The external auditor has identified a number of production process control deficiencies involving several departments. As a result, senior management has asked the internal audit activity to complete internal control training for all related staff. According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be the most appropriate course of action for the chief audit executive to follow?

Options:

A.

Refuse to accept the consulting engagement because it would be a violation of independence.

B.

Collaborate with the external auditor to ensure the most efficient use of resources.

C.

Accept the engagement but hire an external training specialist to provide the necessary expertise.

D.

Accept the engagement even if the audit engagement staff was previously responsible for operational areas being trained.

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Questions 35

An internal auditor is conducting a financial audit. Which of the following audit procedures is most appropriate when existing internal controls are weak?

Options:

A.

Analytical procedures.

B.

Detail testing.

C.

Test of design.

D.

Test of control.

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Questions 36

Which is the most appropriate evaluation criterion regarding the quality of audit engagement workpapers?

Options:

A.

Every workpaper should provide reasonable evidence of work conducted.

B.

Every workpaper should result in appropriately worded audit findings.

C.

Every workpaper should include a conclusion regarding the likelihood of fraud.

D.

Every workpaper should be approved by the engagement client.

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Questions 37

After concluding a preliminary assessment, the engagement supervisor prepared a draft work program According to HA guidance which of the following would be tested by this program?

Options:

A.

The process objectives.

B.

The process risks

C.

The process controls

D.

The process scope

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Questions 38

Which of the following sources of testimonial evidence would be considered the most reliable regarding whether a process is effectively performed according to its design?

Options:

A.

The person responsible for performing the task

B.

Two or more people that work in the area

C.

The supervisor in charge of the process

D.

The manager that wrote the steps to be followed

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Questions 39

Acceding to MA guidance, when of the Mowing strategies would like provide the most assurance to the chief audit executive (CAE) that the internal audit activity ' s recommendations are being acted upon?

Options:

A.

The CAF obtains a formal response from senior management regarding the corrective actions they plan to take w address the recommendations.

B.

The CAE develops a tracking system to monitor the stains of engagement recommendations reported to management for action

C.

The CAE communicates with impacted department managers to determine whether corrective actions have addressed engagement recommendations

D.

The CAE works with the engagement supervisor to monitor the recommendations issued to management for corrective action

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Questions 40

Which requirement should the chief audit executive consider when communicating results of the quality assurance and improvement program to the board of a large organization?

Options:

A.

The internal assessment results should be discussed once every five years

B.

The rating conclusions and the impact from results of the external assessment should be explained

C.

The results of the external assessment should be discussed every seven years.

D.

The qualifications and independence of the internal assessment team should be discussed

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Questions 41

Which of the following is the primary engagement responsibility of an entry-level internal auditor?

Options:

A.

Leadership

B.

Documentation.

C.

Analysis.

D.

Reporting

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Questions 42

Which of the following is true regarding the monitoring of internal audit activities?

Options:

A.

The form and content of monitoring policies could vary by industry

B.

The board of directors is responsible for the establishment of monitoring polities

C.

Both large and small audit departments must have written policies on monitoring.

D.

The chief audit executive must develop all monitoring policies related to the activity

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Questions 43

An internal auditor concluded that delays in an ongoing construction project have cost the organization $10 million to date. Which documents should be included in the audit workpapers to provide sufficient evidence to support the conclusion?

Options:

A.

Payment and work milestones

B.

Pictures from the construction site

C.

Initial sprint planning

D.

Project internal rate of return

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Questions 44

An internal auditor discovered a control weakness that needs to be communicated to management. Which of the following is the best method for first communicating the weakness?

Options:

A.

Draft report, to be reviewed by management just prior to final report issuance.

B.

Preliminary observation document, discussed during the engagement.

C.

Final report, after review by audit management.

D.

Verbal communication during the engagement, followed by the final report issuance.

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Questions 45

According to IIA guidance, which of the following objectives was most likely formulated for a non-assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity will assess the effects of changes in maintenance strategy on the availability of production equipment.

B.

The internal audit activity will inform management on the possible risks of moving the data warehouse to a cloud server maintained by a third party.

C.

The internal audit activity will ascertain whether the data center security arrangements are compliant with agreed terms.

D.

The internal audit activity will ensure equipment downtime risks have been managed in accordance with internal policy.

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Questions 46

Which of the following situations best applies to an organization that uses a project, rather than a process, to accomplish its business activities?

Options:

A.

A clothing company designs, makes, and sells a new item.

B.

A commercial construction company is hired to build a warehouse.

C.

A city department sets up a new firefighter training program.

D.

A manufacturing organization acquires component parts from a contracted vendor

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Questions 47

An internal audit report includes a recommendation to remove inappropriate user access to an IT application. Which of the following does the recommendation represent?

Options:

A.

An agreed action adopted by management.

B.

A condition-based recommendation as an interim solution to correct a current condition.

C.

A cause-based recommendation to prevent inappropriate access being granted again.

D.

A management action plan.

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Questions 48

Which of the following should be the focus of the effect section of the preliminary observations document?

Options:

A.

Residual risk

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Compensating controls

D.

Control activities

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Questions 49

Applying ISO 31000; which of the following is part of the external context for risk management?

Options:

A.

Risk treatment method based on risk evaluation.

B.

Organizational culture, objectives, and processes.

C.

The regulatory and competitive environment.

D.

The method of determining the risk level

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Questions 50

A large retail organization, which sells most of its products online, experiences a computer hacking incident. The chief IT officer immediately investigates the incident and concludes that the attempt was not successful. The chief audit executive (CAE) learns of the attack in a casual conversation with an IT auditor. Which of the following actions should the CAE take?

1. Meet with the chief IT officer to discuss the report and control improvements that will be implemented as a result of the security breach, if any.

2. Immediately inform the chair of the audit committee of the security breach, because thus far only the chief IT officer is aware of the incident.

3. Meet with the IT auditor to develop an appropriate audit program to review the organization ' s Internet-based sales process and key controls.

4. Include the incident in the next quarterly report to the audit committee.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 4

D.

3 and 4

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Questions 51

Which of the following would most likely prompt special notification from the chief audit executive to same management?

Options:

A.

Operational management has decried to weigh an audit issue against the organization ' s risk tolerance

B.

A controls inaccurate operation has materially impacted the accuracy of the poor year ' s financial statements

C.

Occurrences of asset misappropriation have been identified as a result of an ineffective operational control design

D.

The controls that management performed to confirm compliance with health and safety standards were not systematically documented

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Questions 52

Which statistical sampling approach would an internal auditor typically utilize if she wishes to test for fraud and the expected deviation rate is very low?

Options:

A.

Stratified sampling

B.

Attribute sampling

C.

Discovery sampling

D.

Haphazard sampling

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Questions 53

A new internal auditor is overwhelmed by the number of tasks they need to complete at the engagement planning stage. Which of the following could support the auditor’s organization and delivery of planned work?

Options:

A.

Review the auditor ' s job description

B.

Create a checklist

C.

Develop a control questionnaire

D.

Prepare a fishbone diagram

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Questions 54

The chief audit executive can illustrate the value of the internal audit activity by reporting which of the following to the board?

Options:

A.

The overall performance resulting from the internal audit balanced scorecard

B.

The number of outstanding and overdue management actions

C.

The experience of the organization ' s internal auditors

D.

The number of audits in the annual audit plan relative to similar organizations

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Questions 55

During audit engagement planning, an internal auditor is determining the best approach for leveraging computer-assisted audit techniques (CAATs). Which of the following approaches maximizes the use of CAATs and why?

Options:

A.

Tracing, because it would enable the auditor to verify quickly that the record counts were properly included in the compilation.

B.

Inspection, because it would enable the auditor to verify how management enters the data into the application for processing.

C.

Testing data, because it would enable the auditor to ensure that the application processes the transaction as described by management.

D.

Reperformance, because it enables the auditor to verify that the application performed the calculation correctly.

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Questions 56

Which of the following best demonstrates that the internal audit activity is using due professional care?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity reports directly to the board on the engagements it performs.

B.

Internal auditors undertake the necessary training to complete their audit work.

C.

The completion of engagements is based on the assumption that fraudulent activities may exist.

D.

Internal auditors consider the use of technology-based audit and other data analysis techniques

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Questions 57

During an operational audit of the cash receipts process, internal auditors uncovered many red flags related to possible misappropriation of cash and other cash-flow problems indicative of potential employee fraud. Which of the following statements is true regarding the follow-up investigative audit?

Options:

A.

The audit team that conducted the operational audit must also conduct the investigative audit.

B.

The investigative audit must be conducted by an independent third-party service provider.

C.

To preserve objectivity, auditors who participated on the initial operational audit engagement team must not partake in the investigative audit.

D.

The investigative audit engagement team must include at least one auditor who possesses fraud-related skills and competencies.

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Questions 58

Which of the following would best prevent phishing attacks on an organization?

Options:

A.

An intrusion detection system

B.

Use of firewalls

C.

Regular security awareness training

D.

Application hardening

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Questions 59

According to IIA guidance which of the following best describes reliable information?

Options:

A.

Reliable information is factual adequate, and convincing so that a prudent informed person would reach the same conclusions as the internal auditor

B.

Reliable information is the best attainable information through the use of appropriate engagement techniques

C.

Reliable information supports engagement observations and recommendations and is consistent with the objectives for the engagement

D.

Reliable information helps the organization and the internal audit activity meet its goals

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Questions 60

Which of the following approaches would best help an internal auditor determine whether a retailer database of 100,000 customers has nay duplicate accounts?

Options:

A.

Stratifying the customer information

B.

Extracting the customer information

C.

Filtering the customer information

D.

Sorting the customer information

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Questions 61

Which of the following steps should an internal auditor complete when conducting a review of an electronic data interchange application provided by a third-party service?

1.Ensure encryption keys meet ISO standards.

2.Determine whether an independent review of the service provider ' s operation has been conducted.

3.Verify that the service provider ' s contracts include necessary clauses.

4.Verify that only public-switched data networks are used by the service provider

Options:

A.

1 and 3.

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3.

D.

2 and 4.

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Questions 62

A senior internal auditor is hired within the internal audit activity for a period of two years before advancing to an operations manager role within the business operations team. When staffing arrangement is being used in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Comer of competence

B.

Career model

C.

Rotational model

D.

Cosourcing agreement

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Questions 63

Which of the following best exemplifies having effective risk management and internal control processes?

Options:

A.

Relevant risk indicators and mitigation plans are in place

B.

All risks are identified and assessed

C.

Business profitability is likely to be achieved

D.

Risk information is communicated to customers and suppliers

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Questions 64

Organizations that adopt just-in-time purchasing systems often experience which of the following?

Options:

A.

A slight increase in carrying costs.

B.

A greater need for inspection of goods as the goods arrive

C.

A greater need for linkage with a vendors computerized order entry system.

D.

An Increase in the number of suitable suppliers

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Questions 65

Senior management requested that the internal audit activity perform a consulting project to assist in making a decision on a new software system. Which of the following would be used to determine the engagement objectives?

Options:

A.

An assessment of risks to the business objectives

B.

An understanding of the engagement client ' s expectations

C.

The probability of significant errors fraud or noncompliance

D.

Criteria previously established by the board

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Questions 66

Which of the following engagements is likely to be most appropriate for an organization that is planning an acquisition?

Options:

A.

A performance engagement.

B.

A system security engagement.

C.

A due diligence engagement.

D.

A compliance engagement.

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Questions 67

An audit client responded to recommendations from a recent consulting engagement. The client indicated that several recommended process improvements would not be implemented. Which of the following actions should the internal audit activity take in response?

Options:

A.

Escalate the unresolved issues to the board, because they could pose significant risk exposures to the organization.

B.

Confirm the decision with management and document this decision in the audit file.

C.

Document the issue in the audit file and follow up until the issues are resolved.

D.

Initiate an assurance engagement on the unresolved issues.

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Questions 68

An organization has a health and safety division that conducts audits to meet regulatory requirements. The chief health and safety officer reports directly to the CEO. Which of the following describes an appropriate role for the chief audit executive (CAE) with regard to the organization ' s health and safety program?

Options:

A.

The CAE has no role to play, because the chief health and safety officer reports to a senior executive.

B.

The CAE should coordinate with, and review the work of, the chief health and safety officer to gain an understanding of whether risks related to health and safety are managed properly.

C.

The CAE should give periodic reports directly to the regulator regarding health and safety issues, as it is the appropriate regulatory oversight body.

D.

The CAE should hire an independent external specialist to conduct an annual assessment and provide assurance over the effectiveness of the health and safety program and the reliability of its reports.

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Questions 69

Which of the following statements generally true regarding audit engagement planning?

Options:

A.

The best source tor detailed process information is senior management

B.

Audit objectives should be general and do not change.

C.

Computer-assisted audit techniques are typically not useful during engagement planning

D.

Internal auditors should prepare a dented audit program for testing controls

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Questions 70

To which of the following aspects should the chief audit executive give the most consideration while communicating an identified unacceptable risk to management?

Options:

A.

The organization ' s attitude to hierarchy

B.

The organization ' s whistleblowing strategy

C.

The organization ' s ongoing risk monitoring process

D.

The organization ' s risk management policy

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Questions 71

As part of internal audit ' s assistance with an annual external audit, the internal auditors are required to do a preliminary analytical review of an bank account balances. This involves verifying the current year end balances as web as comparing the current year end balances with previous year end balances to highlight significant changes. Which of the following is the most reliable source for verification of the current year end bank balances?

Options:

A.

Bank confirmations

B.

Internal bonk statements

C.

Bank reconciliations as of the end of the year

D.

Bank account general ledger balancer as of the end of the year

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Questions 72

Management asks the chief audit executive (CAE) to allocate an internal auditor as a non-voting member of a steering committee. The committee will oversee the implementation of a significant and confidential acquisition. Which of the following should guide the CAE’s selection?

Options:

A.

To select a candidate who can be trusted to gather sensitive information on the acquisition

B.

To select a candidate capable of conveying internal audit strategy even without voting status

C.

To self-assign as only the CAE has authority to express opinions and offer advice to committee members

D.

To select a candidate who has prior experience in mergers or the completion of due diligence of entities

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Questions 73

Which of the following activities best demonstrates an internal auditor ' s commitment to developing professional competencies?

Options:

A.

Requesting to be part of all engagements on the annual audit plan

B.

Attending a series of locally offered training courses.

C.

Completing a skills assessment and development plan for targeted training needs.

D.

Attending a webinar on how to use data analytics

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Questions 74

A regional entertainment organization is in the process of developing a corporate social responsibility (CSR) policy. Management invites ideas from employees when developing the CSR policy Which of the following is the most appropriate idea to include?

Options:

A.

Management has overall responsibility for the effectiveness of governance, risk management, and internal control processes associated with CSR.

B.

The board Is responsible for ensuring that CSR objectives are established, risks are managed, performance is measured, and activities are appropriately monitored and reported

C.

Management is responsible for ensuring that the organization ' s CSR principles are communicated, understood, and integrated into decision-making processes.

D.

Generally, CSR activities are limited to the management of the organization, thus, employees do not have a responsibility for ensuring the success of CSR objectives.

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Questions 75

An internal auditor develops an engagement observation related to an organization ' s accumulation of large travel advances. The auditor observes that the organization ' s procedures do not require justification for travel advances greater than a specific amount Which of the following best describes the organization ' s procedures?

Options:

A.

A criterion of the organization ' s accumulation of large travel advances

B.

A condition of the organization ' s accumulation of large travel advances

C.

A consequence of the organization ' s accumulation of large travel advances

D.

A cause of the organization ' s accumulation of large travel advances

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Questions 76

Which of the following internal audit activity staffing models has the disadvantage that auditors are always new and in training?

Options:

A.

Career model

B.

Center of competence model.

C.

Rotational model.

D.

Hybrid model

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Questions 77

According to IIA guidance, which of the following accurately describes the responsibilities of the chief audit executive with respect to the final audit report?

1. Coordinate post-engagement conferences to discuss the final audit report with management.

2. Include management ' s responses in the final audit report.

3. Review and approve the final audit report.

4. Determine who will receive the final audit report.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

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Questions 78

Which of the following is the most appropriate reason for a chief audit executive to conduct an external assessment more frequently than five years?

Options:

A.

Significant changes in the organization ' s accounting policies or procedures would warrant timely analysis and feedback.

B.

More frequent external assessments can serve as an equivalent substitute for internal assessments.

C.

The parent organization ' s internal audit activity agreed to perform biennial reciprocal external assessments to provide greater assurance at a reduced cost.

D.

A change in senior management or internal audit leadership may change expectations and commitment to conformance

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Questions 79

An internal auditor submitted a report containing recommendations for management to enhance internal controls related to investments. To follow up, which of the following is the most appropriate action for the internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Observe corrective measures.

B.

Seek a management assurance declaration.

C.

Follow up during the next scheduled audit.

D.

Conduct appropriate testing to verify management responses.

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Questions 80

Which of the following is the most appropriate way to ensure that a newly formed internal audit activity remains free from undue influence by management?

Options:

A.

Appoint the chief audit executive as a member of the board.

B.

Adopt written policies and procedures for the internal audit activity, approved by the board.

C.

Ensure the chief audit executive reports administratively to the audit committee.

D.

Establish the internal audit activity ' s position within the organization in an audit charter

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Questions 81

An internal auditor wants to compare performance information from one quarter to another. Which analytics procedure would the auditor use?

Options:

A.

Ratio analysis

B.

Trend analysis

C.

Vertical analysis

D.

Benchmarking analysis

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Questions 82

Senior management wants assurance that third-party contractors are following procedures as agreed with the organization. Which type of audit would be most appropriate

to achieve this objective?

Options:

A.

A compliance audit.

B.

A due diligence audit.

C.

A financial audit.

D.

An external audit.

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Questions 83

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between risk appetite and risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite applies to specific objectives, while risk tolerance refers to an organization ' s general attitude toward risk.

B.

Risk appetite refers to the degree of risk acceptance for a particular objective, while risk tolerance is one approach to risk management

C.

Risk appetite refers to an organization’s general level of acceptance, while risk tolerance is a more specific and subordinate concept

D.

There is no significant difference between the two terms

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Questions 84

Which of the following is an appropriate role for the internal audit activity with regard to the organization ' s risk management program?

Options:

A.

Identify and manage risks in line with the organization ' s risk appetite.

B.

Ensure that a proper and effective risk management process exists.

C.

Attain an adequate understanding of the organization ' s key risk mitigation strategies.

D.

Identify and ensure that appropriate controls exist to mitigate risks.

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Questions 85

An internal auditor is planning an audit engagement of a subsidiary organization. The auditor learns that a corporate investigator from the holding organization is investigating the subsidiary regarding a fraud case. Which of the following is true regarding the scope of the internal auditor’s engagement?

Options:

A.

As the fraud is already being investigated by the corporate investigator, it should be excluded from the scope of the audit engagement

B.

The engagement should be framed as an advisory engagement to support the corporate investigator ' s work

C.

The area under investigation should be excluded from the engagement scope if the auditor does not have the technical skills required to support a fraud investigation

D.

The scope should consider the nature of the fraud risk and control weaknesses identified from the fraud case

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Questions 86

Which of the following statistical sampling approaches is the most appropriate for testing a population for fraud?

Options:

A.

Discovery sampling.

B.

Stop-or-go sampling.

C.

Haphazard sampling.

D.

Stratified attribute sampling.

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Questions 87

An IT auditor is reviewing the access controls in an organization ' s accounting application. The auditor intends to deploy a tool that can help test the logical controls embedded in the system to ensure employee access is granted according to need. Which of the following would help achieve this objective?

Options:

A.

Utility software

B.

Generalized audit software

C.

Audit expert systems.

D.

integrated test facility

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Questions 88

An internal auditor completed a test of 30 randomly selected accounts. For five of the accounts selected, the auditor was unable to find supporting documentation in the normal place of storage. Which of the following next steps would be most appropriate for the internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Conclude that the test failed because at least 17 percent of the sample items were not supported.

B.

Select five new accounts to replace the ones that were missing supporting documentation.

C.

Expand the sample size to 60 to determine whether the error rate remains the same.

D.

Contact management to determine whether the supporting documentation can be located elsewhere.

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Questions 89

An internal auditor is using attributes sampling to test internal controls. Under which of the following circumstances would the auditor increase the original sample size to estimate error occurrence at a given precision and confidence level?

Options:

A.

The sample rate of occurrence plus the precision exceeds the acceptable error rate.

B.

The sample rate of occurrence is less than the acceptable error rate.

C.

The acceptable rate of occurrence less the precision exceeds the sample rate of occurrence.

D.

The sample rate of occurrence plus the precision equals the acceptable error rate.

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Questions 90

Which of the following activities demonstrates an example of the chief audit executive performing residual risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis of management not implementing a recommendation to address an observation.

B.

Inquiry of corrective action to be completed within a certain period

C.

Reporting the status of every observation for every engagement in a detailed manner.

D.

Soliciting management ' s feedback after completion of the audit engagement.

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Questions 91

An internal auditor for a regional bank suspects that the head of commercial lending has been granting loans without the required collateral Which of the following sampling techniques will be most effective for investigating the auditor ' s suspicion?

Options:

A.

Variables sampling

B.

Dollar-unit sampling

C.

Judgmental sampling

D.

Discovery sampling

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Questions 92

When is an organic organizational structure likely to be more successful than a mechanistic organizational structure?

Options:

A.

When a manufacturing organization has stable demand for its products.

B.

When an organization is subjected to strong political and social pressures

C.

When a manufacturer has reliable resources and suppliers.

D.

When an organization is infrequently affected by technological advances

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Questions 93

According to IIA guidance, which of the following factors should the auditor in charge consider when determining the resource requirements for an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

The number, experience, and availability of audit staff as well as the nature, complexity, and time constraints of the engagement.

B.

The appropriateness and sufficiency of resources and the ability to coordinate with external auditors.

C.

The number, proficiency, experience, and availability of audit staff as well as the ability to coordinate with external auditors.

D.

The appropriateness and sufficiency of resources as well as the nature, complexity, and time constraints of the engagement.

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Questions 94

An internal auditor is planning to audit the organization ' s payroll function, which was recently outsourced. Which of the following is the most appropriate first step for the auditor?

Options:

A.

Review management ' s organ nationwide risk assessment

B.

Understand the objectives and strategies of the new arrangement

C.

Revise the scope of the audit engagement

D.

Form objectives for the audit engagement

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Questions 95

Which of the following recommendations made by the internal audit activity (IAA) is most likely to help prevent fraud?

Options:

A.

A review of password policy compliance found that employees frequently use the same password more than once during a year. The IAA recommends that the access control software reject any password used more than once during a 12-month period.

B.

A review of internal service-level agreement compliance in financial services found that requests for information frequently are fulfilled up to two weeks late. The IAA recommends that the financial services unit be eliminated for its ineffectiveness.

C.

A vacation policy compliance review found that employees frequently leave on vacation before their leave applications are signed by their manager. The IAA recommends that the manager attend to the leave applications in a more timely fashion.

D.

A review of customer service-level agreements found that orders to several customers are frequently delivered late. The IAA recommends that the organization extend the expected delivery time advertised on its website.

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Questions 96

An internal auditor examined a nostatistical sample of open accounts receivable balances and discovered that 10 out of 60 exceeded the approved unseated credit limit threshold defined by the organization ' s policy What should the auditor document in the workpapers?

Options:

A.

Credit limit over drafts are not monitored in accordance with the organizations policy

B.

Seventeen percent of customers ' open balances in the sample exceed their approved unsecured credit rent

C.

The threshold for credit limits defined by the organization ' s policy is not adequate

D.

Management should perform monthly monitoring of open customer balances

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Questions 97

When presenting an observation m writing which or the Mowing is usually true regarding the level of detail provided?

1. The description of the observation in the final audit report contains more detail then the description m the engagement workpapers

2. The description of the observation m the engagement workpapers contains more detail than the descriptor n a preliminary observation document

3. A preliminary observation document contains more detail than tie observation description in the final audit report

4. A preliminary observation document contains more detail than tie observation description in the engagement workpapers

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and3

D.

3 and 4

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Questions 98

An internal auditor is assessing the organization ' s risk management framework. Which of the following formulas should he use to calculate the residual risk?

A) 98

B)98

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 99

When auditing an organization ' s cash-handling activates which of the following is the most reliable form of testimonial evidence an internal auditor can obtain?

Options:

A.

Testimony from the cashier who performs the processes being reviewed

B.

Testimony from me cashier ' s supervisor who knows how processes should be performed

C.

Testimony from a knowledgeable person who is independent of the cashiering duty

D.

Testimony from a manager who oversees all cashiering activities being reviewed

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Questions 100

An internal auditor at a bank informed the branch manager of a malfunctioning lock on one of the vaults. The risk associated with this issue was deemed significant by the chief audit executive (CAE), and immediate remediation was recommended However during a follow-up engagement the branch manager told the CAE that the risk was actually not significant, hence no action was taken. What is the most appropriate next step for the CAE?

Options:

A.

Inform senior management that the branch manager deeded to cancel the committed action plan without any previous communication

B.

Discuss the issue with the board which has ultimate responsibility to resolve the risk

C.

Have another discussion with the branch manager attempt to change his view, and encourage him to movement the recommendations

D.

Document the branch manager ' s decision to accept the risk otherwise, no other speak: course of action is required.

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Questions 101

A newly appointed chief audit executive (CAE) started analyzing the organization ' s policies in an attempt to customize them to address internal audit specifics. Which of the following organizationwide practices is most likely to be acceptable to the CAE?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors ' performance evaluation is primarily based on both client satisfaction surveys and cost savings identified from the audits

B.

Standard training for each employee, including internal auditors, is 10 hours per year.

C.

To enhance efficiency, Internal auditors should not be rotated regularly among engagements

D.

Hiring practices include requiring potential auditors to disclose any significant stock ownership in the organization.

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Questions 102

Which of the following is an appropriate activity when supervising engagements?

Options:

A.

During engagement planning, the audit work program should be discussed between auditors and the engagement supervisor with the supervisor approving the work program.

B.

During fieldwork, scope changes made to the work program are at the auditor ' s discretion and should be supported adequately in the workpapers.

C.

Engagement supervision is most critical to the fieldwork and reporting phases of the audit, as this is where the majority of the work takes place.

D.

A degree of high supervision to no supervision may be provided to an auditor depending on his level of competence and the complexity of the engagement.

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Questions 103

An internal auditor observed that sales staff are able to modify or cancel an order in the system prior to shipping She wonders whether they can also modify orders after shipping. Which of the following types of controls should she examine?

Options:

A.

Batch controls.

B.

Application controls

C.

General IT controls.

D.

Logical access controls

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Questions 104

Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of internal control questionnaires (ICOs)?

Options:

A.

ICQs are efficient because they minimize the need for follow-up with survey respondents

B.

Controls with positive survey responses can be eliminated from further testing

C.

Answers to survey questions can be easily misinterpreted

D.

ICQs offer limited value for organizations with uniform procedures

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Questions 105

Which of the following would not be a typical activity for the chief audit executive to perform following an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

Report follow-up activities to senior management.

B.

Implement follow-up procedures to evaluate residual risk.

C.

Determine the costs of implementing the recommendations.

D.

Evaluate the extent of improvements.

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Questions 106

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal control questionnaires (ICQs)?

Options:

A.

ICQs are most useful in more organic, decentralized organizations with specialized departmental or regional characteristics.

B.

An ICQ can be used effectively either by sending it in advance for management of the area under review to complete or by testing each procedure and recording the results.

C.

An ICQ is not an efficient tool, as it can only inquire about controls and it does not test them.

D.

ICQs are also known as checklist audits and encourage management of the area under review to answer " no " or " yes " more accurately.

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Questions 107

According to IIA guidance, which of the following steps should precede the development of audit engagement objectives?

Options:

A.

Identification of controls.

B.

Scope establishment.

C.

Risk assessment.

D.

Review of resources.

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Questions 108

An internal auditor is asked to perform an assurance engagement in the organization ' s newly acquired subsidiary When developing the objectives tor the engagement which ot the following statements describes the most important items that the auditor needs to consider?

Options:

A.

Previous performance of the subsidiary specifically its financial results over the last three years and the outcome of external audit reviews

B.

The results of previous internal audits of the subsidiary the recommendations provided and whether the recommended actions have been implemented

C.

Organizational strategy objectives, risks, control framework and the expectations of stakeholders regarding the audit

D.

The qualifications and competencies of the subsidiary ' s management team and their understanding of risk and control

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Questions 109

Some lime after the final audit report was issued, the engagement supervisor teamed that several internal control deficiencies were not remedied, despite management ' s previous agreement to remedy them According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate response ' 5

Options:

A.

The engagement supervisor must notify the chief audit executive (CAE) that the deficiencies have not been rectified

B.

The engagement supervisor should rely on professional judgment as to whether the CAE should be informed, or the management action plan should be adjusted

C.

The engagement supervisor should rely on his negotiation skills and issue an ultimatum to management to remedy the control deficiencies

D.

Ensure that these deficiencies are captured in the documentation as high-priority areas to be reviewed during the next audit.

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Questions 110

An organization buys crude oil on the open market and refines it into a high-quality gasoline. The price of crude oil is extremely volatile. Which of the following is the most appropriate risk management technique to protect the organization against these price fluctuations?

Options:

A.

Enter into long-term gasoline purchase agreements with end customers.

B.

Trade crude oil derivatives at financial markets in order to benefit from price fluctuations

C.

Purchase crude oil-related derivatives such as futures or options

D.

Stock as much raw materials as possible and consider Investing into additional facilities

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Questions 111

According to an internal audit observation, the organization’s rules of record management require all contracts to be registered and stored in a specific electronic system. One subsidiary has thousands of client contracts on paper, which are kept in the office because there are not enough assistants to scan the contracts into the system. Which of the following component should be added to this observation?

Options:

A.

Criteria

B.

Cause

C.

Effect

D.

Condition

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Questions 112

Which of the following factors would the auditor in charge be least likely to consider when assigning tasks to audit team members for an engagement?

Options:

A.

The amount of experience the auditors have conducting audits in the specific area of the organization.

B.

The availability of the auditors in relation to the availability of key client staff.

C.

Whether the budgeted hours are sufficient to complete the audit within the current scope.

D.

Whether outside resources will be needed, and their availability.

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Questions 113

An internal auditor used a risk and control matrix to prepare a work program for testing a software release. During the engagement planning stage, he tested the design of

the release procedure as a key control and concluded that the control was not designed well. During the performance stage, he tested the operation of this control and

concluded that it was implemented as designed. Which of the following statements is true regarding this scenario?

Options:

A.

The test of the control design should have occurred at the performance stage.

B.

The test of the operating effectiveness of the control was not necessary.

C.

A risk and control matrix is not appropriate for this type of engagement.

D.

The test of the operating effectiveness of the control should have occurred at the planning stage.

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Questions 114

Which of the following documents are internal auditors most likely to be asked to sign as a demonstration of due professional care?

Options:

A.

A description of their job responsibilities.

B.

A non-disclosure agreement

C.

An annual declaration of commitment to The HAs Code of Ethics.

D.

The internal audit charter

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Questions 115

An engagement supervisor reviewed a staff internal auditor ' s documentation and noted that several edits should be made. The internal audit activity uses an electronic workpaper database and does not maintain paper files for its system of record. A system error prevents the engagement supervisor from adding her electronic signature to any workpaper in the database Given this situation which is the most appropriate response to provide evidence of supervisory review?

Options:

A.

The engagement supervisor should print sign and date each workpaper after the review is complete and scan the document into the database as evidence of review

B.

Because the engagement supervisor called the help desk to correct the IT problem, he should upload the support-request ticket from the help desk to serve as evidence of the review

C.

The engagement supervisor should ask another manager-level internal auditor not associated with the project to sign the workpaper on his behalf

D.

The engagement supervisor should instruct the staff internal auditor to add a note in the workpaper on his behalf indicating that the workpaper was reviewed and feedback was provided

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Questions 116

An organization s inventory is stored m multiple warehouses. During an inventory audit which of the following activities would most benefit from the use of computerized audit tools?

Options:

A.

Verifying the existence of inventory items in each warehouse

B.

Assigning the tolerable deviation rate to determine the sample size

C.

Valuating the obsolete Inventory from all the warehouse locations

D.

Confirming that the purchased items are recorded In the correct period

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Questions 117

The chief audit executive of a medium-sized financial institution is evaluating the staffing model of the internal audit activity (IAA). According to IIA guidance, which of the following are the most appropriate strategies to maximize the value of the current IAA resources?

• The annual audit plan should include audits that are consistent with the skills of the IAA.

• Audits of high-risk areas of the organization should be conducted by internal audit staff.

• External resources may be hired to provide subject-matter expertise but should be supervised.

• Auditors should develop their skills by being assigned to complex audits for learning opportunities.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

3 and 4 only

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Questions 118

An organization ' s healthcare insurance costs have been rising approximately 10 percent per year for several years. Which of the following analytical review procedures would best evaluate the reasonableness of the increase in healthcare costs?

Options:

A.

Develop a comparison of the costs incurred with similar costs incurred by other organizations.

B.

Obtain the government index of healthcare costs for the comparable period of time and compare the rate of increase with that of the cost per employee incurred by the organization.

C.

Obtain a bid from another healthcare administrator to provide the same administrative services as the current healthcare administrator.

D.

Review all claims and compare with appropriate procedures to ensure that overpayments have not occurred.

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Questions 119

According to IIA guidance, which of the following corporate social responsibility (CSR) evaluation activities may be performed by the internal audit activity?

1.Consult on CSR program design and implementation

2.Serve as an advisor on CSR governance and risk management.

3.Review third parties for contractual compliance with CSR terms

4Identify and mitigate risks to help meet the CSR program objectives

Options:

A.

1,2, and 3.

B.

1.2. and 4.

C.

1, 3, and 4.

D.

2. 3. and 4.

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Questions 120

When reviewing workpapers, engagement supervisors may ask for additional evidence or clarification via review notes. According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the engagement supervisors review notes?

Options:

A.

The review notes may be cleared from the final documentation once the engagement supervisors concerns have been addressed

B.

Management of the area under review must address the engagement supervisors review notes before the audit report can be finalized.

C.

The chief audit executive must initial or sign the engagement supervisors review notes to provide evidence of appropriate engagement supervision.

D.

Review notes provide documented proof that the engagement is supervised properly and must be retained for the quality assurance and improvement program

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Questions 121

Which of the following situations is most critical for the chief audit executive to report to the board?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive disagreed with the business unit manager ' s initial decision to accept a particular risk Management ultimately agreed to address the risk only after discussing the issue with senior management.

B.

The internal audit activity was restructured, which resulted in a significant change in responsibilities among audit managers and supervisors for some audits

C.

A staff internal auditor had difficulties completing a portion of the audit because management of the area under review was unwilling to cooperate and provide information timely.

D.

The resignation of an internal audit manager during the year caused the chief audit executive to defer a number of audit engagements to the following year.

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Questions 122

Which of the following is the primary reason an internal auditor would issue an interim report during an engagement?

Options:

A.

To provide a status update on a short engagement to management of the area under review and to the audit supervisor.

B.

To confirm agreement with preliminary observations and conclusions identified during the engagement.

C.

To provide those responsible for the area under review with the opportunity to act on certain observations immediately.

D.

To verify that the corrective actions required by senior management are completed as agreed.

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Questions 123

An internal auditor is assigned to an advisory engagement for the launch of a new system relating to travel and expense. During fieldwork, the auditor tests interfacing controls with the procurement system. The auditor observes that a key control is missing within the procurement system. The auditor identifies that senior management has approved a temporary manual workaround for the missing control. Which of the following actions should the auditor take?

Options:

A.

Propose to include an assurance engagement for the procurement system in next year’s audit plan

B.

Perform a root cause analysis and test the workaround effectiveness

C.

Expand the scope of the advisory engagement to include the procurement system

D.

Ignore the risk as senior management has implemented the workaround

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Questions 124

Management testimony of improper segregation of duties in the cash receipt process can be considered which of the following?

Options:

A.

Analytical

B.

Reliable

C.

Relevant

D.

Sufficient

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Questions 125

A chief audit executive is preparing interview questions for the upcoming recruitment of a senior internal auditor. According to IIA guidance, which of the following attributes shows a candidate ' s ability to probe further when reviewing incidents that have the appearance of misbehavior?

Options:

A.

Integrity.

B.

Flexibility.

C.

Initiative.

D.

Curiosity.

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Questions 126

A team of internal auditors is assigned to audit the employee relations process in an organization, which includes employee conduct and disciplinary hearings. Which of the following audit approaches would provide the auditors with the best evidence to determine the degree to which disciplinary decisions are complying with documented policy?

Options:

A.

Review a random sample of concluded disciplinary reports to assess how the policy was applied in each case.

B.

Interview a sample of impacted employees for their opinions on the clarity and fairness of the policy.

C.

Observe several disciplinary hearings to determine whether they are in compliance with the policy.

D.

Conduct an interview to assess the disciplinary hearing chairman’s understanding of the policy and its appropriate use.

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Questions 127

An organization has a mature control environment but limited internal audit resources Given this scenario, on which of the following should the internal auditors focus their testing?

Options:

A.

Detective compensating controls

B.

Preventive compensating controls

C.

Detective Key controls

D.

Preventive key controls

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Questions 128

Which of the following statements is true regarding engagement planning?

Options:

A.

The scope of the engagement should be planned according to the internal audit activity’s budget and then aligned to the risk universe.

B.

The audit engagement objectives should be based on operational management ' s view of risk objectives.

C.

The planning phase of the engagement should be completed and approved before the fieldwork of the engagement begins.

D.

The main purpose of the engagement work program is to determine the nature and timing of procedures required to gather audit evidence.

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Questions 129

Where should internal auditor focus their attention when identify and assessing key risks during the planning stage of an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Sampling risk.

B.

Audit risk.

C.

Residual risk.

D.

Inherent risk

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Questions 130

An internal auditor is using computer-assisted audit techniques to examine employee expenses across several divisions of the organization. Which of the following is true in this situation?

Options:

A.

The data from various sources should remain segregated for easier analysis and discovery of anomalies.

B.

Fraud detection techniques should be performed against full data populations.

C.

A reactive approach is best suited for fraud detection due to the effectiveness of tips and whistleblowing programs.

D.

Random sampling is an effective method of detecting fraudulent transactions.

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Questions 131

An electric utility provider measures working time spent on processing grid connection applications, response time for electricity outages, and the call center queuing time. Which of the following criteria would better suit a customer-oriented provider for measurement?

Options:

A.

Past performance

B.

Legal obligations

C.

Board-approved budget

D.

Stakeholder expectations

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Questions 132

Which of the following activities Is most likely to require a fraud specialist to supplement the knowledge and skills of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Planning an engagement of the area in which fraud is suspected.

B.

Employing audit tests to detect fraud

C.

Interrogating a suspected fraudster.

D.

Completing a process review to improve controls to prevent fraud.

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Questions 133

Which of the following should be included in a company ' s year-end inventory valuation?

Options:

A.

Company goods that were sold during the year, free on board shipping point, that have been shipped but not yet received by the customer

B.

Goods purchased by the company, free on board destination, that have not yet been received.

C.

Goods on consignment, which the company is trying to sell for its customers.

D.

Company goods for sale on consignment at a consignment shop

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Questions 134

An organization uses the management-by-objectives method, whereby employee performance is based on defined goals. Which of the following statements is true regarding this approach?

Options:

A.

It is particularly helpful to management when the organization is facing rapid change.

B.

It is a more successful approach when adopted by mechanistic organizations.

C.

it is more successful when goal-setting Is performed not only by management, but by all team members, including lower-level staff

D.

it is particularly successful in environments that are prone to having poor employer-employee relations

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Questions 135

The following is a list of major findings in the executive summary report for an audit of the contract management process

- Noncompliance with contract provisions requiring vendors to obtain insurance policies with indemnity value of not less than $1 million

- Compliance with contract obligations and deliverables is not monitored

- No contract agreement with five vendors providing core services

Which of the following is an appropriate conclusion that can be drawn from these findings?

Options:

A.

These are weaknesses resulting from a lack of a documented contracting policy

B.

Substandard service delivery by vendors may not be detected

C.

Management should expedite actions to rectify the observations identified

D.

The internal controls guiding contract management are not operating effectively

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Questions 136

Which of the following internal audit activities is performed in the design evaluation phase?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor reviews prior audits and workpapers

B.

The internal auditor identifies the controls over segregation of duties.

C.

The internal auditor checks a process for completeness.

D.

The internal auditor communicates the audit results to management

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Questions 137

A corporate merger decision prompts the chief audit executive (CAE) to propose interm changes to the existing annual audit plan to account for emerging risks Which of the following Is the most appropriate action for the CAE to take regarding the changes made to the audit plan?

Options:

A.

Present the revised audit plan directly to the board for approval

B.

Communicate with the chief financial officer and present the revised audit plan to the CEO for approval.

C.

Present the revised audit plan directly to the CEO for approval.

D.

Communicate with the CEO and present the revised audit plan to the board for approval

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Questions 138

Which of the following would most likely cause an internal auditor to consider adding fraud work steps to the audit program?

Options:

A.

Improper segregation of duties.

B.

Incentives and bonus programs.

C.

An employee ' s reported concerns.

D.

Lack of an ethics policy.

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Questions 139

An internal auditor is conducting a preliminary survey of the investments area, and sends an internal control questionnaire to the management of the function. (An extract of the survey is provided below).

1. Are there any restrictions for any company ' s investments?

2. Are there any written policies and procedures that document the flow of investment processing?

3. Are investment purchases recorded in the general ledger on the date traded?

4. Is the documentation easily accessible to an persons who need in to perform their job?

Which of the following is a drawback of testing methods like this?

Options:

A.

They ore kitted as they do not allow the auditor to test many controls.

B.

They do not highlight control gaps

C.

They are not useful for identifying areas on which the auditor should locus.

D.

They are limited as there is a risk that management may not answer fairly.

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Questions 140

In which of the following situations would an internal auditor consider the need to outsource competencies and skills9

Options:

A.

During the inspection of a wind turbine. an internal auditor notices that some replaced parts took used According to purchase documents, the parts still have a long lifespan.

B.

The auditor believes that the audit client ' s actions contradict the organization ' s code of conduct The audit client disagrees and says his actions are for the organization ' s benefit

C.

An audit team member is allocated to conduct an assurance engagement m the sales unit. However, the same auditor performed an assurance engagement in that area just one year prior

D.

During an inventory count, the auditor ascertained that some goods were missing. The audit client argues that the auditor does not understand how inventory should be counted

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Questions 141

Which of the following internal audit activities is performed in the design evaluation phase?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor reviews prior audits and workpapers.

B.

The internal auditor identifies the controls over segregation of duties.

C.

The internal auditor checks a process for completeness.

D.

The internal auditor communicates the audit results to management.

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Questions 142

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements best justifies a chief audit executive ' s request for external consultants to complement internal audit activity (IAA) resources?

Options:

A.

The organization ' s audit universe is extensive and diverse.

B.

There has been an increase in unanticipated requests for advisory work.

C.

Previous work provided by the external service provider has been of great quality and value.

D.

A recent benchmarking study found that using external service providers is a common practice of similarly-sized IAAs in other organizations.

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Questions 143

During engagement planning, which party provides the most accurate and up-to-date description of how organizational processes and key controls operate?

Options:

A.

The management responsible for the activity under review

B.

The individuals who perform the daily tasks and functions of the activity under review

C.

The external auditors since they understand the key controls behind the financial statements

D.

The board of directors since they provide overall oversight for the organization

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Questions 144

Which of the following actions would an internal auditor perform primarily during a consulting engagement of a debt collections process?

Options:

A.

Reviewing journal entries for accuracy and completeness.

B.

Comparing the policies and procedures to regulatory collections guidance.

C.

Advising management on streamlining the recording of accounts receivable.

D.

Performing a walk-through of the debt collections process to determine whether proper segregation of duties exists

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Questions 145

While reviewing the organization’s financial year-end processes, an internal auditor discovered an erroneous journal entry. If the error is not addressed, it will result in a material misstatement of the financial records. The internal auditor needs an additional four weeks to complete the audit engagement. How should the auditor communicate this finding?

Options:

A.

The auditor should issue an interim report to management prior to completion of the audit and issuance of the final report.

B.

The auditor should include this item in the final audit report, marked with an asterisk, indicating that it is a high-risk item.

C.

The auditor should discuss the finding with the appropriate accounting staff who can make the correction immediately, and if corrected before the engagement is concluded, the finding would not need to be included in the audit report.

D.

The auditor is obligated to bypass management and immediately report the error directly to regulatory authorities.

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Questions 146

In order to obtain background information on an assigned audit of data center operations an internal auditor administers control questionnaires to select individuals who have primary responsibilities within the process. Which of the following is a drawback of this approach?

Options:

A.

It will be difficult to quantify the information obtained through this approach

B.

This approach does not help the auditor learn about the existence of controls

C.

It takes the auditor a long time to assess the relevant controls using this approach

D.

Information on control functionality is limited

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Questions 147

An internal auditor s examination of accounts receivable generates the following results:

147

What is the projected misstatement for the population if ratio estimation is used?

Options:

A.

$84,000

B.

$238,095

C.

$700,000

D.

$2100.000

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Questions 148

During an assurance engagement, an internal auditor discovered that a sales manager approved numerous sales contracts for values exceeding his authorization limit. The auditor reported the finding to the audit supervisor, noting that the sales manager had additional new contracts under negotiation. According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be the most appropriate next step?

Options:

A.

The audit supervisor should include the new contracts in the finding for the final audit report.

B.

The audit supervisor should communicate the finding to the supervisor of the sales manager through an interim report.

C.

The audit supervisor should remind the sales manager of his authority limit for the contracts under negotiation.

D.

The auditor should not reference the new contracts, because they are not yet signed and therefore cannot be included in the final report.

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Questions 149

Which of the following is the most important determinant of the objectives and scope of assurance engagements?

The organizational chart, business objectives, and policies and procedures of the area to be reviewed

Options:

A.

The most recent risk assessment conducted by management of the area to be reviewed.

B.

The requests of operational and senior management throughout the organization.

C.

The preliminary risk assessment performed by internal auditors planning the engagement.

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Questions 150

According to the Standards, which of the following is true regarding the auditor ' s inclusion of management ' s satisfactory performance in the final audit report?

Options:

A.

Acknowledgement of satisfactory performance is encouraged but not required.

B.

There are no standards to address the inclusion of satisfactory performance.

C.

Satisfactory performance should only be acknowledged with the advice of corporate counsel.

D.

Auditors must include satisfactory performance with the approval of the board.

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Questions 151

An organization ' s chief audit executive is developing an integrated audit approach to provide value-added services that can help the organization meet its strategic objectives and goals. Which of the following is an advantage of using an integrated audit approach that assists the organization?

Options:

A.

It allows the internal audit function to provide more subjective conclusions that would help the organization meet its goals and objectives.

B.

It allows the internal audit function to perform the appropriate engagements that minimize audit fatigue within the organization.

C.

It allows the internal audit function to focus more attention on ensuring that solutions and risks adhere to defined regulations.

D.

It allows the internal audit function to obtain more resources to perform more engagements of departments within the organization.

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Questions 152

According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions might place the independence of the internal audit function in jeopardy?

Options:

A.

Having no active role or involvement in the risk management process.

B.

Auditing the risk management process for reasonableness.

C.

Coordinating and managing the risk management process.

D.

Participating with management in identifying and evaluating risks.

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Questions 153

Management requested internal audit consulting services. During fieldwork significant control issues were identified by the internal audit team. Which of the following is an appropriate response from the chief audit executive?

Options:

A.

End the consulting engagement and report the results to management as planned

B.

Report the significant control issues to senior management and the board and recommend corrective action

C.

Mutually agree with the engagement client on corrective actions

D.

Focus on the consulting engagement and schedule an assurance engagement next to address the control issues

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Questions 154

While conducting an information security audit, an internal auditor learns that the existing disaster recovery plan is four years old and untested. The auditor also learns that in the four years since the recovery plan was implemented, the information systems have undergone extensive changes. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Inform management and request that the plan be tested immediately.

B.

Update the recovery plan for management, as part of the review.

C.

Evaluate the recovery plan and report weaknesses to management.

D.

Recommend that management and users update and test the recovery plan.

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Questions 155

When developing the scope of an audit engagement, which of the following would the internal auditor typically not need to consider?

Options:

A.

The need and availability of automated support.

B.

The potential impact of key risks.

C.

The expected outcomes and deliverables.

D.

The operational and geographic boundaries.

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Questions 156

An internal audit activity is planning its first audit of IT shared services. Which of the following controls would typically be evaluated first?

Options:

A.

Entity-level controls

B.

Application controls

C.

General controls.

D.

Transaction controls

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Questions 157

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is false regarding a review of the controls in place to prevent fraud?

Options:

A.

The review should focus on the efficiency of the controls in place to prevent fraud.

B.

The scope of the review does not need to include all operating areas of the organization.

C.

The cost of the control should be compared to the benefit of mitigating the related risk.

D.

The review should assess whether the internal controls can be circumvented.

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Questions 158

Which of the following is an appropriate documentation of proper engagement supervision?

Options:

A.

A completed engagement workpaper review checklist.

B.

The supervisor ' s review notes on engagement workpapers.

C.

The email exchanges between the audit team and the supervisor.

D.

A supervisor ' s approval of resources allocated to the engagement

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Questions 159

The audit plan requires a review of the testing procedures used in pre-production of a large information system prior to its live launch. If the chief audit executive (CAE) is uncertain that the current audit team has all the required knowledge to conduct the engagement, which of the following would be the most appropriate course of action for the CAE to take to preserve independence?

Options:

A.

Contract with the software vendor to provide an appropriate resource

B.

Ask for a knowledgeable resource from the IT department

C.

Make use of an external service provider.

D.

Request audit resources through the external auditor.

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Questions 160

Which of the following conditions are necessary for successful change management?

1. Decisions and necessary actions are taken promptly.

2. The traditions of the organization are respected.

3. Changes result in improvement or reform.

4. Internal and external communications are controlled.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Questions 161

An organization experiencing staff shortages wants to contract a temporary employee to assist with work in the accounting office. Which of the following controls should be in place to ensure the temporary employee performs the assigned work before payment is issued?

Options:

A.

A three-way match between the invoice, purchase requisition, and documentation of receipt of services

B.

A member of management approves the purchase requisition before the temporary employee begins work

C.

A scope of work for the temporary employee is included in the purchase requisition and signed by the organization

D.

Payments to the vendor are analyzed monthly to ensure they do not exceed the amount approved on the purchase order

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Questions 162

What is a control implication for an organization that adopts a flat structure?

Options:

A.

Mid-level employees are urged to innovate.

B.

Available time for supervision is limited.

C.

There are many hierarchical levels.

D.

The organizational structure is dispersed vertically.

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Questions 163

Which of the following would most likely form part of the engagement scope?

Options:

A.

Potential legislation on privacy topics will be employed as a compliance target O Wire transfers that exceeded $10,000 in the last 12 months will be analyzed.

B.

Both random and judgmental samplings will be used during the engagement

C.

The probability of significant errors will be considered via risk assessment.

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Questions 164

Management would like to self-assess the overall effectiveness of the controls in place for its 200-person manufacturing department Which of the following client-facilitated approaches is likely to be the most efficient way to accomplish this objective?

Options:

A.

Workshops.

B.

Surveys.

C.

Interviews.

D.

Observation.

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Questions 165

Which of the following best describes the risk contained in an initial public offering for a new stock?

Options:

A.

Residual risk.

B.

Net risk.

C.

Inherent risk.

D.

Underlying risk

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Questions 166

According to MA guidance, which of the following factors should an internal auditor consider when assessing the likelihood of fraud risk1?

Options:

A.

The effect on the organization ' s reputation

B.

Any potential damage to the organization ' s relationship with customers.

C.

Past fraud allegations and actual occurrences

D.

The potential and realized financial impacts

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Questions 167

Which of the following best describes the engagement objective in a banking compliance audit?

Options:

A.

Assessing the cost-efficiency of business continuity plans

B.

Assessing whether the business continuity plans implement regulatory requirements

C.

Assessing whether the business continuity plans implement best practice recommendations

D.

Assessing the operating effectiveness of the business continuity plans

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Questions 168

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true regarding audit supervision?

1. Supervision should be performed throughout the planning, examination, evaluation, communication, and follow-up stages of the audit engagement.

2. Supervision should extend to training, time reporting, and expense control, as well as administrative matters.

3. Supervision should include review of engagement workpapers, with documented evidence of the review.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

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Questions 169

According to IIA guidance which of the following statements is true regarding the annual audit plan?

Options:

A.

The annual audit plan should only be adjusted in response to problems with resourcing, scope, and data availability.

B.

The chief audit executive (CAE) may incorporate risk information, including risk appetite levels from management for the audit plan at her discretion.

C.

In an immature risk management environment it is preferable for the CAE to rely solely on her judgment regarding risk identification and assessment to develop the audit plan.

D.

The CAE may make adjustments to the annual audit plan as needed without senior management or board approval.

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Questions 170

Which of the following sampling techniques is typically used when an internal auditor wants to test a large sample for fraud?

Options:

A.

Stratified sampling

B.

Haphazard sampling

C.

Discovery sampling

D.

Probability-proportional-to-size sampling

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Questions 171

Which of the following statements is true regarding partnership liquidation?

Options:

A.

Operations can continue after the liquidation, if all partners agree.

B.

Partnership liquidation ends both the legal and economic life of an entity

C.

Partnership liquidation occurs when there is capital deficiency.

D.

When a partnership Is liquidated, each partner pays creditors from cash received

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Questions 172

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true when the internal audit activity is asked to investigate potential ethics violations in a foreign subsidiary?

Options:

A.

Communication of any internal ethics violations to external parties may occur with appropriate safeguards.

B.

Cultural impacts are less critical where the organization practices uniform polices around the globe.

C.

Cross-cultural differences should always be handled by the staff of the same cultural background.

D.

Local law enforcement should be involved as they are more familiar with the applicable local laws.

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Questions 173

Which of the following is more likely to be present in a highly centralized organization?

Options:

A.

The ability to make rapid changes

B.

Micromanagement

C.

Empowered employees

D.

Authority pushed downward

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Questions 174

A senior IT auditor is performing an audit of inventory valuation. The auditor misinterprets the sampling results. Which of the following best describes this situation?

Options:

A.

Sampling risk.

B.

Control risk.

C.

Nonsampling risk.

D.

Residual risk.

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Questions 175

Which of the following factors should a chief audit executive consider when determining the audit universe?

1. Components of the organization ' s strategic plan.

2. Inputs from senior management and the board.

3. Views of competitors and business associates.

4. Results of exit interviews with departing employees.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Questions 176

An internal auditor completed a consulting engagement covering a recent advertising campaign. The audit client asked the auditor to forward a copy of the report to one of the three advertising agencies used by the organization. According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding this request?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor may communicate the results to the advertising agency as instructed by the audit client, with approval from the chief audit executive.

B.

The internal auditor may not communicate the results to this external party regardless of the engagement client ' s instruction.

C.

The internal auditor may send the report and is required to include instructions for the advertising agency to limit further distribution and the use of results.

D.

The internal auditor may only communicate the results verbally to the advertising agency and should not provide a hard copy.

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Questions 177

A chief audit executive (CAE) reviews the supervision of an internal audit engagement Which of the following would most likely assure the CAE that the engagement had adequate supervision?

Options:

A.

The engagement supervisor has an open door pokey for audit team members to discuss concerns

B.

The supervisor reviews weekly progress reports from the audit team members

C.

The supervisor reviews and initials internal audit workpapers for the engagement

D.

The supervisor meets periodically with management in the reviewed area to get feedback during the engagement.

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Questions 178

An internal auditor wants to determine whether the key risks identified by management in the risk register are reflective of the key risks in the industry. Which of the following techniques would the auditor apply to achieve this goal?

Options:

A.

Perform benchmarking

B.

Perform a trend analysis

C.

Perform a ratio analysis

D.

Perform observation to gather evidence

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Questions 179

A newly promoted chief audit executive (CAE) is faced with a backlog of assurance engagement reports to review for approval. In an attempt to attach a priority for this review, the CAE scans the opinion statement on each report. According to IIA guidance, which of the following opinions would receive the lowest review priority?

1. Graded positive opinion.

2. Negative assurance opinion.

3. Limited assurance opinion.

4. Third-party opinion.

Options:

A.

1 and 3

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Questions 180

What is the purpose of an internal control questionnaire?

Options:

A.

To gather information from a sample of people who are geographically dispersed

B.

To assess risks that could prevent an audited area from achieving its objectives.

C.

To evaluate tie level of compliance of remote offices with centrally designed procedures

D.

To perform testing of controls more frequently

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Questions 181

During an engagement in one of the subsidiaries of an organization, an internal auditor noted the following in the workpapers:

" As a subsidiary of a multinational organization in this particular country, the entity is required to register annually with the

respective ministry. However, the subsidiary did not submit the required documentation for registration during the prior year. Failure

to comply with internal and external regulations could lead to penalties or fines from the respective authorities. It is recommended

that the management of the subsidiary ensures compliance with the relevant legislation. As a recoverable action, management

should register the subsidiary in the current year as soon as possible. "

What part of this narrative represents a condition of the observation made by auditors in the final report?

Options:

A.

" ... the subsidiary did not submit required documentation for registration in the prior year. "

B.

" ... the entity is required to register annually with the respective ministry. "

C.

" ... failure to comply with internal and external regulations might lead to penalties or fines from the respective authorities. "

D.

" ... management should register the subsidiary in the current year as soon as possible. "

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Questions 182

A chief audit executive (CAE) determined that management chose to accept a high-level risk that may be unacceptable lo the organization. Which is the best course of action for the CAE to Follow?

Options:

A.

Include using in a subsequent audit to determine if the risks are still present

B.

Discuss the matter with senior management and it not reserved with the board

C.

Require that management implement controls to mitigate lie risks

D.

Report the risks to the process owners so that they can modify their process

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Questions 183

An internal auditor uses a data query tool in the purchasing process to review the vendor master file for authorizations Which of the following describes the control objective likely being tested?

Options:

A.

Effectiveness

B.

Response

C.

Efficiency

D.

Mitigation.

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Questions 184

Which of the following is one of the advantages of organizing the risk universe by processes?

Options:

A.

Interfaces between organizational units are captured during audits by processes

B.

Audits by processes are less time-consuming

C.

During audits by processes, managers are more open at interviews

D.

The advantage of audits by processes is true completeness

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Questions 185

According to IIA guidance, which of the following strategies would add the least value to the achievement of the internal audit activity ' s (IAA ' s) objectives?

Options:

A.

Align organizational activities to internal audit activities and measure according to the approved IAA performance measures.

B.

Establish a periodic review of monitoring and reporting processes to help ensure relevant IAA reporting.

C.

Use the results of IAA engagement and advisory reporting to guide current and future internal audit activities.

D.

Establish a format and frequency for IAA reporting that is appropriate and aligns with the organization ' s governance structure.

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Questions 186

The board has asked the internal audit activity (IAA) to be involved in the organization ' s enterprise risk management process. Which of the following activities is appropriate for IAA to perform without safeguards?

Options:

A.

Coach management in responding to risks.

B.

Develop risk management strategies for board approval.

C.

Facilitate identification and evaluation of risks.

D.

Evaluate risk management processes.

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Questions 187

Acceding to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the risk assessment process performed by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The assessment of high-level risks is typically a linear process.

B.

Management should create the preliminary risk matrix

C.

The analysis should begin with ne identification of objectives

D.

Likelihood should receive greater consideration than impact

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Questions 188

The chief audit executive (CAE) is developing a workpaper preparation policy for a new internal audit activity. The CAE wants to ensure that all workpapers relate directly to the engagement objectives. Which of the following statements should be included in the policy specifically to address this concern?

Options:

A.

The workpapers should be understandable.

B.

The workpapers should be relevant.

C.

The workpapers should be economical.

D.

The workpapers should be complete.

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Questions 189

Which of the following statements is most accurate with respect to the required elements of the quality assurance and improvement program?

Options:

A.

Internal assessments provide sufficient objectivity to provide evidence to the board that the internal audit activity understands the organization ' s control processes.

B.

Quality assessments focus on the internal audit activity’s structure, relationships with stakeholders, compliance with the Standards, and internal audit staff proficiency.

C.

in order to comply with the Standards, the internal audit activity must obtain an objective assessment of its processes and function at least once a year

D.

Internal auditors completing internal assessments must demonstrate certification to perform quality assessments

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Questions 190

During the planning phase of an assurance engagement, which of the following would an internal auditor use to assess and present the severity of the impact of identified risks?

Options:

A.

Kanban board

B.

Control self-assessment

C.

Heat map

D.

Risk register

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Questions 191

An audit identified a number of weaknesses in the configuration of a critical client/server system. Although some of the weaknesses were corrected prior to the issuance of the audit report, correction of the rest will require between 6 and 18 months for completion. Consequently, management has developed a detailed action plan, with anticipated completion dates, for addressing the weaknesses. What is the most appropriate course of action for the chief audit executive to take?

Options:

A.

Assess the status of corrective action during a follow-up audit engagement after the action plan has been completed.

B.

Assess the effectiveness of corrections by reviewing statistics related to unplanned system outages, and denials of service.

C.

Reassign information systems auditors to assist in implementing management ' s action plan.

D.

Evaluate the ability of the action plan to correct the weaknesses and monitor key dates and deliverables.

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Questions 192

The chief audit executive (CAE) should determine whether the internal audit activity has confirmed the status of all of management ' s corrective actions Doing so would help the CAE assess which of the following?

Options:

A.

Disclosure risk.

B.

Residual risk

C.

Compliance risk

D.

Inherent risk

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Questions 193

An internal auditor is planning a consuming engagement and the objective is to identify opportunities to improve the efficiency of the organization’s procurement process. The auditor is preparing to conduct a preliminary survey of the area. Which of the following approaches would be most useful to obtain relevant information to support the engagement objective?

Options:

A.

Complete a transaction walkthrough fiat focuses on the design and operation of financial reporting controls

B.

Conduct interviews with senior management to obtain their input and insights regarding operational controls.

C.

Perform a comprehensive review of the organization s existing policies and standard operating procedures.

D.

Review the procurement process map w*h employees who carry out key activities to obtain their input and insights.

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Questions 194

Which of the following represents the best example of a strategic goal?

Options:

A.

Customer satisfaction index has to be 90% each quarter.

B.

Ten rapid charging stations will be installed next year.

C.

The organization aims to decrease the budget by 10%.

D.

The organization will be carbon neutral within 5 years.

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Questions 195

What is the primary objective of an engagement supervisor ' s review of key activities performed during the engagement?

Options:

A.

To ensure that the engagement is completed on time and within budget

B.

To ensure that all work performed meets acceptable quality standards

C.

To ensure that management has provided suitable responses to all observations

D.

To ensure that management is satisfied with the progress of the engagement

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Questions 196

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal controls?

Options:

A.

For assurance engagements internal auditors should plan to assess the effectiveness of all entity-level controls

B.

Poorly designed or deficient entity-level controls can prevent well-designed process controls from working as intended.

C.

During engagement planning, internal auditors should not discuss the identified key risks and controls with management of the area under review to prevent tipping off probable audit lasts

D.

Reviewing process maps and flowcharts is an appropriate method for the internal a auditor to identify all key risks and controls during engagement planning

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Questions 197

What is the most likely reason an internal auditor would interview operational management during engagement planning?

Options:

A.

To validate the engagement work program.

B.

To help the internal auditor understand the objectives of the area or process under review.

C.

To determine whether operational management has sufficient knowledge of risks and controls.

D.

To determine whether management followed through on action plans from a previous consulting engagement.

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Questions 198

Which of the following is most likely the subject of a periodic report from the chief audit executive to the board?

Options:

A.

A complete, accurate, and comprehensive account of engagement observations and recommendations.

B.

Oversight of the coordination between the internal audit activity and independent outside auditors.

C.

The internal audit activity ' s purpose, authority, responsibility, and performance relative to plan.

D.

Management ' s assertions regarding the system of internal controls.

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Questions 199

Which of the following is not a primary reason for outsourcing a portion of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

To gain access to a wider variety of skills, competencies and best practices.

B.

To complement existing expertise with a required skill and competency for a particular audit engagement.

C.

To focus on and strengthen core audit competencies.

D.

To provide the organization with appropriate contingency planning for the internal audit function.

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Questions 200

Which of the following statements describes an engagement planning best practice?

Options:

A.

It is best to determine planning activities on a case-by-case basis because they can vary widely from engagement to engagement.

B.

If the engagement subject matter is not unique, it is not necessary to outline specific testing procedures during the planning phase.

C.

The engagement plan includes the expected distribution of the audit results, which should be kept confidential until the audit report is final.

D.

Engagement planning activities include setting engagement objectives that align with audit client ' s business objectives.

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Questions 201

Senior management decides to adopt a conservative working capital policy. What would be the expected result for the organization?

Options:

A.

Low levels of inventory

B.

Higher level of profitability

C.

High level of liquidity

D.

Higher level of risk

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Questions 202

Which of the following is an example of a properly supervised engagement?

Options:

A.

Auditors are asked to keep a daily record of their activity for review by the auditor in charge following the engagement.

B.

The senior internal auditor requires each auditor to review and initial colleagues ' workpapers for completeness and format.

C.

A new internal auditor is accompanied by an experienced auditor during a highly sensitive fraud investigation.

D.

The auditor in charge provides reasonable assurance that engagement objectives were met.

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Questions 203

The chief audit executive (CAE) determined that the internal audit activity lacks the resources needed to complete the internal audit plan Which of the following would be the most appropriate action tor the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Use guest auditors from within the organization, and leverage their experience by assigning them to lead engagements m areas where they previously worked

B.

Outsource some of the audits to the organization s external auditor who is already familiar with the organization

C.

Invite nonauditors to join the internal audit activity for a two-year rotational position, and assign them to join audit teams that are reviewing areas where they have no previous management responsibility

D.

Recruit recent college graduates and employ them as audit interns with an aim to offer permanent employment

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Questions 204

A company makes a product at a cost of $26 per unit, of which $10 is fixed cost. The product is usually sold for $30 per unit; however, the company has been approached by a new customer who would like to purchase 3,500 units for $18 each Further, the company would Incur additional cost to deliver the units to this customer If the company has the excess manufacturing capacity and all other factors are constant, what is the additional cost that the company would Incur in order to make a profit of $1.50 per unit for this order?

Options:

A.

$0.50

B.

$1.50

C.

$2 50

D.

$3.50

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Questions 205

An internal auditor is tasked with evaluating the adequacy of the organization ' s inventory fraud controls. What is the most relevant information that the auditor can obtain from the documentation of cyclic counting for this purpose?

Options:

A.

Accounting adjustments of inventories are approved by the management in accordance with a signature policy

B.

Root causes of inventory differences are analyzed and corrective measures are followed

C.

High value items are inventoried more frequently throughout the year

D.

Value of accounting adjustments matches with the value of inventory differences and are made in a timely manner

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Questions 206

An internal audit activity plans its engagements based on an organization-wide risk assessment. According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the required frequency of the risk assessment?

Options:

A.

The risk assessment must be performed at least quarterly.

B.

The risk assessment must be performed at least annually.

C.

The risk assessment must be performed at least once every five years, in alignment with the internal audit activity ' s quality assurance and improvement program.

D.

There is no specific requirement; a risk assessment should be performed as needed to account for changes in the business environment.

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Questions 207

An internal auditor is testing the success of the IT support department in meeting the service levels guaranteed to small, medium and large customers. The customer ' s size classification is based on its annual expenditures with the organization and the nature and extent of services it receives. Which of the following sampling techniques would be the most suitable to select customers for this test?

Options:

A.

Interval sampling

B.

Cluster sampling

C.

Stop-and-go sampling

D.

Stratified sampling

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Questions 208

According to the IIA guidance, which of the following foes the engagement work test in a review in a review of an organization al process?

Options:

A.

Process objectives

B.

Process risks

C.

Process controls

D.

Process scope

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Questions 209

The human resources (HR) department was last reviewed three years ago and is due for an assurance engagement after undergoing recent process changes. Which of the following would the most effective option identify the HR department ' s risks and controls?

Options:

A.

Meet with the chief operating officer 10 obtain Information about the MR department

B.

Review the previous internal audit report and locus on key audit observations and action plans

C.

Review the organization ' s risk strategy and risk appetite framework

D.

Discuss the department ' s present strategies ‘and objectives with the head of the HR department

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Questions 210

After the team member who specialized in fraud investigations left the internal audit team, the chief audit executive decided to outsource fraud investigations to a third party service provider on an as needed basis. Which of the following is most likely to be a disadvantage of this outsourcing decision?

Options:

A.

Cost.

B.

Independence.

C.

Familiarity.

D.

Flexibility.

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Questions 211

Which of the following is the primary reason the chief audit executive should consider the organization ' s strategic plans when developing the annual audit plan?

Options:

A.

Strategic plans reflect the organization ' s business objectives and overall attitude toward risk.

B.

Strategic plans are helpful to identify major areas of activity, which may direct the allocation of internal audit activity resources.

C.

Strategic plans are likely to show areas of weak financial controls.

D.

The strategic plan is a relatively stable document on which to base audit planning.

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Questions 212

The internal audit activity is asked to review the effectiveness of controls around the disposal of chemical waste. However, the internal auditors on staff lack the necessary skills to conduct this review Which of the following would be the most appropriate approach?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor who recently attended a three-day workshop on chemical waste disposal, and therefore has the most knowledge on the topic, should lead the engagement.

B.

A team of available internal auditors should be assembled and should consult with an external nonaudit expert on chemical waste disposal to plan and conduct the engagement.

C.

A team of the most knowledgeable auditors could be assembled and use the engagement work program from the previous year to gather additional insight regarding recommended audit procedures

D.

A nonaudit employee from the chemical disposal area may share his expertise with the audit team, provided the internal audit manager conducts a detailed review of all engagement work performed.

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Questions 213

A customer has supplied personal information to a bank to facilitate opening an account. The bank is part of a larger group of companies with core businesses including general insurance, life insurance, and investment products. Considering that the customer has closed his only account with the bank and the statutory data retention period has elapsed, which of the following actions by the bank is most likely to align with appropriate data privacy principles?

Options:

A.

The bank destroys all records containing a customer ' s personal information without informing the customer.

B.

Based on an assessment of likely products of interest to the customer, the bank shares the customer’s personal information with other companies within the group and informs the customer.

C.

The bank retains customer information to facilitate easier verification of personal information in the event that the customer returns to reopen his account. The customer is not informed.

D.

The customer ' s personal information is used for market research by an external company and the customer is informed prior to publishing the results of the market research.

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Questions 214

An internal auditor wants to determine if employees spend more than their approved daily stipend for meals. Which technique would be most appropriate to identify meal expenses that exceed the approved threshold?

Options:

A.

Using compliance verification data analytics

B.

Using regression analysis

C.

Using software with a gap testing function

D.

Drafting a flowchart of the meal expense reporting process

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Questions 215

Which of the following parties is accountable for ensuring adequate support for conclusions and opinions readied by the internal audit activity while relying on external auditors ' work?

Options:

A.

Board of directors

B.

External auditors

C.

Chief audit executive

D.

Senior management

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Questions 216

An internal auditor completes a series of engagement steps and is ready to turn in the workpapers for the engagement supervisor’s review. The auditor has additional, separate notes about the engagement and is unsure what to do with them. The workpapers are complete and contain sufficient information to support the engagement work. What should the auditor do with the additional notes, according to IIA guidance?

Options:

A.

Include them in the workpapers for the engagement supervisor’s review.

B.

Omit them from the workpapers.

C.

There is no guidance on the inclusion of additional notes with workpapers.

D.

Retain them after the engagement is completed.

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Questions 217

A rapidly expanding retail organization continues to be tightly controlled by its original small management team. Which of the following is a potential risk in this vertically centralized organization?

Options:

A.

Lack of coordination among different business units

B.

Operational decisions are inconsistent with organizational goals.

C.

Suboptimal decision-making.

D.

Duplication of business activities.

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Questions 218

Which of the following is true of matrix organizations?

Options:

A.

A unity-of-command concept requires employees to report technically, functionally, and administratively to the same manager.

B.

A combination of product and functional departments allows management to utilize personnel from various functions.

C.

Authority, responsibility, and accountability of the units involved may vary based on the projects life, or the organization ' s culture.

D.

it is best suited for firms with scattered locations or for multi-line, large-scale firms.

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Questions 219

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate action to be taken by the chief executive (CAE) if management refuses to accept audit recommendations and implement corrective actions, Even after escalation to senior management?

Options:

A.

The CAE should continue to meet with management to obtain their agreement for corrective action

B.

The CAE should note in the final report that management has decided to accept the risk.

C.

The CAE should ask that additional testing be undertaken to strengthen his case as to the need for corrective action.

D.

The CAE should advise senior management of his intention to escalate the matter to the board.

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Questions 220

Below is a flowchart detailing an organization ' s bank reconciliation process. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the flowchart?

220

Options:

A.

There is a conflict in the segregation of duties between preparing bank reconciliations and posting payments to the accounting books.

B.

There is an appropriate segregation of duties in the treasury department during the bank reconciliation process.

C.

There is a large workload for the treasury accountant during the bank reconciliation process.

D.

Bank statements should be obtained at a higher level, such as through the treasury supervisor.

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Questions 221

Which of the following statements is true regarding corporate social responsibility (CSR)?

Options:

A.

Many of the areas explored by CSR are normally included in an audit universe or annual audit plan

B.

Despite significant corporate resources spent on CSR reporting, investors generally do not rely on CSR information.

C.

Unlike many other areas of reporting responsibilities impacting stakeholders, CSR is largely voluntary.

D.

Typically, operating management does not have a major role to play based on the public nature of reporting

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Questions 222

According to HA guidance, which of the following statements regarding audit workpapers is true?

Options:

A.

Audit reports should include the workpapers as a reference for the audit conclusions.

B.

The internal auditor ' s workpapers are the primary reference for reported control deficiencies.

C.

Ad-hoc communications with management of the area under review should be excluded from the workpapers.

D.

Both draft and final versions of workpapers should be saved at the end of the engagement

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Questions 223

The internal audit activity is planning an assurance engagement for a foreign subsidiary. According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be included in the preliminary communication to management of the area under review?

Options:

A.

The scope of the engagement, the estimated time frame, and the names of the auditors.

B.

The estimated time frame, the names of the auditors, and the resources and travel budget.

C.

The names of the auditors, the resources and travel budget, and the scope of the engagement.

D.

The resources and travel budget, the scope of the engagement, and the estimated time frame.

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Questions 224

Which of the following is a detective control for managing the risk of fraud?

Options:

A.

Awareness of prior incidents of fraud.

B.

Contractor non-disclosure agreements.

C.

Verification of currency exchange rates.

D.

Receipts for employee expenses.

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Exam Code: IIA-CIA-Part2
Exam Name: Internal Audit Engagement
Last Update: Jul 26, 2026
Questions: 747

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