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NCLEX-RN Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

The 4th of July holiday comes while a client is in the hospital being treated for schizophrenia. She is taking chlorpromazine and has improved to the point of being allowed to go with a group to the park for a picnic. The side effect of chlorpromazine that the nurse needs to keep in mind during this outing is:

Options:

A.

Hypotension

B.

Photosensitivity

C.

Excessive appetite

D.

Dryness of the mouth

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Questions 5

A 15-year-old client was diagnosed as having cystic fibrosis at 8 months of age. He is in the hospital for a course of IV antibiotic therapy and vigorous chest physiotherapy. He has a poor appetite. The nurse can best help him to meet the desired outcome of consuming a prescribed number of calories by:

Options:

A.

Including the client in planning sessions to select the type of meal plan and foods for his diet

B.

Working with the nutritionist to devise a diet with significantly increased calories

C.

Selecting foods for the client’s diet that are high in calories and instituting a strict calorie count

D.

Constantly providing him with chips, dips, and candies, because the number of calories consumed is more important than the quality of foods

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Questions 6

A 55-year-old woman entered the emergency room by ambulance. Her primary complaint is chest pain. She is receiving O2 via nasal cannula at 2 L/min for dyspnea. Which of the following findings in the client’s nursing assessment demand immediate nursing action?

Options:

A.

Associated symptoms of indigestion and nausea

B.

Restlessness and apprehensiveness

C.

Inability to tolerate assessment session with the admitting nurse

D.

History of hypertension treated with pharmacological therapy

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Questions 7

A 48-year-old client presents with a long history of severedepression unrelieved by medication. He is admitted to the hospital for electroconvulsive therapy. Familymembers are very concerned about this therapy and are requesting information about aftereffects of the treatment. The nurse informs the family that he will:

Options:

A.

Have transient memory loss, confusion, andheadache

B.

Be alert and oriented immediately after the treatment

C.

Have insomnia for the first few days

D.

Require no special care after the procedure

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Questions 8

Loss of appetite for a child with leukemia is a major recurrent problem. The plan of care should be designed to:

Options:

A.

Reinforce attempts to eat

B.

Help the child gain weight

C.

Increase his appetite

D.

Make mealtimes pleasant

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Questions 9

A 9-year-old child was in the garage with his father, who was repairing a lawnmower. Some gasoline ignited and caused an explosion. His father was killed, and the child has split-thickness and full-thickness burns over 40% of his upper body, face, neck, and arms. All of the following nursing diagnoses are included on his care plan. Which of these nursing diagnoses should have top priority during the first 24–48 hours postburn?

Options:

A.

Pain related to tissue damage from burns

B.

Potential for infection related to contamination of wounds

C.

Fluid volume deficit related to increased capillary permeability

D.

Potential for impaired gas exchange related to edema of respiratory tract

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Questions 10

Which of the following nursing orders has the highest priority for a child with epiglottitis?

Options:

A.

Vital signs every shift

B.

Tracheostomy set at bedside

C.

Intake and output

D.

Specific gravity every shift

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Questions 11

Diabetes mellitus is a disorder that affects 3.1 out of every 1000 children younger than 20 years old. It is characterized by an absence of, or marked decrease in, circulating insulin. When teaching a newly diagnosed diabetes client, the nurse includes information on the functions of insulin:

Options:

A.

Transport of glucose into body cells and storage of glycogen in the liver

B.

Glycogenolysis and facilitation of glucose use for energy

C.

Glycogenolysis and catabolism

D.

Catabolism and hyperglycemia

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Questions 12

A 5-year-old child has suffered second-degree thermal burns over 30% of her body. Forty-eight hours after the burn injury, the nurse must begin to monitor the child for which one of the following complications?

Options:

A.

Fluid volume deficit

B.

Fluid volume excess

C.

Decreased cardiac output

D.

Severe hypotension

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Questions 13

In acute episodes of mania, lithium is effective in 1–2 weeks, but it may take up to 4 weeks, or even a few months, to treat symptoms fully. Sometimes an antipsychotic agent is prescribed during the first few days or weeks of an acute episode to manage severe behavioral excitement and acute psychotic symptoms. In addition to the lithium, which one of the following medications might the physician prescribe?

Options:

A.

Diazepam (Valium)

B.

Haloperidol (Haldol)

C.

Sertraline (Zoloft)

D.

Alprazolam (Xanax)

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Questions 14

A female client with major depression stated that “life is hopeless and not worth living.” The nurse should place highest priority on which of the following questions?

Options:

A.

“How has your appetite been recently?”

B.

“Have you thought about hurting yourself?”

C.

“How is your relationship with your husband?”

D.

“How has your depression affected your daily livingactivities?”

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Questions 15

A client at 6 months’ gestation complains of tiredness and dizziness. Her hemoglobin level is 10 g/dL, and her hematocrit value is 32%. Her nutritional intake is assessed as sufficient. The most likely diagnosis is:

Options:

A.

Iron-deficiency anemia

B.

Physiological anemia

C.

Fatigue due to stress

D.

No problem indicated

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Questions 16

A common complication of cirrhosis of the liver is prolonged bleeding. The nurse should be prepared to administer?

Options:

A.

Vitamin C

B.

Vitamin K

C.

Vitamin E

D.

Vitamin A

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Questions 17

A child receiving chemotherapeutic drugs experiences a loss of appetite directly related to the therapy. Which of the following strategies should be most effective in encouraging the child to eat?

Options:

A.

Provide a well-balanced diet at usual times, and restrict dessert if the child fails to eat well.

B.

Schedule procedures immediately after eating so that the child will not be tired or in pain at mealtime.

C.

Offer the child a diet with a wider variety of foods and with more seasoning than her usual diet.

D.

Offer the child smaller meals more frequently than usual, and include as many of her favorite foods as possible.

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Questions 18

When planning care for the passive-aggressive client, the nurse includes the following goal:

Options:

A.

Allow the client to use humor, because this may be the only way this client can express self.

B.

Allow the client to express anger by using “I” messages, such as “I was angry when . . .,” etc.

C.

Allow the client to have time away from therapeutic responsibilities.

D.

Allow the client to give excuses if he forgets to give staff information.

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Questions 19

A 19-year-old client has sustained a C-7 fracture, which resulted in his spinal cord being partially transected. By 2 weeks’ postinjury, his neck has been surgically stabilized, and he has been transferred from the intensive care unit. A potential life-threatening complication the nurse monitors the client for is:

Options:

A.

Autonomic dysreflexia

B.

Bradycardia

C.

Central cord syndrome

D.

Spinal shock

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Questions 20

A client presents to the psychiatric unit crying hysterically. She is diagnosed with severe anxiety disorder. The first nursing action is to:

Options:

A.

Demand that she relax

B.

Ask what is the problem

C.

Stand or sit next to her

D.

Give her something to do

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Questions 21

A type I diabetic client delivers a male newborn. The newborn is 45 minutes old. What is the primary nursing goal in the nursery during the first hours for this newborn?

Options:

A.

Bonding

B.

Maintain normal blood sugar

C.

Maintain normal nutrition

D.

Monitor intake and output

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Questions 22

A 4-year-old child has Down syndrome. The community health nurse has coordinated a special preschool program. The nurse’s primary goal is to:

Options:

A.

Provide respite care for the mother

B.

Facilitate optimal development

C.

Provide a demanding and challenging educational program

D.

Prepare child to enter mainstream education

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Questions 23

Assessment of a newborn for Apgar scoring includes observation for:

Options:

A.

Pupil response

B.

Respiratory rate

C.

Heart rate

D.

Babinski’s reflex

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Questions 24

A client calls the prenatal clinic to schedule an appointment. She states she has missed three menstrual periods and thinks she might be pregnant. During her first visit to the prenatal clinic, it is confirmed that she is pregnant. The registered nurse (RN) learns that her last menstrual period began on June 10. According to Nägele’s rule, the estimated date of confinement is:

Options:

A.

March 17

B.

June 3

C.

August 30

D.

January 10

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Questions 25

A 66-year-old female client has smoked 2 packs of cigarettes per day for 20 years. Her arterial blood gases on room air are as follows: pH 7.35; PO2 70 mm Hg; PCO2 55 mm Hg; HCO3 32 mEq/L. These blood gases reflect:

Options:

A.

Compensated metabolic acidosis

B.

Compensated respiratory acidosis

C.

Compensated respiratory alkalosis

D.

Uncompensated respiratory acidosis

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Questions 26

The nurse is assisting a 4th-day postoperative cholecystectomy client in planning her meals for tomorrow’s menu. Which vitamin is the most essential in promoting tissue healing?

Options:

A.

Vitamin C

B.

Vitamin B1

C.

Vitamin D

D.

Vitamin A

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Questions 27

Which stage of labor lasts from delivery of the baby to delivery of the placenta?

Options:

A.

Second

B.

Third

C.

Fourth

D.

Fifth

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Questions 28

A 30-year-old client has been admitted to the psychiatric service with the diagnosis of schizophrenia. He tells the nurse that when the woman he had been dating broke up with him, the CIA had replaced her with an identical twin. The client is experiencing:

Options:

A.

Grandiose delusions

B.

Paranoid delusions

C.

Auditory hallucinations

D.

Visual hallucinations

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Questions 29

A client has been diagnosed with congestive heart failure. His fluid intake and output are strictly regulated. For lunch, he drank 8 oz of milk, 4 oz of tea, and 6 oz of coffee. His intake would be recorded as:

Options:

A.

500 mL

B.

540 mL

C.

600 mL

D.

655 mL

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Questions 30

A 4 days postpartum client who is gravida 3, para 3, isexamined by the home health nurse during her first postpartum home visit. The nurse notes that she has a pink vaginal discharge with a serosanguineous consistency. The nurse would most accurately chart the client’s lochia as:

Options:

A.

Rubra

B.

Rosa

C.

Serosa

D.

Alba

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Questions 31

A 1-year-old child is to receive an IM injection ordered by his pediatrician. He has fallen asleep in his mother’s arms when the nurse approaches. Which approach is most appropriate at this time?

Options:

A.

Give the injection in the vastus lateralis site before the child awakens.

B.

Awaken the child first and give the injection in the ventrogluteal site.

C.

Awaken the child first and give the injection in the dorsogluteal site.

D.

Ask the mother to place the child on the examination table and leave the room, and then give the injection in an appropriate site.

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Questions 32

A female client has experienced varying degrees of depression throughout her life. Now that she is postmenopausal, her depression has increased. She is unable to motivate herself to clean her house or even to get out of bed and get dressed in the morning. The client was begun on fluoxetine (Prozac) therapy. When educating her about fluoxetine, what might the nurse caution her about?

Options:

A.

A daily dose of fluoxetine may be taken in the morning or evening.

B.

Fluoxetine is not sedating; therefore, restrictions on driving and other hazardous activities are not necessary.

C.

Rashes or pruritus usually occur early in the therapy and are treatable without discontinuing the medication.

D.

It is safe to take over-the-counter or other prescription medications with fluoxetine.

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Questions 33

A 35-year-old primigravida comes to the clinic for her first prenatal visit. The midwife, on examining the client, suspects that she is approximately 11 weeks pregnant. The pregnancy is positively confirmed by finding:

Options:

A.

Chadwick’s sign

B.

FHR by ultrasound

C.

Enlargement of the uterus

D.

Breast tenderness and enlargement

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Questions 34

Medication is administered to a client who has been placed in restraints after a sudden violent episode, and his EPSs subside. Restraints can be removed when:

Options:

A.

The physician orders it

B.

A therapeutic alliance has been established, and violent behavior subsides

C.

The violent behavior subsides, and the client agrees to behave

D.

The nurse deems that removal of restraints is necessary

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Questions 35

Which of the following blood values would require further nursing action in a newborn who is 4 hours old?

Options:

A.

Hemoglobin 17.2 g/dL

B.

Platelets 250,000/mm3

C.

Serum glucose 30 mg/dL

D.

White blood cells 18,000/mm3

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Questions 36

A client undergoes a transurethral resection, prostate (TURP). He returns from surgery with a three-way continuous Foley irrigation of normal saline in progress. The purpose of this bladder irrigation is to prevent:

Options:

A.

Bladder spasms

B.

Clot formation

C.

Scrotal edema

D.

Prostatic infection

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Questions 37

Due to his prolonged history of alcohol abuse, an alcoholic client will most likely have deficiencies of which of the following nutrients?

Options:

A.

Vitamin C and zinc

B.

Folic acid and niacin

C.

Vitamin A and biotin

D.

Thiamine and pyroxidine

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Questions 38

A male client has heart failure. He has been instructed to gradually increase his activities. Which signs and symptoms of worsening heart failure should the nurse tell him to watch for that would indicate a need for him to lower his activity level?

Options:

A.

Pain in his legs when he walks

B.

Thirst, weight loss, and polyuria

C.

Drowsiness and lethargy after his activities

D.

Weight gain, edema in his lower extremities, and shortness of breath

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Questions 39

As soon as a child has been diagnosed as “hearing impaired,” special education should begin. Which of the following special education tasks is the most difficult for a severely hearing-impaired child?

Options:

A.

Auditory training

B.

Speech

C.

Lip reading

D.

Signing

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Questions 40

A client who is gravida 1 para 1 vaginally delivered a 7- lb girl. She received a midline episiotomy at delivery. When assessing the level of her uterus immediately following delivery, the nurse would expect the fundus to be located:

Options:

A.

At the umbilicus

B.

At the symphysis pubis

C.

Midway between the umbilicus and the xiphoid process

D.

Midway between the umbilicus and the symphysis pubis

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Questions 41

An 82-year-old former restaurant owner walks to the nursing station and states, “I have to go. The restaurant opens at 11 am.” Which response by the nurse is the most appropriate?

Options:

A.

“Go back to your room. You do not own a restaurant.”

B.

“You are in the hospital now. Calm down.”

C.

“You once owned a restaurant. Tell me about it.”

D.

“It is snowing outside. The restaurant is closed.”

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Questions 42

A client with cirrhosis of the liver becomes comatose and is started on neomycin 300 mg q6h via nasogastric tube. The rationale for this therapy is to:

Options:

A.

Prevent systemic infection

B.

Promote diuresis

C.

Decrease ammonia formation

D.

Acidify the small bowel

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Questions 43

A 2-day-old infant boy has been diagnosed with an atrial septal defect due to a persistent patent foramen ovale.

When explaining the diagnosis to the mother, the nurse includes in the discussion the function of the foramen ovale. In fetal circulation, the foramen ovale allows a portion of the blood to bypass the:

Options:

A.

Left ventricle

B.

Pulmonary system

C.

Liver

D.

Superior vena cava

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Questions 44

A 2-year-old child with a scalp laceration and subdural hematoma of the temporal area as a result of falling out of bed should be prevented from:

Options:

A.

Crying

B.

Falling asleep

C.

Rolling from his back to his tummy

D.

Sucking his thumb

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Questions 45

A client is 2 hours post ventriculoperitoneal shunt placement. How should the nurse position the client?

Options:

A.

Head of bed elevated 30 degrees on nonoperative side

B.

Head of bed elevated 30 degrees on operative side

C.

Bed flat on operative side

D.

Bed flat on nonoperative side

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Questions 46

Before giving methergine postpartum, the nurse should assess the client for:

Options:

A.

Decreased amount of lochial flow

B.

Elevated blood pressure

C.

Flushing

D.

Afterpains

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Questions 47

The physician of a client diagnosed with alcoholism orders neomycin 0.5 g q6h to prevent hepatic coma. Neomycin decreases serum ammonia levels by:

Options:

A.

Decreasing nitrogen-forming bacteria in the intestines

B.

Acidifying colon contents by causing ammonia retention in the colon

C.

Decreasing the uptake of vitamin D, thereby drawing more water into the colon

D.

Irritating the bowel and promoting evacuation of stool

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Questions 48

A husband and wife and their two children, age 9 and age 5, are requesting family therapy. Which of the following strategies is most therapeutic for the nurse to use during the initial interaction with a family?

Options:

A.

Always allow the most vocal person to state the problem first.

B.

Encourage the mother to speak for the children.

C.

Interpret immediately what seems to be going on within the family.

D.

Allow family members to assume the seats as they choose.

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Questions 49

A client is receiving peritoneal dialysis. He has been taught to warm the dialyzing fluid prior to instilling it because:

Options:

A.

Warmed solution helps keep the body temperature maintained within a normal range during instillation

B.

Warmed solution helps dilate the peritoneal blood vessels

C.

Warmed solution decreases the risk of peritoneal infection

D.

Warmed solution promotes a relaxed abdominal muscle

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Questions 50

The most important reason to closely assess circumferential burns at least every hour is that they may result in:

Options:

A.

Hypovolemia

B.

Renal damage

C.

Ventricular arrhythmias

D.

Loss of peripheral pulses

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Questions 51

A female client at 37 weeks’ gestation has just undergone a nonstress test. The results were two fetal movements with a corresponding increase in fetal heart rate (FHR) of 15 bpm lasting 15 seconds within a 20-minute period. Her results would be classified as:

Options:

A.

Reactive; needs follow-up contraction stress test

B.

Reactive; no contraction stress test required

C.

Non-reactive; needs follow-up contraction stress test

D.

Non-reactive; no contraction stress test required

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Questions 52

A male client has a history of diverticulosis. He has questions about the foods that he should eat. His nurse gives him the following information:

Options:

A.

He should be on a high-fiber diet.

B.

He should eat a low-residue diet.

C.

He should drink minimal amounts of fluids.

D.

He does not need to make any modifications.

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Questions 53

A 2-year-old boy is in the hospital outpatient department for observation after falling out of his crib and hitting his head. The nurse calls the physician to report:

Options:

A.

Evidence of perineal irritation

B.

Pulse fell from 102 to 96

C.

Pulse increased from 96 to 102

D.

Temperature rose to 102_F rectally

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Questions 54

The physician of an alcoholic client places him on a low-protein, high-carbohydrate diet. When choosing his menu, the client’s best choice from the items below would be:

Options:

A.

Liver and onions, macaroni and cheese, tea with sugar

B.

Baked chicken, baked potato with bacon bits, milk

C.

Waffles with butter and honey, orange juice

D.

Cheese omelette with ham and mushrooms, milk

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Questions 55

A client’s prenatal screening indicated that she has no immunity to rubella. She is now 10 weeks pregnant. The best time to immunize her is:

Options:

A.

In the immediate postpartum period

B.

After the first trimester

C.

At 28 weeks’ gestation

D.

Within 72 hours postpartum

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Questions 56

On admission to the postpartal unit, the nurse’s assessment identifies the client’s fundus to be soft, 2 fingerbreadths above the umbilicus, and deviated to the right. This is most likely an indication of:

Options:

A.

Normal involution

B.

A full bladder

C.

An infection pain

D.

A hemorrhage

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Questions 57

A client who has been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa refuses to eat lunch. The most therapeutic response by the nurse to her refusal is:

Options:

A.

“Okay, missing one meal won’t hurt.”

B.

“You’ll have to eat lunch, or we’ll force-feed you.”

C.

“It’s not appropriate for you to try to manipulate the staff into granting your wishes.”

D.

“We will not allow you to starve yourself. You may choose to eat voluntarily or be fed.”

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Questions 58

A female client admitted to the labor and delivery unit thinks her bag of water “broke” approximately 2 hours ago. She is having mild contractions 5 minutes apart. The most immediate nursing intervention would be to:

Options:

A.

Note the color and amount of fluid on her clothes.

B.

Assess the FHR.

C.

Notify the physician.

D.

Place the nitrazine test paper at the cervical os and note the color change.

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Questions 59

A 44-year-old client had an emergency cholecystectomy 3 days ago for a ruptured gallbladder. She complains of severe abdominal pain. Assessment reveals abdominal rigidity and distention, increased temperature, and tachycardia. Diagnostic testing reveals an elevated WBC count. The nurse suspects that the client has developed:

Options:

A.

Gastritis

B.

Evisceration

C.

Peritonitis

D.

Pulmonary embolism

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Questions 60

The mother of a preschooler reports to the nurse that he frequently tells lies. The admission assessment of the child indicates possible child abuse. The nurse knows that his:

Options:

A.

Behavior is not normal, and a child psychiatrist should be consulted.

B.

Mother is lying to protect herself.

C.

Lying is normal behavior for a preschool child who is learning to separate fantasy from reality.

D.

Behavior indicates a developmental delay, because preschoolers should be able to tell right from wrong.

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Questions 61

The nurse writes the following nursing diagnosis for a client in acute renal failure—Impaired gas exchange related to:

Options:

A.

Decreased red blood cell production

B.

Increased levels of vitamin D

C.

Increased red blood cell production

D.

Decreased production of renin

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Questions 62

A newborn girl’s father expresses concern that the newborn does not have good control of her hands and arms. It is important for the father to realize certain neurological patterns that characterize the newborn:

Options:

A.

Mild hypotonia is expected in the upper extremities.

B.

Purposeless, uncoordinated movements of the arms are indicative of neurological dysfunction.

C.

Function progresses in a head-to-toe, proximal-distal fashion.

D.

Asymmetrical movement of the extremities is not unusual and will disappear with maturation of the central nervous system.

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Questions 63

A mother who is breast-feeding her newborn asks the RN, “How can I express milk from my breasts manually?” The RN tells her that the correct method for manual milk expression includes using the thumb and the index finger to:

Options:

A.

Alternately compress and release each nipple

B.

Roll the nipple and gently pull the nipple forward

C.

Slide the thumb and index finger forward from the outer border of the areola toward the end of the nipple

D.

Compress and release each breast at the outer border of the areola

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Questions 64

At 32 weeks’ gestation, a client is scheduled for a fetal activity test (nonstress test). She calls the clinic and asks the RN, “How do I prepare for the test I am scheduled for?” The RN will most likely inform her of the following instructions to help prepare her for the test:

Options:

A.

“You need to know that an IV is always started before the test.”

B.

“You will need to drink 6 to 8 glasses of water to fill your bladder.”

C.

“Do not eat any food or drink any liquids before the test is started.”

D.

“You will have to remain as still as you possibly can.”

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Questions 65

In client teaching, the nurse should emphasize that fetal damage occurs more frequently with ingestion of drugs during:

Options:

A.

First trimester

B.

Second trimester

C.

Third trimester

D.

Every trimester

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Questions 66

A pregnant client during labor is irritable and feels the urge to vomit. The nurse should recognize this as the:

Options:

A.

Fourth stage of labor

B.

Third stage of labor

C.

Transition stage of labor

D.

Second stage of labor

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Questions 67

Two hours after the second injection of haloperidol, a client complains to the nurse of a stiff neck and inability to sit still. He is experiencing symptoms consistent with:

Options:

A.

Parkinsonism and dystonia

B.

Dystonia and akathisia

C.

Akathisia and parkinsonism

D.

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

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Questions 68

A 35-year-old client is admitted to the hospital for elective tubal ligation. While the nurse is doing preoperative teaching, the client says, “The anesthesiologist said she was going to give me balanced anesthesia. What exactly is that?” The best explanation for the nurse to give the client would be that balanced anesthesia:

Options:

A.

Is a type of regional anesthesia

B.

Uses equal amounts of inhalation agents and liquid agents

C.

Does not depress the central nervous system

D.

Is a combination of several anesthetic agents or drugs producing a smooth induction and minimal complications

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Questions 69

A 38-year-old female client with a history of chronic schizophrenia, paranoid type, is currently an outpatient at the local mental health and mental retardation clinic. The client comes in once a week for medication evaluation and/or refills. She self-administers haloperidol 5 mg twice a day and benztropine 1 mg once a day. During a recent clinic visit, she says to the nurse, “I can’t stay still at night. I toss and turn and can’t fall asleep.” The nurse suspects that she may be experiencing:

Options:

A.

Akathisia

B.

Akinesia

C.

Dystonia

D.

Opisthotonos

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Questions 70

Goal setting for a client with Meniere’s disease should include which of the following?

Options:

A.

Frequent ambulation

B.

Prevention of a fall injury

C.

Consumption of three meals per day

D.

Prevention of infection

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Questions 71

Often children are monitored with pulse oximeter. The pulse oximeter measures the:

Options:

A.

O2 content of the blood

B.

Oxygen saturation of arterial blood

C.

PO2

D.

Affinity of hemoglobin for O2

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Questions 72

A 2-year-old toddler is hospitalized with epiglottitis. In assessing the toddler, the nurse would expect to find:

Options:

A.

A productive cough

B.

Expiratory stridor

C.

Drooling

D.

Crackles in the lower lobes

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Questions 73

To prevent transmission of bacterial meningitis, the nurse would instruct an infected baby’s mother to:

Options:

A.

Avoid touching the baby while in the room.

B.

Stay outside of the baby’s room.

C.

Wear a gown and gloves and wash her hands before and after leaving the room.

D.

Wear a mask while in the room.

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Questions 74

Morphine sulfate 4 mg IV push q2h prn for chest pain was ordered for a client in the emergency room with severe chest pain. The nurse administering the morphine sulfate knows which of the following therapeutic actions is related to the morphine sulfate?

Options:

A.

Increased level of consciousness

B.

Increased rate and depth of respirations

C.

Increased peripheral vasodilation

D.

Increased perception of pain

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Questions 75

The nurse assesses a postoperative mastectomy client and notes that breath sounds are diminished in both posterior bases. The nurse’s action should be to:

Options:

A.

Encourage coughing and deep breathing each hour

B.

Obtain arterial blood gases

C.

Increase O2 from 2–3 L/min

D.

Remove the postoperative dressing to check for bleeding

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Questions 76

A 43-year-old client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of peripheral vascular disorder. She arrives in her

room via stretcher and requires assistance to move to her bed. The nurse notes that her left leg is cold to touch. She complains of having recently experienced muscle spasms in that leg. To determine if these muscle spasms are indicative of intermittent claudication, the nurse would begin her assessment with the following question:

Options:

A.

“Would you describe the intensity, duration, and symptoms associated with your pain?”

B.

“Do you experience swelling at the end of the day in the affected and unaffected leg?”

C.

“Have you had any lesions of the affected leg that have been difficult to heal?”

D.

“Do your muscle spasms occur following rest, walking, or exercising?”

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Questions 77

A client has ascites, which is caused by:

Options:

A.

Decreased plasma proteins

B.

Electrolyte imbalance

C.

Decreased renal function

D.

Portal hypertension

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Questions 78

A 72-year-old male client had the Foley catheter that was inserted during the transurethral resection of his prostate removed today. He is concerned about the urinary incontinence he is having since removal of the Foley catheter. The nurse explains that:

Options:

A.

He should not be concerned about it because it will resolve quickly

B.

This is usually temporary

C.

The nurse will keep him dry, and he should notify the nurse when this happens

D.

This is related to the bladder spasms and will soon stop

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Questions 79

A client is placed on lithium therapy for her manicdepressive illness. When monitoring the client, the nurse assesses the laboratory blood values. Toxicity may occur with lithium therapy when the blood level is above:

Options:

A.

1.0 mEq/L

B.

2.2 mEq/L

C.

0.03 mEq/L

D.

1.5 mEq/L

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Questions 80

A 32-year-old mother of two was brought to the hospital by her husband. He reported that his wife could no longer manage the house and children. She does not sleep and talks day and night. She has purchased some very expensive clothes. The nurse noted that the client speaks rapidly and changes the subject irrationally. This is an example of:

Options:

A.

Flight of ideas

B.

Delusions

C.

Hallucinations

D.

Echolalia

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Questions 81

An 18-year-old client enters the emergency room complaining of coughing, chest tightness, dyspnea, and sputum production. On physical assessment, the nurse notes agitation, nasal flaring, tachypnea, and expiratory wheezing. These signs should alert the nurse to:

Options:

A.

A tension pneumothorax

B.

An asthma attack

C.

Pneumonia

D.

Pulmonary embolus

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Questions 82

A client’s renal calculi are identified as consisting of calcium phosphate. Which of the following diets would be appropriate?

Options:

A.

High calcium, low phosphorus

B.

Low calcium, high phosphorus

C.

Two-gram sodium diet

D.

Low calcium and phosphorus, acid ash

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Questions 83

Signs and symptoms of an allergy attack include which of the following?

Options:

A.

Wheezing on inspiration

B.

Increased respiratory rate

C.

Circumoral cyanosis

D.

Prolonged expiration

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Questions 84

A male client receives 10 U of regular human insulin SC at 9:00 AM. The nurse would expect peak action from this injection to occur at:

Options:

A.

9:30 AM

B.

10:30 AM

C.

12 noon

D.

4:00 PM

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Questions 85

A 55-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with complaints of fatigue, jaundice, anorexia, and clay-colored stools. His admitting diagnosis is “rule out hepatitis.” Laboratory studies reveal elevated liver enzymes and bilirubin. In obtaining his health history, the nurse should assess his potential for exposure to hepatitis.

Which of the following represents a high-risk group for contracting this disease?

Options:

A.

Heterosexual males

B.

Oncology nurses

C.

American Indians

D.

Jehovah’s Witnesses

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Questions 86

The therapeutic blood-level range for lithium is:

Options:

A.

0.25–1.0 mEq/L

B.

0.5–1.5 mEq/L

C.

1.0–2.0 mEq/L

D.

2.0–2.5 mEq/L

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Questions 87

In assessing cardiovascular clients with progression of aortic stenosis, the nurse should be aware that there is typically:

Options:

A.

Decreased pulmonary blood flow and cyanosis

B.

Increased pressure in the pulmonary veins and pulmonary edema

C.

Systemic venous engorgement

D.

Increased left ventricular systolic pressures and hypertrophy

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Questions 88

Which of the following nursing orders should be included in the plan of care for a client with hepatitis C?

Options:

A.

The nurse should use universal precautions when obtaining blood samples.

B.

Total bed rest should be maintained until the client is asymptomatic.

C.

The client should be instructed to maintain a low semi-Fowler position when eating meals.

D.

The nurse should administer an alcohol backrub at bedtime.

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Questions 89

The physician orders fluoxetine (Prozac) for a depressed client. Which of the following should the nurse remember about fluoxetine?

Options:

A.

Because fluoxetine is a tricyclic antidepressant, it may precipitate a hypertensive crisis.

B.

The therapeutic effect of the drug occurs 2–4 weeks after treatment is begun.

C.

Foods such as aged cheese, yogurt, soy sauce, and bananas should not be eaten with this drug.

D.

Fluoxetine may be administered safely in combination with monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors.

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Questions 90

A six-month-old infant has been admitted to the emergency room with febrile seizures. In the teaching of the parents, the nurse states that:

Options:

A.

Sustained temperature elevation over 103F is generally related to febrile seizures

B.

Febrile seizures do not usually recur

C.

There is little risk of neurological deficit and mental retardation as sequelae to febrile seizures

D.

Febrile seizures are associated with diseases of the central nervous system

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Questions 91

When inspecting a cardiovascular client, the nurse notes that he needs to sit upright to breathe. This behavior is most indicative of:

Options:

A.

Pericarditis

B.

Anxiety

C.

Congestive heart failure

D.

Angina

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Questions 92

A client confides to the nurse that he tasted poison in his evening meal. This would be an example of what type of hallucination?

Options:

A.

Auditory

B.

Gustatory

C.

Olfactory

D.

Visceral

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Questions 93

Dietary planning is an essential part of the diabetic client’s regimen. The American Diabetes Association recommends which of the following caloric guidelines for daily meal planning?

Options:

A.

50% complex carbohydrate, 20%–25% protein, 20%–25% fat

B.

45% complex carbohydrate, 25%–30% protein, 30%–35% fat

C.

70% complex carbohydrate, 20%–30% protein, 10%–20% fat

D.

60% complex carbohydrate, 12%–15% protein, 20%–25% fat

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Questions 94

A diagnosis of hepatitis C is confirmed by a male client’s physician. The nurse should be knowledgeable of the differences between hepatitis A, B, and C. Which of the following are characteristics of hepatitis C?

Options:

A.

The potential for chronic liver disease is minimal.

B.

The onset of symptoms is abrupt.

C.

The incubation period is 2–26 weeks.

D.

There is an effective vaccine for hepatitis B, but not for hepatitis C.

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Questions 95

A client with emphysema is placed on diuretics. In order to avoid potassium depletion as a side effect of the drug therapy, which of the following foods should be included in his diet?

Options:

A.

Celery

B.

Potatoes

C.

Tomatoes

D.

Liver

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Questions 96

The usual treatment for diabetes insipidus is with IM or SC injection of vasopressin tannate in oil. Nursing care related to the client receiving IM vasopressin tannate would include:

Options:

A.

Weigh once a week and report to the physician any weight gain of10 lb.

B.

Limit fluid intake to 500 mL/day.

C.

Store the medication in a refrigerator and allow to stand at room temperature for 30 minutes prior to administration.

D.

Hold the vial under warm water for 10–15 minutes and shake vigorously before drawing medication into the syringe.

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Questions 97

Which of the following signs and symptoms indicates a tension pneumothorax as compared to an open pneumothorax?

Options:

A.

Ventilation-perfusion (V./Q.) mismatch

B.

Hypoxemia and respiratory acidosis

C.

Mediastinal tissue and organ shifting

D.

Decreased tidal volume and tachypnea

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Questions 98

A client is 6 weeks pregnant. During her first prenatal visit, she asks, “How much alcohol is safe to drink during pregnancy?” The nurse’s response is:

Options:

A.

Up to 1 oz daily

B.

Up to 2 oz daily

C.

Up to 4 oz weekly

D.

No alcohol

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Questions 99

When assessing fetal heart rate status during labor, the monitor displays late decelerations with tachycardia and decreasing variability. What action should the nurse take?

Options:

A.

Continue monitoring because this is a normal occurrence.

B.

Turn client on right side.

C.

Decrease IV fluids.

D.

Report to physician or midwife.

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Questions 100

A 27-year-old man was diagnosed with type I diabetes 3 months ago. Two weeks ago he complained of pain, redness, and tenderness in his right lower leg. He is admitted to the hospital with a slight elevation of temperature and vague complaints of “not feeling well.” At 4:30 PM on the day of his admission, his blood glucose level is 50 mg; dinner will be served at 5:00 PM. The best nursing action would be to:

Options:

A.

Give him 3 tbsp of sugar dissolved in 4 oz of grape juice to drink

B.

Ask him to dissolve three pieces of hard candy in his mouth

C.

Have him drink 4 oz of orange juice

D.

Monitor him closely until dinner arrives

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Questions 101

A 26-year-old client has no children. She has had an abdominal hysterectomy. In the first 24 hours postoperatively, the nurse would be concerned if the client:

Options:

A.

Cries easily and says she is having abdominal pain

B.

Develops a temperature of 102_F

C.

Has no bowel sounds

D.

Has a urine output of 200 mL for 4 hours

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Questions 102

A 15-year-old child is admitted to the pediatric unit with a diagnosis of thalassemia. Which of the following would be included in educating the mother and child as part of discharge planning?

Options:

A.

Give oral iron medication every day.

B.

Have the child’s blood pressure monitored every week.

C.

Know the signs and symptoms of iron overload.

D.

Keep exercise at a minimum to reduce stress.

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Questions 103

A male infant is to be discharged home this morning. Which instruction related to his cord care should be included in his mother’s discharge teaching plan?

Options:

A.

Keep the umbilical area moist with Vaseline until the stump falls off.

B.

Keep the umbilical area covered at all times with the diaper.

C.

Clean the umbilical cord with alcohol at each diaper change.

D.

Clean the umbilical cord daily with soap and water during the bath.

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Questions 104

An 8-year-old boy has been diagnosed with hemophilia. Which of the following diagnostic blood studies is characteristically abnormal in this disorder?

Options:

A.

Partial thromboplastin time

B.

Platelet count

C.

Complete blood count

D.

Bleeding time

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Questions 105

A client is pregnant for the fourth time and has had three normal vaginal deliveries. She is in active labor and fully dilated. Suddenly she calls, “Nurse, the baby is coming.” As the nurse responds to her call, which one of the following observations should the nurse make first?

Options:

A.

Inspect the perineum.

B.

Time the contractions.

C.

Prepare a sterile area for delivery.

D.

Auscultate for fetal heart rate (FHR).

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Questions 106

A male client tells his nurse that he has had an ulcer in the past and is afraid it is “flaring up again.” The nurse begins to ask him specific questions about his symptoms. The nurse knows that a symptom that might indicate a serious complication of an ulcer is:

Options:

A.

Pain in the middle of the night

B.

A bowel movement every 3–5 days

C.

Melena

D.

Episodes of nausea and vomiting

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Questions 107

A young child has been placed in a spica cast. The chief concern of the nurse during the first few hours is:

Options:

A.

Prevention of neurovascular complications

B.

Prevention of loss of muscle tone

C.

Immobilization of the affected limb

D.

Using heated fans to dry the cast

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Questions 108

During the admitting mental health assessment, a client demonstrates involuntary muscular activity. He has a marked facial tic around the mouth that is distracting to the nurse during the interview. The nurse recognizes the behavior and documents it as:

Options:

A.

Dyskinesia

B.

Akathisia

C.

Echopraxia

D.

Echolalia

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Questions 109

A 12-year-old girl has been diagnosed with insulindependent diabetes mellitus. Which of these principles would best guide her nutritional management?

Options:

A.

Concentrated sweets are taken during increased activity.

B.

Food restriction is imposed to reduce weight.

C.

Caloric distribution should be calculated to fit activity patterns.

D.

Fat requirements are increased owing to the possibility of ketoacidosis.

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Questions 110

A premature infant needs supplemental O2 therapy. A nursing intervention that reduces the risk of retrolental fibroplasia is to:

Options:

A.

Maintain O2at <40%

B.

Maintain O2at>40%

C.

Give moist O2at>40%

D.

Maintain on 100% O2

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Questions 111

A 79-year-old client with Alzheimer’s disease is exhibiting significant memory impairment, cognitive impairment, extremely impaired judgment in social situations, and agitation when placed in a new situation or around unfamiliar people. The nurse should include the following strategy in the client’s care:

Options:

A.

Maintain routines and usual structure and adhere to schedules.

B.

Encourage the client to attend all structured activities on the unit, whether she wants to or not.

C.

Ask the client to go to an activity once. If she gives no response right away, change the question around, asking the same thing.

D.

Give the client two or three choices to decide what she wants to do.

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Questions 112

A male client has asthma and his physician has prescribed beclomethasone (Vanceril) 3 puffs tid in addition to his other medications. After taking his beclomethasone, the client should be instructed to:

Options:

A.

Clean his inhaler with warm water and soak it in a10% bleach solution

B.

Drink a glass of water

C.

Sit and rest

D.

Use his bronchodilator inhaler

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Questions 113

A client who is 7 months pregnant is diagnosed with pyelonephritis. The nurse anticipates the physician ordering:

Options:

A.

Oxytocin

B.

Magnesium sulfate (MgSO4)

C.

Ampicillin

D.

Tetracycline

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Questions 114

A 1000-mL dose of D5W 1⁄2 normal saline is to be infused in 8 hours. The drop factor for the tubing is 60 gtt/min. How many drops per minute should the nurse administer?

Options:

A.

75 gtt/min

B.

100 gtt/min

C.

125 gtt/min

D.

150 gtt/min

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Questions 115

A 17-year-old client has a T-4 spinal cord injury. At present, he is learning to catheterize himself. When he says, “This is too much trouble. I would rather just have a Foley.’’ An appropriate response for the RN teaching him would be:

Options:

A.

“I know. It is a lot to learn. In the long run, though, you will be able to reduce infections if you do an intermittent catheterization program.’’

B.

“It is not too much trouble. This is the best way to manage urination.’’

C.

“OK. I’ll ask your physician if we can replace the Foley.’’

D.

“You need to learn this because your doctor ordered it.’’

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Questions 116

In performing the initial nursing assessment on a client at the prenatal clinic, the nurse will know that which of the following alterations is abnormal during pregnancy?

Options:

A.

Striae gravidarum

B.

Chloasma

C.

Dysuria

D.

Colostrum

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Questions 117

In addition to changing the mother’s position to relieve cord pressure, the nurse may employ the following measure (s) in the event that she observes the cord out of the vagina:

Options:

A.

Immediately pour sterile saline on the cord, and repeat this every 15 minutes to prevent drying.

B.

Cover the cord with a wet sponge.

C.

Apply a cord clamp to the exposed cord, and cover with a sterile towel.

D.

Keep the cord warm and moist by continuous applications of warm, sterile saline compresses.

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Questions 118

A dose of theophylline may need to be altered if a client with COPD:

Options:

A.

Is allergic to morphine

B.

Has a history of arthritis

C.

Operates machinery

D.

Is concurrently on cimetidine for ulcers

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Questions 119

A male client is scheduled for a liver biopsy. In preparing him for this test, the nurse should:

Options:

A.

Explain that he will be kept NPO for 24 hours before the exam

B.

Practice with him so he will be able to hold his breath for 1 minute

C.

Explain that he will be receiving a laxative to prevent a distended bowel from applying pressure on the liver

D.

Explain that his vital signs will be checked frequently after the test

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Questions 120

Which nursing implication is appropriate for a client undergoing a paracentesis?

Options:

A.

Have the client void before the procedure.

B.

Keep the client NPO.

C.

Observe the client for hypertension following the procedure.

D.

Place the client on the right side following the procedure.

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Questions 121

Which one of the following is considered a reliable indicator for assessing the adequacy of fluid resuscitation in a 3-year-old child who suffered partial- and fullthickness burns to 25% of her body?

Options:

A.

Urine output

B.

Edema

C.

Hypertension

D.

Bulging fontanelle

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Questions 122

A client is taught to eat foods high in potassium. Which food choices would indicate that this teaching has been successful?

Options:

A.

Pork chop, baked acorn squash, brussel sprouts

B.

Chicken breast, rice, and green beans

C.

Roast beef, baked potato, and diced carrots

D.

Tuna casserole, noodles, and spinach

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Questions 123

When a client with pancreatitis is discharged, the nurse needs to teach him how to prevent another occurrence of acute pancreatitis. Which of the following statements would indicate he has an understanding of his disease?

Options:

A.

“I will not eat any raw or uncooked vegetables.”

B.

“I will limit my alcohol to one cocktail per day.”

C.

“I will look into attending Alcoholics Anonymous meetings.”

D.

“I will report any changes in bowel movements to my doctor.”

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Questions 124

The nurse provides a male client with diet teaching so that he can help prevent constipation in the future. Which food choices indicate that this teaching has been understood?

Options:

A.

Omelette and hash browns

B.

Pancakes and syrup

C.

Bagel with cream cheese

D.

Cooked oatmeal and grapefruit half

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Questions 125

The nurse would be concerned if a client exhibited which of the following symptoms during her postpartum stay?

Options:

A.

Pulse rate of 50–70 bpm by her third postpartum day

B.

Diuresis by her second or third postpartum day

C.

Vaginal discharge or rubra, serosa, then rubra

D.

Diaphoresis by her third postpartum day

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Questions 126

Nursing interventions designed to decrease the risk of infection in a client with an indwelling catheter include:

Options:

A.

Cleanse area around the meatus twice a day

B.

Empty the catheter drainage bag at least daily

C.

Change the catheter tubing and bag every 48 hours

D.

Maintain fluid intake of 1200–1500 mL every day

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Questions 127

A client tells the nurse that she has had a history of urinary tract infections. The nurse would do further health teaching if she verbalizes she will:

Options:

A.

Drink at least 8 oz of cranberry juice daily

B.

Maintain a fluid intake of at least 2000 mL daily

C.

Wash her hands before and after voiding

D.

Limit her fluid intake after 6 PM so that there is not a great deal of urine in her bladder while she sleeps

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Questions 128

A 26-year-old client is in a treatment center for aprazolam (Xanax) abuse and continues to manifest moderate levels of anxiety 3 weeks into the rehabilitation program, often requesting medication for “his nerves.” Included in the client’s plan of care is to identify alternate methods of coping with stress and anxiety other than use of medication. After intervening with assistance in stress reduction techniques, identifying feelings and past coping, the nurse evaluates the outcome as being met if:

Options:

A.

Client promises that he will not abuse aprazolam after discharge

B.

Client demonstrates use of exercise or physical activity to handle nervous energy following conflicts of everyday life

C.

Client is able to verbalize effects of substance abuse on the body

D.

Client has remained substance free during hospitalization and is discharged

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Questions 129

The nurse would assess the client’s correct understanding of the fertility awareness methods that enhance conception, if the client stated that:

Options:

A.

“My sexual partner and I should have intercourse when my cervical mucosa is thick and cloudy.”

B.

“At ovulation, my basal body temperature should rise about 0.5F.”

C.

“I should douche immediately after intercourse.”

D.

“My sexual partner and I should have sexual intercourse on day 14 of my cycle regardless of the length of the cycle.”

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Exam Code: NCLEX-RN
Exam Name: National Council Licensure Examination(NCLEX-RN)
Last Update: May 1, 2024
Questions: 860
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