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PMI-001 Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

The process of developing a detailed description of the project and product is known as:

Options:

A.

Create WBS.

B.

Verify Scope.

C.

Collect Requirements.

D.

Define Scope.

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Questions 5

What is Project Portfolio Management?

Options:

A.

Management of a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects.

B.

Management of a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills, such as planning, organizing, staffing, executing and controlling.

C.

Management of all projects undertaken by a company.

D.

Management of a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet strategic business objectives.

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Questions 6

The ability to influence cost is greatest during which stages of the project?

Options:

A.

Early

B.

Middle

C.

Late

D.

Completion

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Questions 7

The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is:

Options:

A.

Define Activities.

B.

Create WBS.

C.

Define Scope.

D.

Develop Schedule.

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Questions 8

Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?

Options:

A.

Configuration management plan

B.

Scope baseline

C.

Requirements management plan

D.

Schedule baseline

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Questions 9

Which stakeholder approves a project's result?

Options:

A.

Customer

B.

Sponsor

C.

Seller

D.

Functional manager

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Questions 10

Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

Options:

A.

Recognized by every project manager

B.

Constantly evolving

C.

The sum of all knowledge related to project management

D.

A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project

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Questions 11

A project can be defined as a:

Options:

A.

Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result

B.

Temporary endeavor that produces repetitive outputs

C.

Permanent endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result

D.

Permanent endeavor that produces repetitive outputs

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Questions 12

You are assigned to implement the project control plan. What should you do to ensure the plan is effective and current?

Options:

A.

Perform periodic project performance reviews.

B.

Identify quality project standards.

C.

Follow ISO 9000 quality standards.

D.

Complete the quality control checklist.

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Questions 13

Progressively elaborating high-level information into detailed plans is performed by the:

Options:

A.

project management office

B.

portfolio manager

C.

program manager

D.

project manager

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Questions 14

Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment analysis

B.

Make or buy analysis

C.

Contract value analysis

D.

Cost impact analysis

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Questions 15

The person assigned by the performing organization to be responsible for achieving the project objectives is the:

Options:

A.

functional manager

B.

program manager

C.

project manager

D.

portfolio manager

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Questions 16

Which tool or technique of Plan Quality involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance?

Options:

A.

Histogram

B.

Quality audits

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Performance measurement analysis

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Questions 17

Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action?

Options:

A.

Probability and impact matrix

B.

Contingency analysis report

C.

Risk urgency assessment

D.

Rolling wave plan

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Questions 18

Which process is conducted from project inception through completion and is ultimately the responsibility of the project manager?

Options:

A.

Control Quality

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Control Scope

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

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Questions 19

The links between the processes in the Process Groups are often:

Options:

A.

Intuitive

B.

Iterative

C.

Measured

D.

Monitored

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Questions 20

The diagram below is an example of a:

Options:

A.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS).

B.

Project team.

C.

SWOT Analysis.

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS).

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Questions 21

The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs because milestones:

Options:

A.

Are unpredictable and challenge the Plan Schedule Management process.

B.

Occur at random times in the project plans.

C.

Represent a moment in time such as a significant project point or event.

D.

Represent both significant and insignificant points in the project and are difficult to anticipate.

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Questions 22

What is the definition of project plan execution?

Options:

A.

Integrating all planned activities

B.

Performing the activities included in the plan

C.

Developing and maintaining the plan

D.

Execution of deliverables

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Questions 23

A regression line is used to estimate:

Options:

A.

Whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance.

B.

How a change to the independent variable influences the value of the dependent variable.

C.

The upper and lower specification limits on a control chart.

D.

The central tendency, dispersion, and shape of a statistical distribution.

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Questions 24

Which of the following is an input to the Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk data quality assessment

C.

Risk categorization

D.

Risk urgency

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Questions 25

Which of the following is an example of a technique used in quantitative risk analysis?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Probability and impact matrix

C.

Risk data quality assessment

D.

Risk categorization

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Questions 26

Which Control Scope input is compared to actual results to determine if corrective action is required for the project?

Options:

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Scope management plan

C.

Change management plan

D.

Cost baseline

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Questions 27

The creation of an internet site to engage stakeholders on a project is an example of which type of communication?

Options:

A.

Push

B.

Pull

C.

Interactive

D.

Iterative

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Questions 28

Which item is a cost of conformance?

Options:

A.

Training

B.

Liabilities

C.

Lost business

D.

Scrap

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Questions 29

Whose approval may be required for change requests after change control board (CCB) approval?

Options:

A.

Functional managers

B.

Business partners

C.

Customers or sponsors

D.

Subject matter experts

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Questions 30

Plan Schedule Management is a process in which Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Project Scope Management

B.

Project Human Resource Management

C.

Project Integration Management

D.

Project Time Management

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Questions 31

When painting a bedroom, preparing the walls can be done while the paint is being chosen. This is an example of a:

Options:

A.

lead

B.

lag

C.

mandatory dependency

D.

internal dependency

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Questions 32

Which Perform Quality Control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

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Questions 33

Which tool or technique is used to develop a project charter?

Options:

A.

Project manager information systems

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Change control meetings

D.

Brainstorming

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Questions 34

A project manager is appointed full-time to a project and is given full-time administrative staff and full-time project team members. This situation describes which type of organizational structure?

Options:

A.

Projectized

B.

Weak matrix

C.

Functional

D.

Balanced matrix

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Questions 35

Which of the following is contained within the communications management plan?

Options:

A.

An organizational chart

B.

Glossary of common terminology

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

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Questions 36

The following is a network diagram for a project.

How many possible paths are identified for this project?

Options:

A.

3

B.

4

C.

6

D.

7

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Questions 37

An output of the Close Project (or Close Phase) process is:

Options:

A.

accepted deliverables

B.

organizational process asset updates

C.

work performance information

D.

project management plan updates

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Questions 38

During which process would you obtain stakeholders’ formal acceptance of the completed project scope?

Options:

A.

Quality control

B.

Scope verification

C.

Scope control

D.

Close project

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Questions 39

Which schedule development technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?

Options:

A.

Human resource planning

B.

Fast tracking

C.

Critical chain method

D.

Rolling wave planning

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Questions 40

Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?

Options:

A.

Control Quality

B.

Control Scope

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

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Questions 41

Analogous cost estimating relies on which of the following techniques?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management software

C.

Vendor bid analysis

D.

Reserve analysis

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Questions 42

The purpose of inspection in Perform Quality Control is to keep errors:

Options:

A.

in line with a measured degree of conformity.

B.

out of the hands of the customer.

C.

in a specified range of acceptable results.

D.

out of the process.

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Questions 43

The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected: Actual cost = $50,000, Plan cost = $45,000, Earned value = $40,000. What is the cost performance index?

Options:

A.

0.8

B.

0.89

C.

1.13

D.

1.25

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Questions 44

A project team member agrees to change a project deliverable after a conversation with an external stakeholder. It is later discovered that the change has had an adverse effect on another deliverable. This could have been avoided if the project team had implemented:

Options:

A.

Quality assurance.

B.

A stakeholder management plan.

C.

Project team building.

D.

Integrated change control.

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Questions 45

One of the fundamental tenets of modern quality management states that quality is:

Options:

A.

planned, designed, and built in.

B.

planned, designed, and inspected in.

C.

built in, created, and reviewed.

D.

built in, created, and standardized.

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Questions 46

An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is:

Options:

A.

smooth/accommodate.

B.

force/direct,

C.

collaborate/problem solve,

D.

compromise/reconcile.

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Questions 47

Which type of estimating can produce higher levels of accuracy, depending upon the sophistication and underlying data built into the model?

Options:

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Three-point

C.

Parametric

D.

Analogous

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Questions 48

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the schedulevariance (SV) for Task 8?

Options:

A.

-2,000

B.

-1,000

C.

1,000

D.

2,000

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Questions 49

An input of the Control Schedule process is the:

Options:

A.

resource calendar.

B.

activity list.

C.

risk management plan.

D.

organizational process assets.

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Questions 50

Within project integration management, the statement of work (SOW) references which aspects of the project?

Options:

A.

Strategic plan, business need, and product scope description

B.

Contract, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets

C.

Business plan, project management plan, and project schedule

D.

Product lifecycle, business objective, and management strategy

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Questions 51

Specification of both the deliverables and the processes is the focus of:

Options:

A.

Change control

B.

Configuration control

C.

Project monitoring and control

D.

Issue control

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Questions 52

A collection of projects managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives is referred to as a:

Options:

A.

plan

B.

process

C.

program

D.

portfolio

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Questions 53

Perform Integrated Change Control is the process of:

Options:

A.

Reviewing, approving, and managing all change requests

B.

Facilitating change management, manuals, or automation tools

C.

Comparing actual results with planned results in order to expand or change a project

D.

Documenting changes according to the change control system by the change control board

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Questions 54

An example of a group decision-making technique is:

Options:

A.

nominal group technique

B.

majority

C.

affinity diagram

D.

multi-criteria decision analysis

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Questions 55

Procurement audits, negotiated settlements, and a records management system are tools and techniques used in which Procurement Management process?

Options:

A.

Close Procurements

B.

Administer Procurements

C.

Plan Procurements

D.

Conduct Procurements

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Questions 56

In project management, a temporary project can be:

Options:

A.

Completed without planning

B.

A routine business process

C.

Long in duration

D.

Ongoing to produce goods

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Questions 57

Stakeholder management strategy is an output of:

Options:

A.

Plan Communications.

B.

Distribute Information.

C.

Report Performance.

D.

Identify Stakeholders.

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Questions 58

Which of the following investigates the likelihood that each specific risk will occur?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk audits

C.

Risk urgency assessment

D.

Risk probability and impact assessment

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Questions 59

Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process?

Options:

A.

Work performance information

B.

Project management plan

C.

Business case

D.

Change requests

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Questions 60

Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?

Options:

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

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Questions 61

At the completion of a project, a report is prepared that details the outcome of the research conducted on a global trend during the project. Which item did this project create?

Options:

A.

Result

B.

Product

C.

Service

D.

Improvement

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Questions 62

Which technique is utilized in the Control Schedule process?

Options:

A.

Performance measure

B.

Baseline schedule

C.

Schedule network analysis

D.

Variance analysis

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Questions 63

Which change request is an intentional activity that realigns the performance of the project work with the project management plan?

Options:

A.

Update

B.

Preventive action

C.

Defect repair

D.

Corrective action

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Questions 64

A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:

Options:

A.

Adaptive

B.

Predictive

C.

Incremental

D.

Iterative

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Questions 65

A work package has been scheduled to cost $1,000 to complete and was to be finished today. As of today, the actual expenditure is $1,200 and approximately half of the work has been completed. What is the cost variance?

Options:

A.

-700

B.

-200

C.

200

D.

500

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Questions 66

Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Duration?

Options:

A.

Critical path

B.

Rolling Wave

C.

PDM

D.

Para metric

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Questions 67

Co-location is a tool and technique of:

Options:

A.

Develop Human Resource Plan.

B.

Manage Project Team.

C.

Develop Project Team.

D.

Acquire Project Team.

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Questions 68

Create WBS is part of which of the following Knowledge Areas?

Options:

A.

Project Integration Management

B.

Project Scope Management

C.

Project Time Management

D.

Project Cost Management

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Questions 69

The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:

Options:

A.

Planning.

B.

Executing,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Closing.

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Questions 70

A special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of the variables is called a:

Options:

A.

triangular distribution

B.

tornado diagram

C.

beta distribution

D.

fishbone diagram

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Questions 71

Which provides the basic framework for managing a project?

Options:

A.

Project life cycle

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Project initiation

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Questions 72

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique of which Project Cost Management process?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

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Questions 73

An input used in developing the communications management plan is:

Options:

A.

Communication models.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors.

C.

Organizational communications,

D.

Organizational cultures and styles.

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Questions 74

Which is used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers?

Options:

A.

Procurement statement of work

B.

Resource calendars

C.

Procurement document

D.

Independent estimates

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Questions 75

The Human Resource Management processes are:

Options:

A.

Develop Human Resource Plan, Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team, and Manage Project Team.

B.

Acquire Project Team, Manage Project Team, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Develop Project Team.

C.

Acquire Project Team, Develop Human Resource Plan, Conflict Management, and Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team, Manage Project Team, Estimate Activity Resources, and Acquire Project Team.

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Questions 76

Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?

Options:

A.

Plan Communications

B.

Performance reporting

C.

Project status reports

D.

Distribute Information

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Questions 77

Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?

Options:

A.

Configuration Identification

B.

Configuration Status Accounting

C.

Configuration Verification and Audit

D.

Configuration Quality Assurance

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Questions 78

Which of the following is an input into the Develop Project Team process?

Options:

A.

Enterprise environmental factors

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Project staff assignments

D.

Performance reports

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Questions 79

Which of the following are inputs to the Plan Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Risk register, scope baseline, enterprise environmental factors, organizational process assets, project schedule

B.

Risk register, scope baseline, make-or-buy decisions, organizational process assets, project schedule

C.

Project management plan, qualified seller list, contract, enterprise environmental factors, teaming agreements

D.

Project management plan, qualified seller list, contract, make-or-buy decisions, teaming agreements

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Questions 80

The integrative nature of project management requires which Process Group to interact with the other Process Groups?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Project Management

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Questions 81

The Plan Stakeholder Management process belongs to which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Initiating

C.

Planning

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

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Questions 82

A full-time project manager with low to moderate authority and part-time administrative staff is working in an organizational structure with which type of matrix?

Options:

A.

Strong

B.

Weak

C.

Managed

D.

Balanced

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Questions 83

Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?

Options:

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Close Project

D.

Develop Project Charter

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Questions 84

Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the costs of the current project?

Options:

A.

Analogous

B.

Parametric

C.

Bottom-up

D.

Top-down

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Questions 85

Configuration identification, configuration status accounting, and configuration verification and audit are all activities in which process?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Assurance

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

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Questions 86

Which type of dependency used in the Sequence Activities process is sometimes referred to as preferred logic, preferential logic, or soft logic?

Options:

A.

Internal

B.

External

C.

Discretionary

D.

Mandatory

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Questions 87

How is the schedule variance calculated using the earned value technique?

Options:

A.

EV less AC

B.

AC less PV

C.

EV less PV

D.

AC less EV

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Questions 88

What quality control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

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Questions 89

Analyzing the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) of a project is known as:

Options:

A.

calculating cost of quality

B.

comparing project benefits

C.

performing measurements analysis

D.

identifying risks

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Questions 90

Which standard has interrelationships to other project management disciplines such as program management and portfolio management?

Options:

A.

Program Management Body of Knowledge Guide

B.

The Standard for Program Management

C.

Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3$)

D.

Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK®)

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Questions 91

A project manager seeking insight on previous stakeholder management plans and their effectiveness should evaluate:

Options:

A.

Historical information and the lessons-learned database.

B.

Historical information and the stakeholder register.

C.

Organizational process assets and the lessons-learned database.

D.

Project documents and historical information.

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Questions 92

The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is called risk:

Options:

A.

appetite

B.

tolerance

C.

threshold

D.

management

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Questions 93

Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?

Options:

A.

Project stakeholders

B.

Project sponsor and project stakeholder

C.

Project manager and project team

D.

Project manager and project sponsor

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Questions 94

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?

Options:

A.

Networking

B.

Training

C.

Negotiation

D.

Issue log

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Questions 95

A weighting system is a tool for which area of procurement?

Options:

A.

Plan contracting

B.

Request seller responses

C.

Select sellers

D.

Plan purchase and acquisition

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Questions 96

Which risk response strategy is common for both positive and negative risks?

Options:

A.

Share

B.

Accept

C.

Mitigate

D.

Transfer

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Questions 97

What is a tool to improve team performance?

Options:

A.

Staffing plan

B.

External feedback

C.

Performance reports

D.

Co-location

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Questions 98

Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes, and procedures?

Options:

A.

Scope audits

B.

Scope reviews

C.

Quality audits

D.

Control chart

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Questions 99

The three types of estimates that PERT uses to define an approximate range for an activity’s cost are:

Options:

A.

Parametric, most likely, and analogous.

B.

Least likely, analogous, and realistic.

C.

Parametric, optimistic, and pessimistic.

D.

Most likely, optimistic, and pessimistic.

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Questions 100

Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is:

Options:

A.

cause and effect diagram.

B.

control chart.

C.

flowchart.

D.

histogram.

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Questions 101

Which process requires implementation of approved changes?

Options:

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Close Project or Phase

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Questions 102

A change log for communications can be used to communicate to the appropriate stakeholders that there are changes:

Options:

A.

To the project management plan.

B.

To the risk register.

C.

In the scope verification processes.

D.

And their impact to the project in terms of time, cost, and risk.

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Questions 103

What’s budget?

Options:

A.

Monitoring & Controlling

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Initiating

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Questions 104

Which of the following processes are within the Initiating Process Group?

Options:

A.

Develop Project Management Plan and Identify Stakeholders

B.

Develop Project Management Plan and Plan Communications

C.

Develop Project Charter and Identify Stakeholders

D.

Develop Project Charter and Develop Project Scope Statement

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Questions 105

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Options:

A.

Requested changes

B.

Approved change requests

C.

Work performance information

D.

Implemented defect repair

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Questions 106

Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Decomposition

D.

Product analysis

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Questions 107

A project manager at a publishing company decides to initiate the editing phase of the project as soon as each chapter is written. Which type of Sequence Activities tool and technique is involved, considering that there was a start-to-start relationship with a 15-day delay?

Options:

A.

Slack

B.

Float

C.

Lag

D.

Lead

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Questions 108

The project manager for XYZ stationers is sequencing the activities for the project to set up a new office. It is known from knowledge of best practices that it is better to wait for the painters to finish painting the walls before the new floors are installed. This is an example of which of the following types of dependency?

Options:

A.

Precedence

B.

Discretionary

C.

External

D.

Mandatory

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Questions 109

Which cost estimate technique includes contingencies to account for cost uncertainty?

Options:

A.

Vendor bid analysis

B.

Three-point estimates

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Reserve analysis

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Questions 110

An output of the Manage Project Team process is:

Options:

A.

project management plan updates

B.

project staff assignments updates

C.

team performance assessments

D.

resource calendar updates

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Questions 111

Which of the following types of a dependency determination is used to define the sequence of activities?

Options:

A.

Legal

B.

Discretionary

C.

Internal

D.

Resource

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Questions 112

Tools and techniques used in Direct and Manage Project Work include:

Options:

A.

Process analysis and expert judgment

B.

Analytical techniques and a project management information system

C.

Performance reviews and meetings

D.

Expert judgment and meetings

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Questions 113

The Create WBS process is in which of the following Project Management Process Groups?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Executing

D.

Initiating

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Questions 114

Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?

Options:

A.

Interrelationship digraphs

B.

Tree diagram

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Network diagram

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Questions 115

The planned work contained in the lowest level of work breakdown structure (WBS) components is known as:

Options:

A.

Work packages.

B.

Accepted deliverables.

C.

The WBS dictionary.

D.

The scope baseline.

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Questions 116

A tool and technique used during the Create WBS process is:

Options:

A.

decomposition

B.

expert judgment

C.

inspection

D.

variance analysis

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Questions 117

The item that provides more detailed descriptions of the components in the work breakdown structure (WB5) is called a WBS:

Options:

A.

dictionary.

B.

chart.

C.

report.

D.

register.

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Questions 118

A project team attempts to produce a deliverable and finds that they have neither the expertise nor the time to complete the deliverable in a timely manner. This issue could have been avoided if they had created and followed a:

Options:

A.

risk management plan

B.

human resource management plan

C.

scope management plan

D.

procurement management plan

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Questions 119

Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:

Options:

A.

Expert judgment.

B.

Analytical techniques.

C.

Earned value management.

D.

Group decision-making techniques.

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Questions 120

An output of the Create WBS process is:

Options:

A.

Scope baseline.

B.

Project scope statement.

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Requirements traceability matrix.

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Questions 121

The procurement process that documents agreements and related documentation for future reference is known as:

Options:

A.

Plan Procurements.

B.

Control Procurements.

C.

Close Procurements.

D.

Conduct Procurements.

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Questions 122

The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables is known as:

Options:

A.

Validate Scope.

B.

Close Project or Phase.

C.

Control Quality.

D.

Verify Scope.

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Questions 123

Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to change unless the scope of work changes?

Options:

A.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments Contract (FP-EPA)

B.

Cost-Reimbursable Contract (CR)

C.

Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contract (FPIF)

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Questions 124

Which of the following is a measure of the value of work completed compared to the actual cost or progress made on the project?

Options:

A.

Schedule performance index (SPI)

B.

Cost performance index (CPI)

C.

Cost variance (CV)

D.

Planned value (PV)

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Questions 125

Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?

Options:

A.

Acceptance of deliverables

B.

Change requests

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Benchmarking

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Questions 126

Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?

Options:

A.

Nominal group technique

B.

Idea/mind mapping

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

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Questions 127

The Closing Process Group includes which of the following Knowledge Areas?

Options:

A.

Project Risk Management and Project Procurement Management

B.

Project Integration Management and Project Procurement Management

C.

Project Risk Management and Project Integration Management

D.

Project Integration Management and Project Quality Management

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Questions 128

At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?

Options:

A.

Positive

B.

Zero

C.

Negative

D.

Greater than one

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Questions 129

Which of the following is a conflict resolution technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference?

Options:

A.

Compromising

B.

Collaborating

C.

Smoothing

D.

Problem Solving

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Questions 130

A reward can only be effective if it is:

Options:

A.

Given immediately after the project is completed.

B.

Something that is tangible.

C.

Formally given during project performance appraisals.

D.

Satisfying a need valued by the individual.

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Questions 131

Which of the following is an output of Close Procurements?

Options:

A.

Accepted deliverables

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Managing stakeholder expectations

D.

Performance reports

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Questions 132

In which Process Group are lessons learned documented?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Closing

C.

Executing

D.

Initiating

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Questions 133

What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?

Options:

A.

Finish-to-start planning

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Short term planning

D.

Dependency determination

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Questions 134

The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide® should:

Options:

A.

always be applied uniformly.

B.

be selected as appropriate by the sponsor.

C.

be selected as appropriate by the project team.

D.

be applied based on ISO guidelines.

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Questions 135

Lessons learned documentation is gathered during which of the following Project Management Process Groups?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

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Questions 136

What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?

Options:

A.

Sole-sum

B.

Win-lose

C.

Lose-win

D.

Partial-sum

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Questions 137

Updates to organizational process assets such as procurement files, deliverable acceptances, and lessons learned documentation are typical outputs of which process?

Options:

A.

Close Project or Phase

B.

Conduct Procurements

C.

Control Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

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Exam Code: PMI-001
Exam Name: Project Management Professional v5
Last Update: May 1, 2024
Questions: 918
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