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4A0-100 Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

In the diagram, R7 receives a new LSA from R3 and installs it in its link state database. 10 ms. later it receives another copy of the LSA with the same sequence number from R8. What does R7 do with the LSA received from R8?

Options:

A.

R7 silently discards the LSA received from R8.

B.

R7 installs the LSA received from R8 in its link state database and floods a copy to its neighbors.

C.

R7 discards the LSA received from R8 and sends an ACK to R8.

D.

R7 installs the LSA received from R8 in its link state database, sends an ACK to R8 and floods a copy to its neighbors.

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Questions 5

Which of the following is TRUE regarding Ethernet half-duplex transmission?

Options:

A.

Half-duplex transmission is less efficient because the frame MTU is smaller.

B.

An end-station connected to a hub will always be half-duplex.

C.

Ethernet switches only support half-duplex transmission.

D.

All of the above.

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Questions 6

Which of the following statements regarding TCP is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Sequence numbers are used to ensure that the data received is offered to the application in the correct order.

B.

The SYN flag is used to identify congestion in the network.

C.

The NACK flag is set on confirmation segments to acknowledge FCS errors.

D.

The window size is transmitted in all TCP segments to communicate MTU limitations of lower layer protocols to upper layer applications.

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Questions 7

What problem was Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) primarily designed to solve?

Options:

A.

Inability to perform switch to switch redundancy using multiple connections at Layer 2.

B.

Missing protocol field in Ethernet II required to identify redundancy protocols at Layer 2.

C.

Missing packet sequencing in Layer 2 Ethernet required to re-order packets on arrival.

D.

Inability to forward multicast frames without a routing protocol.

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Questions 8

Based on the network diagram (click the Exhibit Button), what are the prefix, mask, and next-hop used on CR1 to setup a default static route to R1?

Options:

A.

0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.2 3.2

B.

0.0.0.0/32 next-hop 10.2.3.2

C.

10.2.3.2/32 next-hop 0.0.0.0/0

D.

0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 192.168.2.0

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Questions 9

Which of the following is a characteristic of Link State protocols?

Options:

A.

Routers send a copy of their entire routing table to their neighbors.

B.

Routers send frequent periodic updates to the entire network.

C.

Routers know the entire network topology.

D.

Routers use hop-count to calculate their routing tables.

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Questions 10

Which organization co-ordinates global public IP addresses?

Options:

A.

IANA

B.

IETF

C.

RIR

D.

IEEE

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Questions 11

The method by which Ethernet frames are associated to a specific VLAN is referred to as:

Options:

A.

Segmenting

B.

Stacking

C.

Routing

D.

Tagging

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Questions 12

Which of the following is the best description of well known ports?

Options:

A.

Well known ports apply to routers only and are used for communication and control traffic. Well known port numbers are assigned by IANA and can have any value.

B.

Well known ports are used by TCP and UDP. Well known port numbers range from 1024 to 65535 and are assigned by IANA.

C.

Well known port numbers are used by both TCP and UDP. Well known port numbers range from 1 to 1023 and are assigned by IANA.

D.

Well known ports numbers are used by TCP only. Well known port numbers are assigned by IANA and can have any value.

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Questions 13

What problem was Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) primarily designed to solve?

Options:

A.

Broadcast storms caused by redundancy in Layer 2 networks.

B.

Missing protocol field in the Ethernet header.

C.

Missing sequence number in the Ethernet header.

D.

Unreliable data transfer in Layer 2 networks.

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Questions 14

Which of the following describes a static default route?

Options:

A.

An entry included in the default configuration of the router that is used if no dynamic routing protocols or static routes are configured.

B.

A wildcard entry used when the destination network is not specifically defined in the routing table.

C.

An entry selected based on the route that has the least cost to the destination (path with the most physical bandwidth)

D.

An entry used by the routing protocol when it is unable to calculate the best route to the destination.

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Questions 15

Router R5 receives four route updates for the same prefix 10.10.10.1/32. Which of the four routes will be installed in R5’s routing table?

Options:

A.

Route learned from router R1.

B.

Route learned from router R2.

C.

Router learned from router R3.

D.

Route learned from router R4.

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Questions 16

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Internet?

Options:

A.

The Internet is a global and distributed network.

B.

The Internet is a network owned by Tier 1 service providers.

C.

The Internet is an open network of networks.

D.

The Internet is a network that is advertised across the globe.

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Questions 17

What operation is performed by an egress Label Edge Router (eLER) when it receives an MPLS labeled packet?

Options:

A.

It forwards the packet to the next LSR without altering the MPLS label.

B.

It swaps the MPLS label and forwards the packet to the next LSR.

C.

It pushes a new MPLS label and forwards the packet to the next LSR.

D.

It pops the MPLS label and forwards the packet to the next IP router.

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Questions 18

An Ethernet Local Area Network (LAN) consists of the components shown in the diagram. How many collision domains are on this LAN?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

5

D.

6

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Questions 19

Which of the following is NOT a function of the control plane?

Options:

A.

Building routing tables using dynamic routing protocols.

B.

Building forwarding tables for the IOMs.

C.

Handling router configuration and management functions.

D.

Processing and forwarding user application traffic.

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Questions 20

How does address summarization reduce the routing table size?

Options:

A.

By allowing a block of routes to be represented by one route.

B.

By only keeping best routes in the routing table.

C.

By rejecting duplicate route advertisements.

D.

By not advertising directly connected routes.

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Questions 21

Which of the following statements about packet forwarding is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The router consults the forwarding table on the ingress IOM.

B.

The router looks for a longest match to the destination IP address.

C.

The router resolves the next-hop address of the matching route to a physical interface.

D.

If there is no match in the forwarding table, the router sends a “No route to destination” notification.

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Questions 22

Which of the following statements about ARP request and ARP response messages is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Both ARP request and response messages are unicast messages.

B.

Both ARP request and response messages are broadcast messages.

C.

An ARP request is a broadcast message, while an ARP response is a unicast message.

D.

An ARP request is a unicast message, while an ARP response is a broadcast message.

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Questions 23

Which of the following type of addressing scheme delivers information from one source to all devices who are members of a specific group?

Options:

A.

Anycast.

B.

Multicast.

C.

Broadcast.

D.

Unicast.

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Questions 24

Which statement accurately explains the purpose of the TCP protocol and what it provides?

Options:

A.

The primary purpose of TCP is to provide reliable communications between application services.

B.

The primary purpose of TCP is to provide unreliable communications between application services

C.

The primary purpose of TCP is to provide IP routing between application services.

D.

The primary purpose of TCP is to define the correct format for the application layer such as JPEG or HTML.

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Questions 25

The TiMOS-m.n.Y.Z software image file is software that:

Options:

A.

Contains all the components required to configure and run protocols on the Nokia 7750 SR/7450 ESS.

B.

Loads the router configuration.

C.

Transfers the router configuration from the router to the network management system.

D.

Loads the router software image.

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Questions 26

Given the associated prefix value, which of the following is a valid host address?

Options:

A.

172.16.224.255/18

B.

255.255.255.255/32

C.

224.1.2.1/8

D.

192.168.24.59/30

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Questions 27

Kahn solved the problem of interconnecting different networks using different protocols by pioneering a new protocol called TCP that was capable of:

Options:

A.

Secure transmission of information.

B.

Enforcing a constant packet size to avoid discards.

C.

Allowing remote logins.

D.

Providing host to host connectivity with global addressing.

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Questions 28

Choose two true statements that characterize Link State Routing

Options:

A.

Routers send a copy of their routing table to their neighbors periodically.

B.

Routers flood link information throughout the entire area.

C.

Network converges quickly (within several seconds) after a topology change.

D.

Routers do not have precise knowledge of the entire network topology.

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Questions 29

Address summarization reduces the routing table size by:

Options:

A.

Allowing a contiguous block of network addresses to be represented by one network prefix.

B.

Increasing the number of addresses in the routing table.

C.

Summarizing addresses in the network into smaller routing tables.

D.

Not advertising directly connected routes.

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Questions 30

What is the effective maximum rate of data transmission on a 10 Mbps full-duplex Ethernet link?

Options:

A.

5 Mbps.

B.

10 Mbps.

C.

15 Mbps.

D.

20 Mbps.

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Questions 31

If a 4-port LAG is configured with the option of 'port-threshold 2' and 'action down' what will happen if the total operational links in the LAG is 2?

Options:

A.

If dynamic-cost is enabled it will adjust the cost for routing protocols such as OSPF.

B.

If dynamic-cost is not enabled it will adjust the cost for routing protocols such as OSPF by dividing the link bandwidth by 2.

C.

The LAG will be changed to an operational state of 'down'.

D.

The LAG will function with only 2 ports. There will be no change to the routing metric.

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Questions 32

What distance is supported using CAT-5 cabling for 10/100/1000 TX?

Options:

A.

100 m.

B.

500 m.

C.

1 Km.

D.

10 Km.

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Questions 33

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding IP addressing?

Options:

A.

Classful IP addressing provides hierarchy based on variable subnet masks.

B.

Classless IP addresses provide hierarchy based on a variable length subnet mask.

C.

Classless IP addresses provide hierarchy based on fixed subnet masks of /24. /16 and/8.

D.

IP addresses provide hierarchy based on the country code and regional identifier.

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Questions 34

Which of the following information can be seen within the FILE context of the SR 7x50? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

File sizes

B.

Port statistics

C.

Log-id 100 files

D.

TiMOS image files

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Questions 35

Where would you expect to find a P router in a service provider's network?

Options:

A.

At the edge of the provider's network facing the customer.

B.

At the edge of the customer's network facing the provider.

C.

In the core of the provider's network.

D.

On the customer premises.

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Questions 36

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding a VPWS service?

Options:

A.

VPWS is a point-to-multipoint service.

B.

VPWS requires MAC learning in order to forward frames to the correct destination

C.

A Spanning Tree Protocol must be enabled when deploying a VPWS.

D.

VPWS treats multicast traffic similar to unicast traffic.

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Questions 37

Which of the following fields is not a field in the TCP header used for the establishment and termination of a TCP connection?

Options:

A.

TTL

B.

ACK

C.

FIN

D.

SYN

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Questions 38

Which transport protocol and port number is used by BGP to establish and maintain a peering session with other BGP speakers?

Options:

A.

TCP port 179.

B.

UDP port 179.

C.

TCP port 22.

D.

UDP port 22.

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Questions 39

Based on the network diagram (click the Exhibit Button), what is the next-hop used on R1 to setup a static route to the network on CR1?

Options:

A.

next-hop 10.2.3.2

B.

next-hop 192.168.2.1

C.

next-hop 10.2 3.1

D.

next-hop 192.168.2.0

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Questions 40

Which of the following are FALSE statements about the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

OSPF is a link state protocol with fast convergence.

B.

OSPF supports hierarchy with multiple areas.

C.

The default metric for OSPF is hop count.

D.

OSPF does not support VLSM.

E.

OSPF supports neighbor authentication.

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Questions 41

SAPs may be a port, a port with a specific VLAN tag in the case of an Ethernet port, or a port with a specific Circuit ID in the case of ATM or Frame Relay.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 42

Which of the following SAP types can be associated to a VPWS? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Ethernet

B.

ATM

C.

Token Ring

D.

Frame Relay

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Questions 43

Which of the following are NOT examples of a VPN service offered on the Nokia 7750 SR? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

VPWS Virtual Private Wire Service

B.

VPLS Virtual Private LAN Service.

C.

VPRN Virtual Private Routed Networks.

D.

MLPPP Multi-link Point-to-Point protocol

E.

VPDFS Virtual Private Dark Fiber Service.

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Questions 44

The statement below describes which of the following activities?

"A set of tasks that moves a packet from its entry into an IP network to its exit from the IP network."

Options:

A.

IP forwarding

B.

IP decapsulation

C.

IP encapsulation

D.

IP tunneling

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Questions 45

Which of the following does a link-state protocol use when choosing the best path to a destination network?

Options:

A.

Cost

B.

Round-trip time

C.

Hop-count

D.

Route preference

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Questions 46

Which ATM adaptation layer is usually used for connectionless data service?

Options:

A.

AAL1

B.

AAL2

C.

AAL3/4

D.

AAL5

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Questions 47

What type of BGP sessions does router R2 need to establish in order to reach networks 192.168.1.0/27 and 192.168.5.0/27?

Options:

A.

eBGP peering sessions with routers R1, R3 and R4

B.

iBGP peering sessions with routers R1 and R5

C.

An eBGP peering session with router R1, and iBGP peering sessions with routers R3 and R4

D.

An iBGP peering session with router R1, and an eBGP peering session with router R4

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Questions 48

Which answer reflects the correct message sequence used when a source attempts to ping a destination for which it has no Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) cache entry?

Options:

A.

ICMP echo request, ARP request, ARP reply, ICMP echo reply

B.

ARP request, ARP reply, ICMP echo request, ICMP echo reply

C.

ICMP echo request, ICMP echo reply, ARP request, ARP reply

D.

ICMP echo request. ARP reply, ARP request, ICMP echo reply

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Questions 49

Given network address 200.12.30.0 with network mask 255.255.255.0, which subnet mask can be used to create 12 subnetworks? Each subnetwork must support 10 host addresses.

Options:

A.

/25

B.

/26

C.

/28

D.

/30

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Questions 50

Which of the following best describes an Autonomous System (AS)?

Options:

A.

A group of routers that are under one administrative authority.

B.

A group of networks that make up the Internet.

C.

A group of networks from different organizations exchanging routes using IGP routing protocols.

D.

Any organization that has a connection to the Internet.

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Questions 51

Which of the following statements about route summarization is FALSE?

Options:

A.

It reduces the number of routes advertised by the router.

B.

It allows a single route table entry to represent multiple subnetworks

C.

It can reduce the size of the routing table in neighboring routers.

D.

It advertises more specific routes for routing advertisement stability.

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Questions 52

Which configuration edit mode does NOT give you access to the global candidate configuration?

Options:

A.

Private

B.

Global

C.

Read-only

D.

Exclusive

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Exam Code: 4A0-100
Exam Name: Nokia Scalable IP Networks
Last Update: May 1, 2024
Questions: 352
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