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ZTCA Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

How is policy enforcement in Zero Trust done?

Options:

A.

As a binary decision of allow or block.

B.

Without trust, for example Zero Trust.

C.

Conditionally, in that an allow or a block will have additional controls assigned, for example Allow and isolate, or Block and Deceive.

D.

At the network level, by source IP.

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Questions 5

What is the security risk inherent in creating a split tunnel VPN, where some traffic is routed over the VPN tunnel and the rest over a direct internet connection?

Options:

A.

The VPN traffic is exempted from any security policies configured on the direct internet uplink router or appliance.

B.

You no longer have the visibility required to make decisions on those traffic flows that are going directly out to the internet.

C.

A split ACL list, which means only half the rules will be enforced.

D.

An issue between the built-in client VPN agent on most modern operating systems and a third-party VPN gateway upstream.

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Questions 6

Where is it most effective to assess the content of a connection?

Options:

A.

At the policy enforcement point, as close to an initiator as possible, for example the closest edge.

B.

Within a data center deployed in a one-armed concentrator mode.

C.

On disk, after first being copied several times for a backup.

D.

Within an ISP’s fiber backbone.

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Questions 7

What is the trend that is increasing security risk through legacy solutions that drive network sprawl?

Options:

A.

A spread-out group of access control lists (ACLs) and firewall rules, with each firewall and VPN appliance only enforcing a subset of the total rule list.

B.

A desire to replace edge routers with SD-WAN boxes, which can leverage multiple uplinks for active-active VPN failover.

C.

An ongoing dependence on Layer 2 and Layer 3 switching, without consideration for upcoming 5G architectures.

D.

More applications moving to the cloud, users being remote, and VPNs and firewalls extending IP connectivity out to several different locations.

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Questions 8

Content stored within a SaaS/PaaS/IaaS location can be:

Options:

A.

100% trusted, as cloud providers make sure content is safe before it is uploaded.

B.

Considered risky until inspected, either through inline SSL/TLS controls or through assessing the files “at rest” using an out-of-band assessment.

C.

Partially trusted depending on whether you maintain a proper audit log for access.

D.

Should never be trusted.

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Questions 9

Is risk the same across users?

Options:

A.

Yes.

B.

No.

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Questions 10

Connections approved by the Zero Trust Exchange must then enable permanent network-level access for at least 30 days.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 11

Which of the following actions can be included in a conditional “block” policy? (Select 2)

Options:

A.

Quarantine: Ensure access is stopped and assessed.

B.

Deceive: Direct any malicious attack to a restricted decoy.

C.

Firehose: Send TCP resets to the initiator.

D.

Allow the connection.

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Questions 12

Data center applications are moving to:

Options:

A.

The branch.

B.

Castle and moat type architectures.

C.

The DMZ.

D.

The cloud.

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Questions 13

What are two categories of destination applications in Zero Trust?

Options:

A.

(a) Known: the application has been categorized, classified, and updated dynamically; (b) Unknown: the application does not meet an existing category and must be profiled, learned, and controlled conditionally.

B.

(a) Google, (b) non-Google.

C.

(a) SaaS, (b) PaaS.

D.

(a) all things on the internet, (b) all things internal.

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Questions 14

The Zscaler Client Connector is:

Options:

A.

A device used to create a secure communication channel with a Web Application Firewall (WAF).

B.

A cloud-managed endpoint device via an MDM solution.

C.

An agent installed on the endpoint to tunnel authorized user traffic to the Zero Trust Exchange for protection of SaaS, private applications, and internet-bound traffic.

D.

A marketplace platform that connects different types of business clients to each other.

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Questions 15

What are the three main sections that the elements of Zero Trust are grouped into?

Options:

A.

Verify Identity and Context, Control Content and Access, and Enforce Policy.

B.

VPNs, firewalls, and legacy architectures.

C.

Castle-and-moat security architectures, with the data center and inbound DMZ being key.

D.

Routers, switches, and wireless access points.

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Questions 16

Zero Trust access can work over any type of network.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 17

Policy enforcement in Zero Trust is assessed:

Options:

A.

For all traffic from the initiating source.

B.

Only if the risk score is high.

C.

For authorized users only.

D.

For every access request.

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Questions 18

What does deception as a conditional block policy allow an enterprise to do?

Options:

A.

Engage in double-extortion negotiations.

B.

Conditionally decide which access request is sent to a decoy service, not the real destination workload, thus allowing security teams insight into questionable activity.

C.

Create various policy tiers, including several quarantine VLANs.

D.

Rethink its security posture, leveraging local breakouts from branch sites so that user traffic is filtered through a secure web gateway.

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Questions 19

How are services protected in a legacy scenario when they are discoverable on the public Internet? (Select all that apply)

Options:

A.

Establishing a DMZ that would include multiple products and services.

B.

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST).

C.

A large security stack including appliances that handle functions like global load balancing, firewalling, DDoS, and more.

D.

A web application firewall (WAF) for protecting against DDoS and other botnet style attacks.

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Questions 20

Should a Zero Trust solution inspect traffic for all destinations?

Options:

A.

No. Only traffic destined to engineering services and financial applications.

B.

No. Traffic should never be inspected.

C.

No. It is important to find a balance. The Zero Trust solution should give the enterprise the ability to implement inspection for any application or destination. Although it is strongly recommended, it is up to the enterprise to decide where inspection is needed.

D.

No. Only non-TLS/SSL-based traffic should be inspected.

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Questions 21

Historically, initiators and destinations have shared which of the following?

Options:

A.

A network, because prior to Zero Trust there was no other way to connect the two.

B.

The same IP subnet range.

C.

The same punch card machine, pre-computer.

D.

Physical hard drives and storage.

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Questions 22

Why should an enterprise categorize applications as part of its secure digital transformation to a Zero Trust architecture?

Options:

A.

To build structured naming conventions for applications, for example Country:City:Location:Function.

B.

So that these can be stored in a CMDB (Configuration Management Database) system, which can be used as a policy enforcement plane for application traffic.

C.

To differentiate destination applications from each other, thus enabling the deployment of granular control from valid initiator to valid destination application.

D.

To know which ACLs to set on their firewall.

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Exam Code: ZTCA
Exam Name: Zscaler Zero Trust Cyber Associate
Last Update: Apr 28, 2026
Questions: 75
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