The type of annuity in which all payments cease upon the death of an annuitant is referred to as a
terminal annuity.
finite annuity.
refund annuity.
life annuity.
Alife annuity(or straight life annuity) pays periodic payments to the annuitant until their death, at which point all payments cease, with no further benefits to beneficiaries. This contrasts with other annuity types, such as refund or joint-life annuities, which may continue payments or provide refunds.
Option A: Incorrect. “Terminal annuity” is not a standard insurance term.
Option B: Incorrect. “Finite annuity” is not a recognized annuity type.
Option C: Incorrect. A refund annuity provides a refund or continued payments to a beneficiary if the annuitant dies early.
Option D: Correct. A life annuity ceases payments upon the annuitant’s death.
This question falls under the Prometric content outline section on “Life Products,” which covers annuities and their features.
Returning part of the commission or giving anything of value to the insured as an inducement to buy a policy is
coercion.
defamation.
rebating.
controlled business.
Rebatingis the practice of offering or returning part of a commission, premium, or anything of value to an insured as an inducement to purchase an insurance policy. It is prohibited in Oklahoma under the Unfair Trade Practices Act (Title 36 O.S. § 1204) to ensure fair competition and prevent undue influence.
Option A: Incorrect. Coercion involves forcing someone to buy insurance, not offering inducements.
Option B: Incorrect. Defamation is making false statements harming reputation, not related to inducements.
Option C: Correct. Rebating involves giving value to induce a policy purchase.
Option D: Incorrect. Controlled business refers to writing insurance primarily for oneself or close associates, not inducements.
This question falls under the Prometric content outline section on “State Insurance Statutes, Rules, and Regulations,” which covers unfair trade practices.
A PRIMARY difference between precertification provision and concurrent review is that only the precertification provision
is designed to be a cost containment measure.
involves a review by the insurance company.
requires the consent of the patient.
occurs before the treatment is provided.
Precertification(or preauthorization) is a process where the insurer reviews and approves certain medical treatments or procedures before they are provided, ensuring they are medically necessary and covered.Concurrent reviewoccurs during the treatment, monitoring ongoing care (e.g., hospital stays) to ensure continued necessity. The primary difference is timing: precertification happens before treatment, while concurrent review happens during treatment.
Option A: Incorrect. Both precertification and concurrent review are cost containment measures, so this is not unique to precertification.
Option B: Incorrect. Both processes involve review by the insurance company.
Option C: Incorrect. Neither typically requires patient consent beyond agreeing to the policy terms.
Option D: Correct. Precertification occurs before treatment, distinguishing it from concurrent review.
This question aligns with the Prometric content outline under “Provisions, Options, Exclusions, Riders, Clauses, and Rights,” which covers health insurance utilization management.
What is the main reason a Medicare supplement policy is purchased?
to cover dental services
to cover long-term care services
to cover prescription drugs filled at the pharmacy
to fill the gaps not covered by Medicare Parts A and B
AMedicare supplement policy(Medigap) is designed to cover out-of-pocket costs not paid by Original Medicare (Parts A and B), such as deductibles, coinsurance, and copayments. The primary reason for purchasing Medigap is tofill the gapsin Medicare coverage, as outlined in Oklahoma’s regulations (Title 36 O.S. § 6217) and federal guidelines (CMS, Medicare & You Handbook). Dental services, long-term care, and prescription drugs are not typically covered by Medigap; these require separate plans (e.g., Medicare Part D for drugs).
Option A: Incorrect. Dental services are not covered by Medigap; they require separate dental insurance.
Option B: Incorrect. Long-term care is not covered by Medigap; it requires LTC insurance.
Option C: Incorrect. Prescription drugs are covered by Medicare Part D, not Medigap.
Option D: Correct. Medigap fills gaps in Medicare Parts A and B coverage.
Every licensee must keep records pertaining to insurance transactions for how many years?
3
5
7
10
Oklahoma insurance law requires licensed insurance producers to maintain records of insurance transactions for a minimum of5 years, as specified in Title 36 O.S. § 1435.13. This ensures compliance with regulatory oversight and allows for audits or investigations by the Oklahoma Insurance Department.
Option A: Incorrect. 3 years is insufficient per Oklahoma law.
Option B: Correct. Licensees must keep records for 5 years.
Option C: Incorrect. 7 years exceeds the requirement.
Option D: Incorrect. 10 years is not mandated by Oklahoma insurance regulations.
This question falls under the Prometric content outline section on “State Insurance Statutes, Rules, and Regulations,” which includes recordkeeping requirements.
An accelerated death benefit provision allows a portion of the death benefits to be paid to the insured prior to death if the insured
becomes disabled.
has a terminal illness.
has reached retirement age.
has a dependent with a serious illness.
Anaccelerated death benefit (ADB)provision, regulated in Oklahoma (Title 36 O.S. § 4051), allows an insured with aterminal illness(typically with a life expectancy of 12–24 months) to receive a portion of the life insurance death benefit before death. This provides funds for medical or personal expenses during the insured’s lifetime.
Option A: Incorrect. Disability may trigger other riders (e.g., waiver of premium), not ADB.
Option B: Correct. A terminal illness qualifies for accelerated death benefits.
Option C: Incorrect. Reaching retirement age does not trigger ADB.
Option D: Incorrect. A dependent’s illness is not a qualifying condition for ADB.
This question falls under the Prometric content outline section on “Provisions, Options, Exclusions, Riders, Clauses, and Rights,” which covers accelerated death benefits.
An insured individual who just turned 67 years old is still working and is a member of the group health insurance plan provided by his employer, which has 18 insured employees. In this case, Medicare will MOST likely
act as the primary insurer and pay claims up to the limit of the policy.
act as a secondary insurer and pay claims not completely covered by the group health insurance.
not cover any claims to protect against overinsurance.
require the individual to cancel his group insurance.
For individuals aged 65 or older who are still working and covered by an employer’s group health plan, Medicare’s role depends on the employer’s size. For employers with fewer than 20 employees (as in this case with 18 employees), Medicare is typically theprimary payer, and the group health plan is secondary. However, if the individual is actively working and enrolled in the group plan, the group plan is primary, and Medicare acts as thesecondary payer, covering claims not fully paid by the group plan, as per Medicare Secondary Payer (MSP) rules.
Option A: Incorrect. The group health plan is primary for active employees, not Medicare.
Option B: Correct. Medicare acts as the secondary insurer, paying claims not fully covered by the group plan.
Option C: Incorrect. Medicare does cover claims as a secondary payer, not denying them to prevent overinsurance.
Option D: Incorrect. Medicare does not require cancellation of group insurance; individuals can maintain both.
This question aligns with the Prometric content outline under “Medicare,” which covers Medicare’s coordination with group health plans.
In addition to the actual policy, an entire contract includes which of the following?
Clauses.
Credit report.
Provisions.
The application.
Theentire contract provision, mandated in Oklahoma for life and health insurance (Title 36 O.S. § 4001 for life, § 4405 for health), specifies that theentire contractconsists of the policy, any attached endorsements or riders, and a copy of theapplicationif endorsed upon or attached to the policy at issuance. This ensures no external documents can alter the agreement unless included. Clauses and provisions are part of the policy itself, while credit reports are used in underwriting but not part of the contract.
Option A: Incorrect. Clauses are components of the policy, not a separate item added to the entire contract.
Option B: Incorrect. Credit reports are underwriting tools, not part of the contract.
Option C: Incorrect. Provisions are part of the policy, not a distinct addition.
Option D: Correct. The application, when attached, is part of the entire contract.
A difference between permanent and term life insurance is
term life only covers the insured for 1 year.
term life is more economical for the insured over a long life span.
permanent life may develop cash value.
permanent life automatically covers an insured for 5 years even when premiums are not paid.
Permanent life insurance (e.g., whole life, universal life) and term life insurance differ fundamentally in their structure and benefits. Permanent life insurance provides coverage for the insured’s entire life (as long as premiums are paid) and often includes a savings component that accumulates cash value. Term life insurance provides coverage for a specific period (e.g., 10, 20, or 30 years) and does not build cash value.
Option A: Incorrect. Term life insurance can cover the insured for various periods (e.g., 5, 10, 20 years), not strictly 1 year, depending on the policy term selected.
Option B: Incorrect. Term life is generally more economical for short-term needs due to lower premiums, but over a long life span, permanent life may be more cost-effective due to its lifelong coverage and cash value growth.
Option C: Correct. Permanent life insurance may develop cash value, which can be borrowed against or withdrawn, while term life does not have this feature.
Option D: Incorrect. Permanent life insurance does not automatically provide coverage for 5 years without premium payments. Policies may lapse without payment unless nonforfeiture options (e.g., extended term or reduced paid-up insurance) are exercised.
This question aligns with the Prometric content outline under “Life Products,” which covers the characteristics of term and permanent life insurance.
A condition for which medical advice, diagnosis, care, or treatment was recommended or received during the 6 months immediately preceding the effective date of group health coverage is
elimination period.
affiliation period.
diagnosed condition.
preexisting condition.
Apreexisting conditionis defined in health insurance as a medical condition for which advice, diagnosis, care, or treatment was recommended or received within a specified period (commonly 6 months) before the effective date of coverage. In Oklahoma, group health insurance policies often include provisions limiting or excluding coverage for preexisting conditions for a certain period, as regulated by federal and state laws, including the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA).
Option A: Incorrect. An elimination period is the waiting period before benefits begin, typically in disability or long-term care policies, not related to preexisting conditions.
Option B: Incorrect. An affiliation period is a waiting period for late enrollees in HMOs under HIPAA, not tied to medical conditions.
Option C: Incorrect. A diagnosed condition is not a standard insurance term; it does not specifically denote the timeframe of prior treatment like a preexisting condition.
Option D: Correct. A preexisting condition matches the definition provided, as per Oklahoma and federal regulations.
This question aligns with the Prometric content outline under “Provisions, Options, Exclusions, Riders, Clauses, and Rights,” which covers health insurance exclusions and limitations.
The elimination period in an individual disability insurance policy refers to the
length of time a policy will continue to pay for specific disabilities.
amount of time a disabled person must wait before benefits are paid.
point in time when benefits are exhausted.
period of time that benefits are still payable after an insurance company discontinues a policy.
The elimination period in an individual disability insurance policy is the waiting period between the onset of a disability and the time when benefit payments begin. It is essentially a deductible in time, during which the insured must be disabled before receiving benefits. This period can range from 30 days to several months, depending on the policy, and is designed to reduce premiums by excluding short-term disabilities.
Option A: Incorrect. The length of time benefits are paid is determined by the benefit period, not the elimination period.
Option B: Correct. The elimination period is the amount of time the insured must wait after becoming disabled before benefits are paid.
Option C: Incorrect. The point when benefits are exhausted is related to the benefit period or policy limits, not the elimination period.
Option D: Incorrect. The elimination period does not apply after the policy is discontinued; it applies at the start of a disability claim.
This question aligns with the Prometric content outline under “Provisions, Options, Exclusions, Riders, Clauses, and Rights,” which includes knowledge of disability insurance provisions.
Which of the following is a core benefit of Medicare supplemental insurance?
First 3 pints of blood each year.
At-home recovery.
Basic drugs limit of $1,250.
Preventive care.
Medicare supplemental insurance(Medigap) covers gaps in Original Medicare (Parts A and B), such as deductibles, coinsurance, and certain costs not covered by Medicare. A core benefit, included in most Medigap plans (e.g., Plans A–N), is coverage for thefirst 3 pints of bloodeach year, which Medicare Part A does not cover. Other options like at-home recovery or prescription drugs are not core benefits, and preventive care is covered by Medicare, not Medigap.
Option A: Correct. The first 3 pints of blood is a core Medigap benefit.
Option B: Incorrect. At-home recovery is not a standard core benefit in most Medigap plans.
Option C: Incorrect. Prescription drug coverage is not a core Medigap benefit; it’s covered by Medicare Part D.
Option D: Incorrect. Preventive care is covered by Medicare Part B, not a core Medigap benefit.
This question falls under the Prometric content outline section on “Medicare,” which covers Medigap benefits.
Term life insurance differs from permanent life insurance in that MOST often, term life insurance
accumulates a much smaller cash value.
has a longer premium payment period.
remains in force for a specific period of time.
is automatically renewable at the end of the term period.
Term life insuranceprovides coverage for a specific period (e.g., 10, 20 years) and does not accumulate cash value, unlikepermanent life insurance(e.g., whole life), which provides lifelong coverage with cash value. Term policies may be renewable, but this is not automatic unless specified, and premium payment periods are shorter than permanent policies (Title 36 O.S. § 4002).
Option A: Incorrect. Term life accumulates no cash value, not a smaller amount.
Option B: Incorrect. Term life has a shorter premium payment period than permanent life.
Option C: Correct. Term life remains in force for a specific period, unlike lifelong permanent coverage.
Option D: Incorrect. Renewal is not automatic; it depends on the policy’s terms.
A common disaster provision states that if the beneficiary dies from the same accident as the insured individual, the insurer will proceed as if the
insured individual outlived the beneficiary.
beneficiary outlived the insured individual.
beneficiary and the insured individual died simultaneously.
beneficiary was never named on the policy.
Thecommon disaster provisionin a life insurance policy addresses situations where the insured and primary beneficiary die in the same accident. It typically includes a survivorship clause, presuming thebeneficiary outlived the insuredfor a specified period (e.g., 14–30 days) unless proven otherwise. This ensures the death benefit passes to the beneficiary’s estate or contingent beneficiaries, as outlined in Oklahoma’s life insurance provisions (Title 36 O.S. § 4001 et seq.).
Option A: Incorrect. The provision does not assume the insured outlived the beneficiary.
Option B: Correct. The insurer proceeds as if the beneficiary outlived the insured.
Option C: Incorrect. Simultaneous death is addressed differently under the Uniform Simultaneous Death Act, not the common disaster provision.
Option D: Incorrect. The provision does not treat the beneficiary as unnamed.
Accidental death covers death from
terminal illness.
drowning.
infections.
self-inflicted wounds.
Accidental death insurance(or accidental death and dismemberment, AD&D) covers death resulting from accidental bodily injury, independent of illness or intentional acts.Drowningis an example of an accidental cause of death typically covered under such policies. Exclusions often include death from illness, infections, or self-inflicted injuries, as outlined in standard policy provisions.
Option A: Incorrect. Terminal illness is a natural cause, not covered by accidental death insurance.
Option B: Correct. Drowning is an accidental cause of death, covered by AD&D policies.
Option C: Incorrect. Infections are typically excluded as they are not accidental injuries.
Option D: Incorrect. Self-inflicted wounds are intentional and excluded from coverage.
This question falls under the Prometric content outline section on “Provisions, Options, Exclusions, Riders, Clauses, and Rights,” which covers accidental death coverage.
Which of the following is an ADVANTAGE to the policyowner of the recurrent periods of disability provision in the disability income policy?
It reduces the annual premium amount.
It protects the insured from multiple elimination periods.
It improves the insurability of the applicant.
It reduces the actual period of disability.
Therecurrent periods of disability provisionin a disability income policy allows related or recurring disabilities within a specified timeframe (e.g., 6 months) to be treated as a single disability period. This protects the insured from serving multipleelimination periods(the waiting period before benefits begin), ensuring faster benefit payments for recurrent conditions, as per standard disability policy provisions in Oklahoma (Title 36 O.S. § 4405).
Option A: Incorrect. The provision does not reduce premiums; it affects benefit timing.
Option B: Correct. It protects the insured from multiple elimination periods for recurrent disabilities.
Option C: Incorrect. The provision does not impact insurability; it’s a policy feature.
Option D: Incorrect. It does not reduce the disability period; it simplifies benefit access.
Long-Term Care Policies exclude coverage for all of the following EXCEPT
alcoholism or drug addiction.
acts of war while serving in the military.
self-inflicted injuries.
Alzheimer’s disease.
Long-Term Care (LTC) policies cover services for individuals with chronic conditions or disabilities, such as assistance with activities of daily living. Oklahoma regulations (Title 36 O.S. § 4426.1) allow LTC policies to exclude coverage for conditions like alcoholism or drug addiction, acts of war (especially military service), and self-inflicted injuries, as these are considered high-risk or intentional. However,Alzheimer’s diseaseis a core condition typically covered by LTC policies, as it is a common cause of long-term care needs.
Option A: Incorrect (excluded). Alcoholism or drug addiction is often excluded unless treatment is completed.
Option B: Incorrect (excluded). Acts of war, especially in military service, are standard exclusions.
Option C: Incorrect (excluded). Self-inflicted injuries are excluded as intentional acts.
Option D: Correct (not excluded). Alzheimer’s disease is typically covered by LTC policies.
Ann has a 5-year Renewable Term Life Insurance Policy. Upon exercising the renewable privilege, Ann MUST
provide evidence of insurability.
renew for at least 10 years.
pay an annual premium that may be higher.
convert to a whole life policy.
A renewable term life insurance policy allows the insured to renew the policy at the end of the term without providing evidence of insurability, typically for another term of the same duration. However, because the insured is older at renewal, the premium is generally higher due to increased risk. For a 5-year renewable term policy, Ann can renew for another 5-year term, but the premium will reflect her age at the time of renewal.
Option A: Incorrect. Renewable term policies do not require evidence of insurability for renewal, as this is a key feature of the renewability provision.
Option B: Incorrect. The renewal term is typically the same as the original term (5 years in this case), not a mandatory 10 years.
Option C: Correct. The premium upon renewal may be higher because it is based on the insured’s attained age, as outlined in standard term life insurance provisions.
Option D: Incorrect. Renewal does not require conversion to a whole life policy; conversion is a separate option that may be available but is not mandatory.
This question aligns with the Prometric content outline under “Life Products,” which covers the characteristics and provisions of term life insurance, including renewability.
Which of the following is NOT an example of inducement?
A promise of employment.
A gift having a value less than $100.
A special favor in the payment of premiums.
Giving merchandise to a client with a value of $250.
Aninducementin insurance involves offering something of value to persuade someone to purchase a policy, which is consideredrebatingand prohibited in Oklahoma unless allowed under specific exceptions (Title 36 O.S. § 1204). Oklahoma allows gifts valued at $100 or less as non-rebating promotional items, so a gift under $100 is not an inducement. Other actions, like promising employment, offering premium payment favors, or giving high-value merchandise, are considered inducements.
Option A: Incorrect (is an inducement). Promising employment to secure a policy sale is rebating.
Option B: Correct (is not an inducement). A gift valued less than $100 is permitted and not considered rebating.
Option C: Incorrect (is an inducement). Special favors in premium payments are rebating.
Option D: Incorrect (is an inducement). Giving merchandise worth $250 exceeds the $100 limit and is rebating.
Which of the following provisions allows a person to temporarily give up a portion of their ownership rights to secure a loan?
Reinstatement.
Entire contract.
Collateral assignment.
Automatic premium loan.
A collateral assignment is a provision in a life insurance policy that allows the policyowner to temporarily transfer certain ownership rights (e.g., the right to the death benefit or cash value) to a creditor as security for a loan. The assignee (creditor) has a claim to the policy proceeds up to the loan amount, but the policyowner retains other rights and regains full ownership once the loan is repaid.
Option A: Incorrect. Reinstatement allows a lapsed policy to be restored under certain conditions, not related to securing a loan.
Option B: Incorrect. The entire contract provision defines the policy and application as the complete agreement, not related to loans.
Option C: Correct. Collateral assignment temporarily assigns policy rights to secure a loan, as per standard life insurance provisions.
Option D: Incorrect. An automatic premium loan uses the policy’s cash value to pay overdue premiums, not to secure an external loan.
This question is part of the Prometric content outline under “Provisions, Options, Exclusions, Riders, Clauses, and Rights,” which covers ownership and assignment provisions.
Premiums paid by the insured for personally owned disability income insurance are
not tax deductible.
tax deductible.
partially tax deductible.
tax deferred.
According to IRS guidelines (Publication 502), premiums paid by an individual for personally owneddisability income insurancearenot tax deductibleas medical expenses or otherwise, unlike certain health insurance premiums. However, benefits received from such policies are generally tax-free if the insured paid the premiums with after-tax dollars.
Option A: Correct. Premiums for personally owned disability insurance are not tax deductible.
Option B: Incorrect. Premiums are not deductible for disability income insurance.
Option C: Incorrect. There is no partial deduction for these premiums.
Option D: Incorrect. Tax deferral applies to certain investment products, not disability premiums.
Which of the following is an Unfair Claims Settlement Practices Act under Oklahoma law?
knowingly misrepresenting to a claimant pertinent facts or policy provisions that relate to coverage.
failing to interview all involved parties within 45 days of the filing of proof of loss forms.
not maintaining an audit trail of premium history and claim transactions.
failing to maintain complete policy notes involving claims.
The Oklahoma Unfair Claims Settlement Practices Act, under Title 36 O.S. § 1250.5, defines practices that constitute unfair or deceptive acts in the settlement of insurance claims. Knowingly misrepresenting pertinent facts or policy provisions related to coverage to a claimant is explicitly listed as an unfair practice, as it misleads policyholders and undermines fair claim handling.
Option A: Correct. Misrepresenting facts or policy provisions is an unfair claims settlement practice under Oklahoma law.
Option B: Incorrect. There is no specific 45-day requirement to interview parties in the Act; timelines relate to acknowledging or settling claims.
Option C: Incorrect. Maintaining an audit trail is a best practice but not explicitly an unfair claims settlement practice.
Option D: Incorrect. Incomplete policy notes are not specifically cited as an unfair practice under the Act.
This question aligns with the Prometric content outline under “State Insurance Statutes, Rules, and Regulations,” which covers unfair claims practices.
A form of an accelerated death benefit is a
home care benefit.
nonforfeiture extended term benefit.
terminal illness settlement benefit.
cost of living benefit.
Anaccelerated death benefit (ADB)provision allows an insured to receive a portion of the life insurance death benefit before death under specific conditions, such as aterminal illness. Theterminal illness settlement benefitis a form of ADB, providing funds for medical or personal needs, as regulated in Oklahoma (Title 36 O.S. § 4051).
Option A: Incorrect. A home care benefit relates to long-term care, not ADB.
Option B: Incorrect. A nonforfeiture extended term benefit is a policy lapse option, not an ADB.
Option C: Correct. A terminal illness settlement benefit is a type of accelerated death benefit.
Option D: Incorrect. A cost of living benefit adjusts benefits for inflation, not an ADB.
What is the focus of major medical insurance?
Providing preventative care.
Reducing costs by using in-network facilities.
Providing coverage for hospitalization expenses.
Providing care to the needy.
Major medical insuranceis designed to cover significant healthcare expenses, particularly those related to hospitalization, surgeries, and other high-cost medical services. It focuses on providing comprehensive coverage for catastrophic or major medical events, as opposed to routine or preventive care, which may be covered to a lesser extent or through separate plans.
Option A: Incorrect. Preventive care is often included but is not the primary focus of major medical insurance.
Option B: Incorrect. Using in-network facilities reduces costs but is a feature of managed care plans, not the core focus of major medical insurance.
Option C: Correct. The focus of major medical insurance is covering hospitalization and other major expenses.
Option D: Incorrect. Providing care to the needy is associated with programs like Medicaid, not private major medical insurance.
This question falls under the Prometric content outline section on “Health Providers and Products,” which covers the characteristics of major medical insurance.
All of the following are DISADVANTAGES of replacing an older health policy EXCEPT
proving insurability.
a new contestability period.
preexisting conditions.
the old policy does not meet policyowner’s needs.
Replacing an older health insurance policy involves terminating an existing policy and purchasing a new one, which can have disadvantages such as proving insurability (new underwriting), a new contestability period (typically 2 years for misstatements), and potential exclusions for preexisting conditions under the new policy, as regulated in Oklahoma (O.A.C. 365:10-3-16). However, if the old policy no longer meets the policyowner’s needs, replacing it is an advantage, not a disadvantage.
Option A: Incorrect (is a disadvantage). Proving insurability may result in higher premiums or denial.
Option B: Incorrect (is a disadvantage). A new contestability period restarts the insurer’s ability to contest claims.
Option C: Incorrect (is a disadvantage). Preexisting conditions may face new exclusions or waiting periods.
Option D: Correct (is not a disadvantage). Replacing a policy that doesn’t meet needs is a benefit of replacement.
This question aligns with the Prometric content outline under “Considerations in Replacing Insurance,” which covers the implications of policy replacement.
An endorsement to an insurance policy that modifies clauses and provisions of the policy is referred to as
an attachment.
a supplement.
a rider.
an add-on.
Arideris an endorsement or amendment to an insurance policy that modifies its clauses, provisions, or coverage. Riders can add, remove, or alter benefits, such as adding coverage for a specific condition or family members in life or health insurance policies. The term is standard in Oklahoma insurance law and practice.
Option A: Incorrect. An attachment is not a specific insurance term for policy modifications.
Option B: Incorrect. A supplement may refer to additional coverage but is not the standard term for policy endorsements.
Option C: Correct. A rider is an endorsement that modifies policy provisions.
Option D: Incorrect. “Add-on” is not a formal insurance term for policy modifications.
This question aligns with the Prometric content outline under “Provisions, Options, Exclusions, Riders, Clauses, and Rights,” which covers policy endorsements.
How are benefits treated for tax purposes if an individual is receiving disability insurance benefits from a group policy paid for by his employer?
They are not taxable.
They can be deducted from gross income.
They are taxable income.
They are only subject to Social Security and FUTA taxes.
According to IRS guidelines (Publication 525), disability benefits from a group policy paid for by the employer are consideredtaxable incometo the employee because the premiums were not included in the employee’s taxable income. If the employee paid the premiums with after-tax dollars, the benefits would be tax-free.
Option A: Incorrect. Benefits are taxable if the employer paid the premiums.
Option B: Incorrect. Disability benefits are not deductible from gross income.
Option C: Correct. The benefits are taxable income.
Option D: Incorrect. Benefits are subject to income tax, not just Social Security or FUTA taxes.
Upon surrender of a whole life insurance policy, which has been in force for AT LEAST 3 full years, and within 60 days after the date the premium payment is due and unpaid, the insurer will
pay a cash surrender value.
extend the grace period.
reimburse all paid premiums.
refund premium.
Under Oklahoma’s Standard Nonforfeiture Law (Title 36 O.S. § 4029), a whole life insurance policy in force for at least 3 years that is surrendered due to non-payment of premiums within 60 days of the due date entitles the policyowner to acash surrender value, provided sufficient cash value has accumulated. This is one of the nonforfeiture options, alongside extended term or reduced paid-up insurance.
Option A: Correct. The insurer pays a cash surrender value upon surrender.
Option B: Incorrect. The grace period (typically 31 days) cannot be extended beyond policy terms.
Option C: Incorrect. Reimbursing all premiums is not a nonforfeiture option.
Option D: Incorrect. Refunding the premium is not applicable; cash value is paid.
Misrepresenting the advantages and benefits of a new policy to induce replacement of an existing policy is
rebating.
twisting.
defamation.
forfeiting.
Twistingis the unethical practice of using misrepresentation or incomplete information to persuade an insured to replace an existing policy with a new one, often to their detriment. It is prohibited under Oklahoma’s Unfair Trade Practices Act (Title 36 O.S. § 1204) to protect consumers from deceptive sales practices.
Option A: Incorrect. Rebating involves offering a portion of the premium or other inducements to purchase insurance.
Option B: Correct. Twisting involves misrepresenting benefits to induce policy replacement.
Option C: Incorrect. Defamation is making false statements harming someone’s reputation, not policy replacement.
Option D: Incorrect. Forfeiting is not a term related to policy replacement practices.
This question aligns with the Prometric content outline under “State Insurance Statutes, Rules, and Regulations,” which covers unfair trade practices.
In conjunction with an Oklahoma insurance producer or adjuster license renewal, which one of the following is a continuing education requirement?
12 hours annually.
18 hours every 2 years.
24 hours every 2 years.
26 hours every 3 years.
Oklahoma requires insurance producers and adjusters to complete24 hours of continuing education (CE)every 2 years for license renewal, including 3 hours of ethics and 2 hours of legislative updates, as specified in Title 36 O.S. § 1435.29 and O.A.C. 365:25-3-1.
Option A: Incorrect. 12 hours annually is not the requirement.
Option B: Incorrect. 18 hours every 2 years is insufficient.
Option C: Correct. 24 hours every 2 years is the CE requirement.
Option D: Incorrect. 26 hours every 3 years is not the standard.
What is it called when a health insurance policy terminates and the policyholder is allowed to receive benefits past the termination date of the policy?
qualifying event.
duration of coverage.
extension of benefits.
notification statement.
Anextension of benefitsprovision in health insurance allows a policyholder to continue receiving benefits for a covered condition (e.g., disability or hospitalization) after the policy terminates, typically if the condition began while the policy was in force. This is a standard provision in group and individual health insurance policies in Oklahoma, ensuring continuity of care for specific circumstances.
Option A: Incorrect. A qualifying event relates to COBRA or other continuation coverage triggers, not post-termination benefits.
Option B: Incorrect. Duration of coverage refers to the policy term, not benefits after termination.
Option C: Correct. Extension of benefits allows benefits to continue after policy termination.
Option D: Incorrect. A notification statement is unrelated to benefit continuation.
This question aligns with the Prometric content outline under “Provisions, Options, Exclusions, Riders, Clauses, and Rights,” which covers health insurance benefit provisions.
How many days does the insured have to notify the insurer to add a newly-born child to continue coverage?
31 days.
30 days.
21 days.
14 days.
In life and health insurance policies with family or dependent coverage riders, Oklahoma insurance regulations typically allow a 31-day period for the insured to notify the insurer of a newly-born child to add them to the policy for continued coverage. This aligns with standard provisions for automatic coverage of newborns, which often provide temporary coverage from birth (e.g., for 31 days) before requiring formal notification and premium adjustment to maintain coverage.
Option A: Correct. The insured has 31 days to notify the insurer to add a newly-born child, consistent with standard policy provisions and Oklahoma regulations.
Option B: Incorrect. 30 days is not the standard timeframe in Oklahoma for this purpose.
Option C: Incorrect. 21 days is too short and not aligned with typical insurance provisions.
Option D: Incorrect. 14 days is insufficient for the notification period in most policies.
This question is part of the Prometric content outline under “Provisions, Options, Exclusions, Riders, Clauses, and Rights,” which covers dependent coverage and policy provisions.
A person whose life is insured under a group insurance policy has the right to designate a beneficiary and the right to
cash in the surrender value.
convert the premiums to a different policy.
remain as an insured in the case of termination of employment.
have an individual policy issued in the case of termination of employment.
Under Oklahoma law (Title 36 O.S. § 4107), individuals covered by a group life insurance policy have the right to designate a beneficiary and, upon termination of employment or group membership, the right toconvertthe group coverage to an individual life insurance policy without evidence of insurability, typically within 31 days. This conversion right ensures continued coverage.
Option A: Incorrect. Group life policies typically do not have cash surrender value for individual insureds.
Option B: Incorrect. Converting premiums to a different policy is not a standard right.
Option C: Incorrect. Remaining insured after termination requires COBRA (for health) or conversion, not automatic continuation.
Option D: Correct. The insured has the right to convert to an individual policy upon termination.
This question falls under the Prometric content outline section on “Provisions, Options, Exclusions, Riders, Clauses, and Rights,” which covers group life insurance rights.
Transacting insurance includes any of the following EXCEPT
selling insurance.
preliminary negotiations.
delivering insurance contracts.
gathering prospective buyer information.
Under Oklahoma’s Insurance Code (Title 36 O.S. § 1435.2),transacting insuranceincludes activities such as soliciting or selling insurance, engaging in preliminary negotiations for insurance contracts, and delivering insurance contracts or collecting premiums.Gathering prospective buyer information(e.g., lead generation) is not considered transacting insurance unless it involves direct solicitation or negotiation.
Option A: Incorrect (is transacting). Selling insurance is a core part of transacting insurance.
Option B: Incorrect (is transacting). Preliminary negotiations are included in transacting insurance.
Option C: Incorrect (is transacting). Delivering insurance contracts is part of transacting insurance.
Option D: Correct (is not transacting). Gathering prospective buyer information alone does not constitute transacting insurance.
This question falls under the Prometric content outline section on “State Insurance Statutes, Rules, and Regulations,” which covers the definition of transacting insurance.
If a primary beneficiary dies, life insurance benefits are then paid to
no one.
the tertiary beneficiaries.
the contingent beneficiaries.
the sub-primary beneficiaries.
In a life insurance policy, theprimary beneficiaryis the first in line to receive the death benefit. If the primary beneficiary predeceases the insured, the benefits are paid to thecontingent (or secondary) beneficiaries, as specified in the policy. If no contingent beneficiaries are named, the benefits typically go to the insured’s estate, but “contingent beneficiaries” is the correct choice here (Title 36 O.S. § 4001 et seq.).
Option A: Incorrect. Benefits are not paid to “no one”; they go to contingent beneficiaries or the estate.
Option B: Incorrect. “Tertiary beneficiaries” is not a standard term in life insurance.
Option C: Correct. Contingent beneficiaries receive benefits if the primary beneficiary dies.
Option D: Incorrect. “Sub-primary beneficiaries” is not a recognized term.
A single contract for group medical insurance issued to an employer is known as
a master policy.
an employer policy.
a certificate policy.
a conglomerate policy.
In group medical insurance, themaster policyis the single contract issued to the employer or group sponsor (e.g., a trust or association) that outlines the terms, conditions, and coverage for the entire group. Individual employees receivecertificates of insurance, which summarize their coverage under the master policy but are not the contract itself.
Option A: Correct. The master policy is the contract issued to the employer for group medical insurance.
Option B: Incorrect. “Employer policy” is not a standard insurance term.
Option C: Incorrect. A certificate policy refers to the document given to individuals, not the group contract.
Option D: Incorrect. “Conglomerate policy” is not a recognized term in insurance.
This question falls under the Prometric content outline section on “Health Providers and Products,” which covers group health insurance structures.
An insured receives a notice from the insurer that the policy has been cancelled in the middle of the term. Which of the following policies did the insured MOST likely have?
Optionally renewable.
Term.
Conditionally renewable.
Cancelable.
Acancelablehealth insurance policy allows the insurer to cancel the policy at any time during the term with proper notice, typically for reasons like non-payment or fraud, as permitted under Oklahoma’s regulations (Title 36 O.S. § 4405). Other policy types, like optionally renewable (insurer can refuse renewal at term end), conditionally renewable (renewal subject to conditions), or term (fixed duration), do not typically allow mid-term cancellation.
Option A: Incorrect. Optionally renewable policies can be non-renewed at term end, not cancelled mid-term.
Option B: Incorrect. Term policies (life or health) run for a fixed period and are not typically cancelled mid-term.
Option C: Incorrect. Conditionally renewable policies restrict renewal, not mid-term cancellation.
Option D: Correct. A cancelable policy allows mid-term cancellation by the insurer.
Jim purchased a $200,000 level term-to-age-65 life insurance policy when he was 35 years old. If Jim dies at age 50, what death benefit would be paid by this policy?
$50,000
$100,000
$150,000
$200,000
Alevel term-to-age-65 life insurance policyprovides a fixed death benefit until the insured reaches age 65, as long as premiums are paid. Since Jim purchased a $200,000 policy at age 35 and dies at age 50 (before age 65), the full death benefit of $200,000 is payable, assuming the policy is in force.
Option A: Incorrect. $50,000 is not the policy’s face amount.
Option B: Incorrect. $100,000 is not the policy’s face amount.
Option C: Incorrect. $150,000 is not the policy’s face amount.
Option D: Correct. The $200,000 death benefit is paid, as it is a level term policy.
This question falls under the Prometric content outline section on “Life Products,” which covers term life insurance benefits.
An example of a false financial statement is which one of the following?
An insurance producer published an untrue newspaper advertisement about another producer.
An insurance producer posts information about a profitable insurer going bankrupt.
An insurance producer hands out flyers about another producer’s criminal past.
An insurance producer mails out hateful postcards about a local insurer.
Afalse financial statementin the context of insurance refers to a misrepresentation of an insurer’s financial condition, such as falsely claiming insolvency or bankruptcy, which is prohibited under Oklahoma’s Unfair Trade Practices Act (Title 36 O.S. § 1204). This can mislead consumers and harm the insurer’s reputation. Option B directly involves a false claim about an insurer’s financial status.
Option A: Incorrect. An untrue advertisement about another producer is defamation or misrepresentation, not a financial statement.
Option B: Correct. Posting false information about an insurer’s bankruptcy is a false financial statement, violating Oklahoma law.
Option C: Incorrect. Flyers about a criminal past are defamatory but not related to financial statements.
Option D: Incorrect. Hateful postcards are unprofessional but do not constitute a false financial statement.
This question is part of the Prometric content outline under “State Insurance Statutes, Rules, and Regulations,” which covers unfair trade practices.
The ownership provision of a life insurance policy states that during the insured individual’s lifetime, the rights and privileges belong to the
insured individual only
owner only
insured individual’s family
beneficiaries
Theownership provisionin a life insurance policy specifies that the policyowner (who may or may not be the insured) holds all rights and privileges during the insured’s lifetime, including changing beneficiaries, borrowing against cash value, or surrendering the policy. This is standard in Oklahoma’s Insurance Code (Title 36 O.S. § 4001 et seq.). Beneficiaries have no rights until the insured’s death, and the insured’s family has no automatic rights unless designated as owners.
Option A: Incorrect. The insured has no ownership rights unless they are also the policyowner.
Option B: Correct. The policyowner holds all rights and privileges.
Option C: Incorrect. The insured’s family has no inherent rights unless they are the policyowner.
Option D: Incorrect. Beneficiaries have rights only after the insured’s death.
TESTED 15 Jul 2026
