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NCLEX-PN Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

Increased cortisol levels might be found in a client with which condition?

Options:

A.

Cushing’s syndrome

B.

Addison’s disease

C.

renal failure

D.

congestive heart failure

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Questions 5

Which of the following is not a function of parathyroid hormone?

Options:

A.

moving calcium from bones to the bloodstream

B.

promoting renal tubular reabsorption of phosphorus

C.

promoting renal tubular reabsorption of calcium

D.

enhancing renal production of vitamin D metabolites

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Questions 6

In infants and children, the side effects of firstgeneration over-the counter (OTC) antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine (Benedryl) and hydroxyzine (Atarax), can include:

Options:

A.

Reye’s syndrome.

B.

cholinergic effects.

C.

paradoxical CNS stimulation.

D.

nausea and diarrhea.

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Questions 7

A standard walker is used when clients:

Options:

A.

have poor balance, cannot stand up, have weak arms, and have good hand strength.

B.

have poor balance, have a broken leg, or have experienced amputation.

C.

have poor balance, have cardiac problems, or cannot use crutches or a cane.

D.

have poor balance, have an autoimmune disease, or have weak arms.

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Questions 8

Which of the following medications should be held 24–48 hours prior to an electroencephalogram (EEG)?

Options:

A.

Lasix (furosemide)

B.

Cardizem (diltiazem)

C.

Lanoxin (digoxin)

D.

Dilantin (phenytoin)

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Questions 9

Which of the following is not a primary function of the kidneys?

Options:

A.

blood pressure control

B.

vitamin D activation

C.

erythropoietin production

D.

reabsorbing waste products

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Questions 10

Support systems during the grieving process include all of the following except:

Options:

A.

a despondent friend.

B.

a nurse.

C.

a social worker.

D.

a family member.

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Questions 11

All of the following are causes of vaginal bleeding in late pregnancy except:

Options:

A.

placenta previa.

B.

eclampsia.

C.

abruptio placentae.

D.

uterine rupture.

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Questions 12

Elderly persons with pernicious anemia should be instructed:

Options:

A.

to increase their dietary intake of foods high in B12.

B.

that they do not need to return for follow-up for at least a month after initiation of treatment.

C.

that oral B12 is safer and less expensive than parenteral replacement.

D.

that diarrhea can be a transient side effect of B12 injections.

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Questions 13

The nurse is turning a client who has a new prosthetic hip. Which position should be avoided to prevent injury to the new prosthetic hip?

Options:

A.

abduction of the hip

B.

adduction of the hip

C.

flexing the hip at 80° flexion

D.

flexing the hip at 90°

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Questions 14

A client with cirrhosis of the liver presents with ascites. The physician is to perform a parancentesis. For safety, the nurse should ask the client to:

Options:

A.

drink 1000 cc prior to the procedure to affect fluid loss.

B.

eat foods low in fat.

C.

empty his bladder prior to the procedure.

D.

assume the prone position.

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Questions 15

When a couple experiencing infertility presents for a fertility workup, which of the following procedures should the nurse prepare the couple to have first?

Options:

A.

hysterosalpingography

B.

semen analysis

C.

endometrial biopsy

D.

transvaginal ultrasound

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Questions 16

Which of the following home-care strategies is most likely to negatively impact the body image of a client with Cushing’s syndrome?

Options:

A.

providing safety measures to prevent falls

B.

taking medications as prescribed

C.

wearing a medical ID indicating Cushing’s syndrome

D.

having regular health assessments

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Questions 17

Pain tolerance in an elderly client with cancer should:

Options:

A.

Stay the same.

B.

Decrease.

C.

Increase.

D.

Cancer should have no effect on pain tolerance for an elderly client.

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Questions 18

The nurse should make which of the following responses when questioned by a client about the role of leptin in the body?

Options:

A.

It increases food intake in clients, thereby promoting obesity.

B.

It assists in the regulation of steroids.

C.

It increases the total fat mass of people who are obese.

D.

It might decrease the total fat mass in the bodies of people who are obese.

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Questions 19

Some drugs are excreted into bile and delivered to the intestines. Prior to elimination from the body, the drug might be absorbed. This process is known as:

Options:

A.

hepatic clearance.

B.

total clearance.

C.

enterohepatic cycling.

D.

first-pass effect.

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Questions 20

Activities of effective supervisors can be taskrelated or people-related activities. An example of a task-related supervisory activity is:

Options:

A.

coaching.

B.

evaluating.

C.

delegating.

D.

facilitating.

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Questions 21

A hospitalized adult client who routinely works from midnight until 8 a.m. has a temperature of 99.1° F at 4 a.m. The nurse determines that this is most likely due to:

Options:

A.

delta sleep

B.

slow brain waves

C.

pneumonia

D.

circadian rhythm

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Questions 22

A client is assessed by the nurse as experiencing a crisis. The nurse plans to:

Options:

A.

allow the client to work through independent problem-solving.

B.

complete an in-depth evaluation of stressors and responses to the situation.

C.

focus on immediate stress reduction.

D.

recommend ongoing therapy.

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Questions 23

A client asks the nurse if all donor blood products are cross-matched with the recipient to prevent a transfusion reaction. Which of the following always requires cross-matching?

Options:

A.

packed red blood cells

B.

platelets

C.

plasma

D.

granulocytes

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Questions 24

Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:

Options:

A.

primary prevention.

B.

secondary prevention.

C.

tertiary prevention.

D.

disability prevention.

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Questions 25

All of the following tasks could be delegated to a nursing assistant or unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) except:

Options:

A.

monitoring intravenous infusion.

B.

assisting a client to the bathroom.

C.

offering fluid intake every 1–2 hours.

D.

monitoring/recording the amount of fluid taken.

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Questions 26

A client’s central venous access device (CVAD) becomes infected. Why might the physician order antibiotics to be given through the line rather than through a peripheral IV line?

Options:

A.

to prevent infiltration of the peripheral line

B.

to reduce the pain and discomfort associated with antibiotic administration in a small vein

C.

to lessen the chance of an allergic reaction to the antibiotic

D.

to attempt to eliminate microorganisms in the catheter and prevent having to remove it

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Questions 27

The nurse is teaching a client about sleep and gives background information on normal sleep patterns. Which of the following substances promotes sleep?

Options:

A.

serotonin

B.

cortisone

C.

alcohol

D.

narcotics

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Questions 28

Which of the following needs immediate medical attention and emergency intervention? The client who:

Options:

A.

complains of sharp pain upon taking a deep breath and excessive coughing.

B.

exhibits yellow, productive sputum, lowgrade fever, and crackles.

C.

has a shift of the trachea to the left, with no breath sounds on the right.

D.

has asthma and complains of an inability to catch her breath after exercise.

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Questions 29

The primary organ for drug elimination is the:

Options:

A.

skin.

B.

lung(s).

C.

kidney(s).

D.

liver.

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Questions 30

The advanced directive in a client’s chart is dated August 12, 1998.The client’s daughter produces a Power of Attorney for Health Care, dated 2003, which contains different care direction(s). The nurse is supposed to:

Options:

A.

follow the 1998 version because it’s part of the legal chart.

B.

follow the 1998 version because the physician’s code order is based on it.

C.

follow the 2003 version, place it in the chart, and communicate the update appropriately.

D.

follow neither until clarified by the unitmanager.

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Questions 31

A community health nurse is asked to organize a health promotion project that plans to provide glucose screening. This activity is most beneficial within what realm?

Options:

A.

testing that is performed by volunteers at a local department store and is open to the public

B.

at a professional health fair activity available for selected persons who have been screened as being at risk

C.

mass-marketing vouchers for free fingersticks at a local drug store, where the pharmacist makes recommendations on the findings

D.

testing that is performed by a nurse professional, who immediately provides education regarding the findings

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Questions 32

How many temporary teeth should the nurse expect to find in a 5-year-old client’s mouth?

Options:

A.

up to 10

B.

up to 15

C.

up to 20

D.

up to 32

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Questions 33

A client goes to the mental health center for difficulty concentrating, insomnia, and nightmares. The client reports being raped as a child. The nurse should assess the client for further signs of:

Options:

A.

general anxiety disorder.

B.

schizophrenia.

C.

post-traumatic stress disorder.

D.

bipolar disorder.

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Questions 34

In the process of an annual physical exam, a client is diagnosed with Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy (BPH). This client is likely to have a consult with which type of physician?

Options:

A.

gynecologist

B.

physiatrist

C.

urologist

D.

proctologist

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Questions 35

Who should receive the hepatitis A vaccine?

Options:

A.

children who are 18 months of age

B.

infants, who should receive the vaccination at birth

C.

people who travel to other countries

D.

individuals who might come into contact with blood

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Questions 36

The chemotherapeutic DNA alkylating agents such as nitrogen mustards are effective because they:

Options:

A.

cross-link DNA strands with covalent bonds between alkyl groups on the drug and guanine bases on DNA.

B.

have few, if any, side effects.

C.

are used to treat multiple types of cancer.

D.

are cell-cycle-specific agents.

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Questions 37

Quality is defined as a combination of all of the following except:

Options:

A.

conforming to standards.

B.

performing at the minimally acceptable level.

C.

meeting or exceeding customer requirements.

D.

exceeding customer expectations.

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Questions 38

The nurse is working with families who have been displaced by a fire in an apartment complex. What is the priority intervention during the initial assessment?

Options:

A.

Provide a liaison to meet housing needs.

B.

Attentively listen when clients describe their feelings.

C.

Offer nurturing support for clients who are confused by the events.

D.

Provide structure for clients exhibiting moderate to severe anxiety.

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Questions 39

Fat emulsions are frequently administered as a part of total parenteral nutrition. Which statement is true regarding fat emulsions?

Options:

A.

They have a high energy-to-fluid-volume ratio.

B.

Even though hypertonic, they are well tolerated.

C.

They are a basic solution secondary to the addition of sodium hydroxide (NaOH).

D.

The pH is alkaline, making them compatible with most medications.

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Questions 40

The nurse teaching an obese client about nutritional needs and weight loss should include all of the following except:

Options:

A.

knowledge of food and food products.

B.

development of a positive mental attitude.

C.

adequate exercise.

D.

starting a fast weight-loss diet.

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Questions 41

The 24-hour day-night cycle is known as:

Options:

A.

circadian rhythm.

B.

infradium rhythm.

C.

ultradian rhythm.

D.

non-REM rhythm.

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Questions 42

A client states, “I eat a well-balanced diet. I do not smoke. I exercise regularly, and I have a yearly checkup with my physician. What else can I do to help prevent cancer?” The nurse should respond with which of the following statements?

Options:

A.

Sleep at least 6–8 hours a night.

B.

Practice monthly self-breast examination.

C.

Reduce stress.

D.

All of the above.

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Questions 43

What is the primary theory that explains a family’s concept of health and illness?

Options:

A.

Health Belief Model

B.

Education-School-Completing Factor

C.

Family Health Expert Factor

D.

Disconnected Family Factor

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Questions 44

Rehabilitation services begin:

Options:

A.

when the client enters the health care system.

B.

after the client requests rehabilitation services.

C.

after the client’s physical condition stabilizes.

D.

when the client is discharged from the hospital.

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Questions 45

Central venous access devices (CVADs) are frequently utilized to administer chemotherapy. What is an advantage of using CVADs for chemotherapeutic agent administration?

Options:

A.

CVADs are less expensive than a peripheral IV.

B.

Weekly administration is possible.

C.

Chemotherapeutic agents can be caustic to smaller veins.

D.

The client or family can administer the drug at home.

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Questions 46

The most common cause of injury from a house fire is:

Options:

A.

explosion.

B.

falls from second-story windows.

C.

thermal damage to skin and body surfaces.

D.

inhalation injury.

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Questions 47

A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

Options:

A.

naloxone (Narcan).

B.

labetalol (Normodyne).

C.

neostigmine (Prostigmin).

D.

thiothixene (Navane).

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Questions 48

A 57-year-old woman is recently widowed. She states, “I will never be able to learn how to manage the finances. My husband did all of that.” Select the nurse’s response that could help raise the client’s self-esteem.

Options:

A.

“You feel inadequate because you have never learned to balance a checkbook.”

B.

“You should have insisted your husband teach you about the finances.”

C.

“You are strong and will learn how to manage your finances after awhile.”

D.

“Why don’t you take a class in basic finance from the local college?”

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Questions 49

Ethical and moral issues concerning restraints include all of the following except:

Options:

A.

emotional impact on the client and family.

B.

dignity of the client.

C.

client’s quality of life.

D.

policies and procedures.

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Questions 50

At what point in the nurse-client relationship should termination first be addressed?

Options:

A.

in the working phase

B.

in the termination phase

C.

in the orientation phase

D.

when the client initially brings up the topic

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Questions 51

In performing a psychosocial assessment, the nurse begins by asking questions that encourage the client to describe problematic behaviors and situations. The next step is to elicit the client’s:

Options:

A.

feelings about what has been described.

B.

thoughts about what has been described.

C.

possible solutions to the problem.

D.

intent in sharing the description.

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Questions 52

An adult who had been abused as a child is discussing the group therapy program. Which statement indicates that the client has gained insight?

Options:

A.

“I think I was a lonely child because I could not tell anyone about my abuse.”

B.

“I am now aware of how deep-seated my anger is. Before I did not realize I was angry.”

C.

“The program has given me the courage to tell my mother how I felt about her role in my hurt.”

D.

“There are so many people just like me, who are just normal people that had bad things happen to them.”

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Questions 53

Signs of internal bleeding include all of the following except:

Options:

A.

painful or swollen extremities.

B.

a tender, rigid abdomen.

C.

vomiting bile.

D.

bruising.

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Questions 54

Which of the following motions is identified with the corresponding action?

(Action- Turning palm of hand over to face in the anterior direction, dorsum of the hand is pointed downward toward the floor.)

Options:

A.

Pronation

B.

Supination

C.

Abduction

D.

Adduction

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Questions 55

A patient has recently been prescribed Albuterol. Which of the following changes are not associated with Albuterol?

Options:

A.

Tachycardia

B.

Hypertension

C.

Bronchodilation

D.

Sensory changes

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Questions 56

Why is it often necessary to draw a complete blood count and differential (CBC/differential) when a client is being treated with an antiepileptic drug (AED)?

Options:

A.

The hematocrit is adversely affected because of an increased vascular volume.

B.

AEDs affect immune modulators increasing the risk of infection.

C.

AEDs induce white blood cell reduction.

D.

A side effect of some AEDs is blood dyscrasia.

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Questions 57

Which of the following statements should the nurse use to best describe a very low-calorie diet (VLCD) to a client?

Options:

A.

“This diet can be used when there is close medical supervision.”

B.

“This is a long-term treatment measure that assists obese people who can’t lose weight.”

C.

“The VLCD consists of solid food items that are pureed to facilitate digestion and absorption.”

D.

“A VLCD contains very little protein.”

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Questions 58

A 14 year-old boy has been admitted to a mental health unit for observation and treatment. The boy becomes agitated and starts yelling at nursing staff members. What should the nurse first response be?

Options:

A.

Create an atmosphere of seclusion for the boy according to procedures.

B.

Remove other patients from the area via wheelchairs for added speed.

C.

Ask the patient, “What is making you mad?”

D.

Ask the patient, “Why are you doing this, have you thought about what yourparents might say?”

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Questions 59

A patient is scheduled for electro-convulsive therapy treatment scheduled in the morning. What must the evening nurse do to provide the client ECT treatment possible?

Options:

A.

Patient signs an informed consent form

B.

Patient is given morning medications

C.

Patient gets a good night’s sleep

D.

Patient has a good breakfast

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Questions 60

A nurse is assessing a patient that has undergone a recent CABG. The nurse notices a mole with irregular edges with a bluish color. The nurse should:

Options:

A.

Recommend a dermatological consult to the MD.

B.

Note the location of the mole and contact the physician via the telephone.

C.

Note the location of the mole and follow-up with the attending physician viathe medical record and phone call.

D.

Remove the mole with a sharp’s debridement technique, following chargenurse approval.

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Questions 61

If your patient is acutely psychotic, which of the following independent nursing interventions would not be appropriate?

Options:

A.

Conveying calmness with one on one interaction

B.

Recognizing and dealing with your own feelings to prevent escalation of thepatient’s anxiety level

C.

Encourage client participation in group therapy

D.

Listen and identify causes of their behavior

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Questions 62

Acyclovir (Zovirax) is the agent of choice for which of the following infections?

Options:

A.

HIV

B.

AIDS

C.

candida

D.

herpes

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Questions 63

When giving an intramuscular injection to an infant. Which of the following sites is preferred?

Options:

A.

Ventrogluteal region

B.

Deltoid

C.

Vastus lateralis

D.

Dorsogluteal region

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Questions 64

A nurse is assessing a patient in the rehab unit at shift change. The patient has suffered a TBI 3 weeks ago. Which of the following is the most distinguishing characteristic of a neurological disturbance?

Options:

A.

LOC (level of consciousness)

B.

Short term memory

C.

+ Babinski sign

D.

+ Clonus sign

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Questions 65

During a well-baby check of a 6-month-old infant, the nurse notes abrasions and petechaie of the palate. The nurse should:

Options:

A.

inquire about foods the child is eating.

B.

ask about the possibility of sexual abuse.

C.

request to see the type of bottle used for feedings.

D.

question the parent about objects the child plays with.

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Questions 66

A nurse is caring for a patient in the step down unit. The patient has signs of increased intracranial pressure. Which of the following is not a sign of increased intracranial pressure?

Options:

A.

Bradycardia

B.

Increased pupil size bilaterally

C.

Change in LOC

D.

Vomiting

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Questions 67

A nurse is administering an antibiotic to a 4 year old girl, who does not have an identification bracelet. What action should the nurse take?

Options:

A.

Ask another staff member who the child is.

B.

Ask the child’s mother to state the child’s name.

C.

Ask the child for her name.

D.

Withhold the medication until an ID bracelet can be set-up.

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Questions 68

The ICU nurse caring for a client who has just been declared brain dead can expect to find evidence of the client’s wishes regarding organ donation:

Options:

A.

on the driver’s license of the client.

B.

in the client’s safety deposit box.

C.

in the client’s last will and testament.

D.

on the client’s insurance card.

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Questions 69

The sexually transmitted disease, sometimes referred to as the silent STD, that is more common than gonorrhea and a leading cause of PID is:

Options:

A.

genital herpes.

B.

trichomoniasis.

C.

syphilis.

D.

chlamydia.

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Questions 70

Which of the following describes the stages of domestic violence in an intimate relationship?

Options:

A.

happiness, crisis, angry outburst, intervention

B.

honeymoon period, escalation of stress, outburst, reconciliation

C.

acting out and making up

D.

peace and calm, angry outburst, peace and calm, denial

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Questions 71

Which physiologic mechanism best describes the function of the sodium-potassium pump?

Options:

A.

active transport

B.

diffusion

C.

filtration

D.

osmosis

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Questions 72

A client had a colostomy done one day ago. Which of the following is an abnormal finding when assessing the stoma?

Options:

A.

mild edema

B.

minimal bleeding

C.

rose color

D.

dark red color

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Questions 73

A client with jaundice has which skin color?

Options:

A.

pale

B.

ruddy

C.

yellow

D.

pink

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Questions 74

A Roman Catholic client is preparing to have magnetic resonance imaging. He wants to wear his metal crucifix pendant while he is receiving the test. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

Options:

A.

“Because it gives you comfort, you may wear it.”

B.

“It is a violation of religious rights to forbid it.”

C.

“I am sorry, but it is not safe for you to wear the crucifix during this test.”

D.

“You may wear it because it is important to you.”

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Questions 75

When discussing the patterns of use of alcohol and other drugs, the nurse should include which piece of information?

Options:

A.

Lifetime prevalence and intensity of alcohol use is greater in women than men.

B.

Hispanics and African Americans have higher levels of alcohol use than Caucasians.

C.

Overuse of alcohol and other drugs increases into the mid-20s, then levels off and decreases with age.

D.

Heavy use is more common in higher socioeconomic groups because they can afford to buy the drugs.

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Questions 76

Which of the following should not be included in the teaching for clients who take oral iron preparations?

Options:

A.

Mix the liquid iron preparation with antacids to reduce GI distress.

B.

Take the iron with meals if GI distress occurs.

C.

Liquid forms should be taken with a straw to avoid discoloration of tooth enamel.

D.

Oral forms should be taken with juice, not milk.

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Questions 77

Incidences of child abuse apperar to be higher in the African-American community and might be explained by:

Options:

A.

the increased number of African Americans viewing violence on television.

B.

more single-parent households in African- American communities.

C.

stricter child-rearing practices in African- American households.

D.

a higher occurrence of rage in African Americans.

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Questions 78

When suctioning a client, what is the usual amount of time the nurse should spend for each suction pass?

Options:

A.

2 seconds

B.

10 seconds

C.

20 seconds

D.

30 seconds

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Questions 79

Which of the following statements by an adult child of a client with late-stage Alzheimer’s disease indicates a need for further teaching by the nurse?

Options:

A.

“I should provide a regular schedule for toileting.”

B.

“I should talk to my father less because he can’t communicate.”

C.

“I should give my father oral care after every meal and bedtime.”

D.

“I should assist my father with eating and drinking.”

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Questions 80

Pressure ulcers usually occur:

Options:

A.

when clients are left in one position in bed for extended periods of time.

B.

when clients are underweight.

C.

when clients are overweight.

D.

only in underweight and overweight clients.

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Questions 81

Which of the following procedures describes an opening between the colon and abdominal wall?

Options:

A.

ileostomy

B.

jejunostomy

C.

colostomy

D.

cecostomy

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Questions 82

Which of the following strategies should the nurse include when planning care for children of migrant workers?

Options:

A.

Delay immunization because of acute illness.

B.

Provide parents with copies of medical records.

C.

Schedule preventive services at acute illness visits.

D.

Stress the importance of using one primary care provider.

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Questions 83

Regardless of their practice area, nurses should be concerned with:

Options:

A.

all drug-resistant bacteria.

B.

microorganisms that are critical.

C.

transmission of microorganisms.

D.

overprescription of bacteriostatic drugs.

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Questions 84

The method of splinting is always dictated by:

Options:

A.

location of the injury and whether it is open or closed.

B.

the severity of the client’s condition and the priority decision.

C.

the number of available rescuers and the type of splints.

D.

all of the above.

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Questions 85

Which statement best describes electrolytes in intracellular and extracellular fluid?

Options:

A.

There is a greater concentration of sodium in extracellular fluid and potassium in intracellular fluid.

B.

There is an equal concentration of sodium and potassium in extracellular fluid.

C.

There is a greater concentration of potassium in extracellular fluid and sodium in intracellular fluid.

D.

There is an equal concentration of sodium and potassium between intracellular and extracellular fluid.

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Questions 86

Which of the following statements is correct regarding rape?

Options:

A.

Most rapes are reported.

B.

Legally, a woman can be raped by her spouse.

C.

Prosecution and conviction for rape is easy.

D.

The most common location of rape is the victim’s own home.

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Questions 87

A child comes to the clinic with a skin rash. The maculopapular lesions are distributed around the mouth and have honey-colored drainage. The caregiver states that the rash is getting worse and seems to spread with the child’s scratching. Which of the following advisory comments should be given?

Options:

A.

The history and presentation might indicate chickenpox, a highly contagious disease.

B.

The lesions might indicate a noncontagious infection that does not require isolation.

C.

The history and presentation might indicate an infectious illness called impetigo.

D.

The lesions are not contagious unless others have open wounds or lesions themselves.

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Questions 88

Which isolation procedure will be followed for secretions and blood?

Options:

A.

Respiratory

B.

Standard Precautions

C.

Contact Isolation

D.

Droplet

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Questions 89

Someone who has received a recent tattoo should be screened for:

Options:

A.

tuberculosis.

B.

herpes.

C.

hepatitis.

D.

syphilis.

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Questions 90

The NSAID that is comparable to morphine in efficacy is:

Options:

A.

Feldene.

B.

Stodal.

C.

Toradol.

D.

Elavil.

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Questions 91

The nurse is teaching parents of a newborn about feeding their infant. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Options:

A.

Use the defrost setting on microwave ovensto warm bottles.

B.

When refrigerating formula, don’t feed the baby partially used bottles after 24 hours.

C.

When using formula concentrate, mix two parts water and one part concentrate.

D.

If a portion of one bottle is left for the next feeding, go ahead and add new formula to fill it.

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Questions 92

How often should the nurse change the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions?

Options:

A.

every 24 hours

B.

every 36 hours

C.

every 48 hours

D.

every 72 hours

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Questions 93

When helping a client gain insight into anxiety, the nurse should:

Options:

A.

help relate anxiety to specific behaviors.

B.

ask the client to describe events that precede increased anxiety.

C.

instruct the client to practice relaxation techniques.

D.

confront the client’s resistive behavior.

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Questions 94

Assessment of a client with a cast should include:

Options:

A.

capillary refill, warm toes, no discomfort.

B.

posterior tibial pulses, warm toes.

C.

moist skin essential, pain threshold.

D.

discomfort of the metacarpals.

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Questions 95

Assessment of the client with an arteriovenous fistula for hemodialysis should include:

Options:

A.

inspection for visible pulsation.

B.

palpation of thrill.

C.

percussion for dullness.

D.

auscultation of blood pressure.

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Questions 96

Which is the proper hand position for performing chest percussion?

Options:

A.

cup the hands

B.

use the side of the hands

C.

flatten the hands

D.

spread the fingers of both hands

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Questions 97

Which of the following methods of contraception is able to reduce the transmission of HIV and other STDs?

Options:

A.

intrauterine device (IUD)

B.

Norplant

C.

oral contraceptives

D.

vaginal sponge

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Questions 98

The nurse teaching about preventable diseases should emphasize the importance of getting the following vaccines:

Options:

A.

human papilloma virus, genital herpes, measles.

B.

pneumonia, HIV, mumps.

C.

syphilis, gonorrhea, pneumonia.

D.

polio, pertussis, measles.

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Questions 99

What is the primary nutritional deficiency of concern for a strict vegetarian?

Options:

A.

vitamin C

B.

vitamin B12

C.

vitamin E

D.

magnesium

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Questions 100

Following a classic cholecystectomy resection for multiple stones, the PACU nurse observes a serosanguious drainage on the dressing. The most appropriate intervention is to:

Options:

A.

notify the physician of the drainage.

B.

change the dressing.

C.

reinforce the dressing.

D.

apply an abdominal binder.

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Questions 101

A client who is immobilized secondary to traction is complaining of constipation. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to be ordered?

Options:

A.

Advil

B.

Anasaid

C.

Clinocil

D.

Colace

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Questions 102

A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) subsequent to an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?

Options:

A.

increased platelet count

B.

increased fibrinogen

C.

decreased fibrin split products

D.

decreased bleeding

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Questions 103

James returns home from school angry and upset because his teacher gave him a low grade on an assignment. After returning home from school, he kicks the dog. This coping mechanism is known as:

Options:

A.

denial.

B.

suppression.

C.

displacement.

D.

fantasy.

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Questions 104

A 20-year-old obese female client is preparing to have gastric bypass surgery for weight loss. She says to the nurse, “I need this surgery because nothing else I have done has helped me to lose weight.” Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

Options:

A.

“If you eat less, you can save some money.”

B.

“Exercise is a healthier way to lose weight.”

C.

“You should try the Atkins diet first.”

D.

“I respect your decision to choose surgery.”

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Questions 105

Which of the following lab values is associated with a decreased risk of cardiovascular disease?

Options:

A.

high HDL cholesterol

B.

low HDL cholesterol

C.

low total cholesterol

D.

low triglycerides

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Questions 106

A client comes to the clinic for assessment of his physical status and guidelines for starting a weight-reduction diet. The client’s weight is 216 pounds and his height is 66 inches. The nurse identifies the BMI (body mass index) as:

Options:

A.

within normal limits, so a weight-reduction diet is unnecessary.

B.

lower than normal, so education about nutrient-dense foods is needed.

C.

indicating obesity because the BMI is 35.

D.

indicating overweight status because the BMI is 27.

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Questions 107

A middle-aged woman tells the nurse that she has been experiencing irregular menses for the past six months. The nurse should assess the woman for other symptoms of:

Options:

A.

climacteric.

B.

menopause.

C.

perimenopause.

D.

postmenopause.

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Questions 108

Light therapy can be effective for:

Options:

A.

overcoming weight problems.

B.

helping with allergies.

C.

use in alternative medical treatments.

D.

working with sleep patterns.

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Exam Code: NCLEX-PN
Exam Name: National Council Licensure Examination(NCLEX-PN)
Last Update: Apr 23, 2024
Questions: 725
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