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ISEB-PM1 Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

A project manager has limited authority in which type of organizational structure?

Options:

A.

Weak matrix

B.

Functional

C.

Balanced matrix

D.

Projectized

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Questions 5

You are a project manager for Picture Shades, Inc. It manufactures window shades that have replicas of Renaissance-era paintings on the inside for hotel chains. Picture Shades is taking its product to the home market, and you're managing the new project. It will offer its products at retail stores as well as on its website. You're developing the project schedule for this under-taking and have determined the critical path.

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

You calculated the early and late start dates, the early and late finish dates, and float times for all activities.

B.

You calculated the optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely duration times and the float times for all activities.

C.

You calculated the activity dependency and the optimistic and pessimistic activity duration estimates.

D.

You calculated the most likely start date and most likely finish dates, float time, and weighted average estimates.

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Questions 6

When managing a project team, what helps to reduce the amount of conflict?

Options:

A.

Clear role definition

B.

Negotiation

C.

Risk response planning

D.

Team member replacement

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Questions 7

You are a project manager of Software Product Company. After hired a person you got to know that many of this person's ideas were developed by the competing company.

Are you going to implement the same ideas?

Options:

A.

Accept the new ideas.

B.

Ask to sign NDA.

C.

Ignore the ideas because it may be violation of code of conduct.

D.

Tell the person that he should not mention that the ideas came from another company.

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Questions 8

The critical path in a schedule network is the path that:

Options:

A.

Takes the longest time to complete

B.

Allows some flexibility in scheduling a start time.

C.

Is not affected by schedule slippage

D.

Must be done before any other tasks

E.

All of the other alternatives apply.

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Questions 9

In which of the following contract types does the buyer have the most cost risk?

Options:

A.

Cost plus percentage of costs (CPPC)

B.

Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)

C.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF)

D.

Cost plus incentive fee (CPIF)

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Questions 10

Life seems to be going very well for your close friend, a fellow PMP. She has taken a trip to France, bought a new car, and stocked her wine cellar with a half dozen expensive bottles of wine, all within the last six months. After a few cocktails one evening, she tells you her secret. The vendor she's working with on the $4 billion project she's managing has given her all of these items as gifts.

Which of the following should you do? (Choose the best answer.)

Options:

A.

You tell your friend these gifts probably aren't appropriate and leave it at that.

B.

Your friend doesn't see a problem with accepting these gifts at all. You know this is a conflict of interest situation and should be reported as a PMP Code of Professional Conduct violation.

C.

You and your friend have a long conversation about the gifts, and she decides to return them (with the exception of the trip) and not accept any more gifts in the future.

D.

You're happy for your friend and say nothing.

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Questions 11

The Define Scope process is in which of the following process groups?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring & Controlling

D.

Executing

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Questions 12

Which of the following describes the purpose of the quality control process?

Options:

A.

To identify quality requirements of the project

B.

To identify ineffective processes and eliminate them

C.

To assess performance and recommend necessary changes

D.

To ensure quality standards are used

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Questions 13

What is the difference between expected monetary value and net present value?

Options:

A.

Expected value is the estimated value of the work actually accomplished and net present value is the value of the work to be done.

B.

Expected value is the value it takes to recover your investment and net present value is the value of money.

C.

Expected value is the probability times impact of an opportunity and net present value is the benefits less costs over many time periods.

D.

Expected value is the estimated value of risk response plans and net present value helps determine the value of investments.

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Questions 14

Which of the following processes includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?

Options:

A.

Qualitative risk analysis

B.

Quantitative risk analysis

C.

Risk management planning

D.

Risk response planning

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Questions 15

Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the costs of the current project?

Options:

A.

Analogous

B.

Parametric

C.

Bottom-up

D.

Top-down

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Questions 16

Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have been done sequentially?

Options:

A.

Crashing

B.

Fast tracking

C.

Leads and lags adjustment

D.

Parallel task development

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Questions 17

Failure costs are also known as which of the following?

Options:

A.

Internal costs

B.

Prevention costs

C.

Cost of keeping defects out of the hands of customers

D.

Cost of poor quality

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Questions 18

The project manager has, as a prime responsibility, to assure proper integration of activities.

In which organizational form does the project manager probably have the easiest time in integrating work?

Options:

A.

Matrix

B.

Pure project

C.

Coordinator

D.

Classical

E.

Expediter

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Questions 19

Your management has decided that all orders will be treated as "projects" and that project managers will be used to update orders daily, to resolve issues, and to ensure that the customer formally accepts the product within 30 days of completion. Revenue from the individual orders can vary from US $100 to US $150,000. The project manager will not be required to perform planning or provide documentation other than daily status.

How would you define this situation?

Options:

A.

Because each individual order is a "temporary endeavor," each order is a project.

B.

This is program management since there are multiple projects involved.

C.

This is a recurring process.

D.

Orders incurring revenue over $100,000 would be considered projects and would involve project management.

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Questions 20

Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?

Options:

A.

Team performance assessment

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Staffing management plan

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

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Questions 21

All the following are needed to create the WBS EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets.

B.

Quality measurements.

C.

Requirements documentation.

D.

Project scope statement.

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Questions 22

Control chart theory is based on the differentiation of the causes of variations in quality. Variations may be produced by assignable causes. All of the following are examples of assignable causes except:

Options:

A.

None of the other alternatives apply (all are examples)

B.

differences among materials.

C.

differences among machines.

D.

differences among workers.

E.

differences in each of these factors over time.

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Questions 23

Based on the network diagram in the chart, the resource working on activity G is replaced with another resource with 50 percent of the productivity of the previous resource.

How long will this project take?

Options:

A.

44

B.

51

C.

52

D.

36

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Questions 24

Your company has just presented its new five-year strategic plan. You have received a new product request from a customer that is in line with the previous five-year strategic plan, but it does not meet the objectives of the new plan. The product description seems to have a valid business driver and to be a straightforward development effort.

As project manager, what is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Do a benefit cost analysis of the project and submit it for management approval.

B.

Submit the new product request to the PMO for review and approval before proceeding.

C.

Inform the customer of the change in corporate direction and ask him/her to take another look at the project.

D.

Request a project charter from management and begin a WBS.

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Questions 25

Mathematical models using linear programming, dynamic, or algorithm models are considered:

Options:

A.

form of expert judgment

B.

project closing method

C.

Project selection criteria

D.

Project selection methods

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Questions 26

You are negotiating with a seller. Time is of the essence but you have a limited budget, and the seller knows this.

What is your BEST negotiating strategy under these circumstances?

Options:

A.

Focus the negotiation on seller's profit margin in order to decrease the project cost.

B.

Negotiate to get the work done even sooner than necessary in order to add a reserve.

C.

Negotiate identified risks.

D.

Arrange to reschedule the negotiation until you can acquire information of which the seller is not aware.

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Questions 27

In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?

Options:

A.

Functional

B.

Projectized

C.

Matrix

D.

Balanced

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Questions 28

What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?

Options:

A.

7

B.

8

C.

14

D.

16

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Questions 29

Which of the following is an example of contract administration?

Options:

A.

Negotiating the contract

B.

Authorizing contractor work

C.

Developing the statement of work

D.

Establishing evaluation criteria

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Questions 30

The project manager notices that project activities being completed by one department are all taking slightly longer than planned. To date, none of the activities/work packages have been on the critical path, nor have they affected the critical chain planning that has occurred. The project manager is bothered by the problem, since four of the next five critical path activities are being completed by this department. After making three calls, the project manager is finally able to converse with the department manager to determine what is going on. The conversation is slow, because both speak different native languages and they are trying to converse in French, a shared language. To make communication easier, the project manager frequently asks the department manager to repeat back what has been said. The department manager communicates that his staff is following a company policy that requires two levels of testing. During the conversation, the department manager also makes a comment that leads the project manager to believe that the policy may include excessive work. This is the fourth time the project manager has heard such a comment.

What is the BEST thing to do?

Options:

A.

Create a better communications management plan that requires only one language to be the universal language on the project and have translators readily available on a moment's notice.

B.

Contact someone else in the department who speaks the project manager's native language better to confirm the department manager's opinion.

C.

Find out if the upcoming activities should be re estimated.

D.

Work on increasing the effectiveness of the performing organization by recommending continuous improvement of the policy in question.

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Questions 31

You are the project manager for Lucky Stars nightclubs. They specialize in live country and western band performances. Your newest project is in the Planning process group. You've published the scope statement and scope management plan.

The document that describes who will receive copies of this information as well as future project information, how it should be distributed, and who will prepare it is which of the following?

Options:

A.

Scope management plan

B.

Project charter

C.

Communications management plan

D.

Information distribution plan

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Questions 32

Regardless of style, what information is shown in a process flowchart?

Options:

A.

Actions, decision points, and process drivers

B.

Activities, decision points, and the order of processing

C.

Activities, process drivers, and the order of processing

D.

Actions, decision points, and activities

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Questions 33

Which of the following provides a standardized, effective, and efficient way to centrally manage approved changes and baselines within a project?

Options:

A.

Project management information system

B.

Configuration management system

C.

Change control board

D.

Project management plan

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Questions 34

You are a contract project manager for a wholesale flower distribution company. Your project is to develop a website for the company that allows retailers to place their flower orders online. You will also provide a separate link for individual purchases that are ordered, packaged, and mailed to the consumer directly from the grower's site. This project involves coordinating the parent company, growers, and distributors. You are preparing a performance review and have the following measurements at hand: PV = 300, AC = 200, and EV = 250.

What is the CPI of this project?

Options:

A.

0.83

B.

0.80

C.

1.25

D.

1.5

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Questions 35

Analogous Cost Estimating relies on which of the following techniques?

Options:

A.

Expert Judgment

B.

Project Management Software

C.

Vendor Bid Analysis

D.

Reserve Analysis

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Questions 36

Which of the following is not true for a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM):

Options:

A.

Defines what project member is responsible for each activity

B.

Defines responsibilities for each WBS component

C.

Defines all people associated with each activity

D.

Text description of roles, responsibilities, authorities

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Questions 37

The Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK Guide) should be considered as a:

Options:

A.

guide to project management processes, tools and techniques.

B.

methodology for managing projects.

C.

guide for project, portfolio and program management.

D.

standard for project, portfolio and program management.

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Questions 38

As part of a mid-project evaluation, your project sponsor has asked you to provide a forecast of total project cost.

You should calculate the forecast using which of the following methods?

Options:

A.

BAC

B.

EAC

C.

ETC

D.

WBS

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Questions 39

Who must accept the end product for a project to be considered closed?

Options:

A.

Project team

B.

Project manager

C.

Project management office

D.

Customer or sponsor

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Questions 40

A project manager is creating a risk response plan. However, every time a risk response is suggested, another risk is identified that is caused by the response.

Which of the following is the BEST thing for the project manager to do?

Options:

A.

Document the new risks and continue the Plan Risk Responses process.

B.

Make sure the project work is better understood.

C.

Spend more time making sure the risk responses are clearly defined.

D.

Get more people involved in the Identify Risks process since risks have been missed.

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Questions 41

You are working with XYZ organization. Your senior manager imposed new delivery date which is earlier than mentioned project deliverables date in scope statement.

To whom you are most accountable?

Options:

A.

customer

B.

team member

C.

sponsor

D.

senior manager

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Questions 42

The project manager has performed schedule network analysis, compressed the schedule, and completed a Monte Carlo analysis.

What time management activity should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Update resource requirements

B.

Recommend corrective actions

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Create a milestone list

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Questions 43

Providing forecasts to update current cost and schedule information is a part of which process?

Options:

A.

Perform Integrated Change Control

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Monitor and Control Risks

D.

Monitor and Control Project Work

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Questions 44

While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery.

What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?

Options:

A.

Utilize the change control process.

B.

Crash the schedule to fix the defect.

C.

Leave the defect in and work around it.

D.

Fast-track the remaining development.

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Questions 45

What characteristic do project and operational work share in common?

Options:

A.

Performed by systems

B.

Constrained by limited resources

C.

Repetitiveness

D.

Uniqueness

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Questions 46

Lessons learned are most often based upon project historical records. Lessons learned can be used to:

Options:

A.

See how others have solved problems

B.

"Predict trends, highlight problems and identify alternatives"

C.

See what mistakes others have made

D.

All of the other alternatives apply

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Questions 47

All the techniques described below can be used to keep a meeting focused except:

Options:

A.

Rephrase unclear ideas presented by group members

B.

Encourage pursuit of interesting new ideas

C.

Summarize discussion periodically

D.

Recall agenda items/purpose of meeting

E.

All are acceptable techniques

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Questions 48

What is the first step in preparing the risk register?

Options:

A.

Qualitative risk analysis

B.

Quantitative risk analysis

C.

Risk response planning

D.

Risk identification

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Questions 49

Which of the following must be taken into account for every process, even if they are not explicitly listed as inputs in the process specifications?

Options:

A.

Organizational processes and procedures and enterprise environmental factors

B.

Organizational processes and procedures and corporate knowledge base

C.

Organizational process assets and enterprise environmental factors

D.

Corporate knowledge base and enterprise environmental factors

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Questions 50

During which process would you obtain stakeholders' formal acceptance of the completed project scope?

Options:

A.

Quality control

B.

Scope verification

C.

Scope control

D.

Close project

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Questions 51

What tool or technique of Estimate Activity Durations uses parameters such as duration, budget, size, weight, and complexity from a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measure for a future project?

Options:

A.

Bottom-up estimating

B.

Analogous estimating

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Three-point estimates

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Questions 52

Which of the following is an output of the Information Distribution Process?

Options:

A.

Project calendar

B.

Communication management plan

C.

Requested changes

D.

Communication requirement plan

E.

Organizational Process Assets Updates

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Questions 53

Who decides buyer and seller roles in a teaming agreement?

Options:

A.

Executive management

B.

Project members

C.

Project manager

D.

Contract administrator

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Questions 54

In which tool and technique is it possible to find a correlation between dependent and independent variables?

Options:

A.

Fishbone diagram

B.

Control chart

C.

Run chart

D.

Scatter diagram

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Questions 55

A project team is in which of the following processes when they finalize all activities across all of the management process groups to formally complete the project?

Options:

A.

Closing

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Planning

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Questions 56

Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?

Options:

A.

Mitigate

B.

Transfer

C.

Exploit

D.

Avoid

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Questions 57

In which type of organization does a project manager have a moderate-to-high resource availability?

Options:

A.

Functional

B.

Weak

C.

Balanced

D.

Strong

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Questions 58

A clear definition of the user's needs serves as the direct basis for the:

Options:

A.

Selection of personnel.

B.

Termination decision.

C.

Work breakdown structure.

D.

Functional requirements.

E.

Project cost estimate.

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Questions 59

Executing the risk response plan in order to react to risk events throughout the project is called:

Options:

A.

Contingency planning.

B.

Monitoring and control.

C.

Mitigation.

D.

Life cycle costing.

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Questions 60

What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact how the project's scope is managed?

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Enterprise environmental factors

C.

Project management processes

D.

Project scope management plan

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Questions 61

The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document?

Options:

A.

Schedule management plan

B.

Project management plan

C.

Quality management plan

D.

Resource management plan

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Questions 62

If the Schedule Variance (SV) =$55, and the Planned Value (PV) =$11, what is the Earned Value (EV)?

Options:

A.

$0.2

B.

$5

C.

$44

D.

$66

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Questions 63

Total funding requirements and periodic funding requirements are derived from:

Options:

A.

funding limit reconciliation

B.

scope baseline

C.

activity cost estimates.

D.

cost baseline.

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Questions 64

Co-location can help with:

Options:

A.

Bringing customers together.

B.

Building the team.

C.

Decreasing project rental costs.

D.

Decreasing project time.

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Questions 65

A project becomes officially authorized when which of the following occurs?

Options:

A.

Project manager is appointed

B.

Stakeholders approve the project

C.

Project charter is approved

D.

Project sponsor approves the project

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Questions 66

Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?

Options:

A.

Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials

B.

Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price

C.

Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis

D.

Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive

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Questions 67

A quality management plan is created during which of the following?

Options:

A.

Project Executing

B.

Plan Quality

C.

Perform Quality Assurance

D.

Perform Quality Control

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Questions 68

When do stakeholders have the greatest influence?

Options:

A.

At the start of the project

B.

At the end of the project

C.

During execution

D.

Stakeholders have constant influence

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Questions 69

Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships among schedule activities?

Options:

A.

Schedule development

B.

Activity sequencing

C.

Create WBS

D.

Applying leads and lags

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Questions 70

Employee unions would most likely satisfy which level in Maslow's hierarchy of needs?

Options:

A.

Empowerment

B.

Self-actualization

C.

Belonging

D.

Esteem

E.

Safety

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Questions 71

A work breakdown structure is most useful for:

Options:

A.

determining potential delays

B.

developing a cost estimate

C.

scheduling the start of tasks

D.

identifying individual tasks for a project

E.

A and C

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Questions 72

What is a specific advantage of analogous estimating in comparison with other cost estimate techniques?

Options:

A.

Uses contingency reserves

B.

Less costly and time consuming

C.

Can be applied to segments of work

D.

More accurate

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Questions 73

Draw the precedence diagram for the dependencies and activity times below to answer the question. Use AON or another technique to derive the answer using F-S relationships.

What is the total float on path BEG?

Options:

A.

0

B.

1

C.

2

D.

3

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Questions 74

What are the performance measurements for the Schedule Control process?

Options:

A.

SV (EV - PV) and SPI (EV ÷ PV)

B.

SV (PV - EV) and SPI (PV ÷ EV)

C.

SV (EV - BAC) and SPI (EV ÷ BAC)

D.

SV (EV - AC) and SPI (EV ÷ AC)

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Questions 75

The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions is:

Options:

A.

Project verification

B.

Project scope

C.

Project control

D.

Product scope

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Questions 76

Which of the following is one of the tools and techniques for the Define Activities process?

Options:

A.

Rolling wave planning

B.

Dependency determination

C.

Schedule network template

D.

Applying leads and lags

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Questions 77

The strong matrix versus a weak matrix.

Options:

A.

strong matrix is more difficult to manage.

B.

the balance of power has shifted away from the PM.

C.

All of the other alternatives apply.

D.

functional managers no longer have control over the technical processes.

E.

team members are more likely to be assigned to the project office in a strong matrix

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Questions 78

Cost management includes processes that are required to maintain financial control of projects. These processes may include:

Options:

A.

economic evaluation

B.

cost estimating and cost forecasting

C.

cost estimating

D.

cost forecasting

E.

All of the other alternatives apply.

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Questions 79

The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected:

Actual cost = $50,000 Plan cost = $45,000 Earned value = $40,000

What is the cost performance index?

Options:

A.

0.80

B.

0.89

C.

1.13

D.

1.25

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Questions 80

The risk of accepting a lot of poor quality, in acceptance sampling, is referred to as:

Options:

A.

type I error

B.

producer's risk

C.

consumer's risk

D.

buyer's risk

E.

consumer's risk and type I error

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Questions 81

The use of quality circles:

Options:

A.

provides a quick fix for most quality problems.

B.

is particularly effective in overcoming labor/management conflicts.

C.

1) Has proven ineffective in bothJapan and the U.S. and 2) is particularly effective in overcoming labor/management conflicts.

D.

has proven ineffective in bothJapan and the U.S.

E.

allows workers the opportunity to generate solutions for chronic quality problems.

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Questions 82

Many organizations categorize requirements into which of the following two categories?

Options:

A.

Project and Product

B.

Staffing and Budget

C.

Stakeholder and Customer

D.

Business and Technical

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Questions 83

What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different technical characteristics?

Options:

A.

Scope

B.

Quality

C.

Specification

D.

Grade

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Questions 84

Which of the following is an input to identify risk?

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Scope management plan

C.

Communication management plan

D.

Expert judgment

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Questions 85

What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?

Options:

A.

Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)

B.

Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS)

C.

Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

D.

Project Breakdown Structure (PBS)

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Questions 86

Which technique is utilized in the Schedule Control process?

Options:

A.

Performance Measure

B.

Baseline Schedule

C.

Schedule Comparison

D.

Variance Analysis

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Questions 87

Which of these are logical dependencies in a precedence diagram method?

Options:

A.

End-to-end

B.

Finish-to-end

C.

Start-to-end

D.

Start-to-start

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Questions 88

During the initial stages of the project, what do activity attributes include?

Options:

A.

Activity name, dependencies, assumptions

B.

Activity ID, WBS ID, activity name

C.

Activity ID, assumptions, constraints

D.

Activity name, WBS ID, activity description

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Questions 89

Which process group establishes the total scope of a project?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Executing

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Questions 90

On what is project baseline development established?

Options:

A.

Approved product requirements

B.

Estimated project cost and schedule

C.

Actual project cost and schedule

D.

Revised project cost and schedule

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Questions 91

How is the process of collecting requirements defined?

Options:

A.

Defining and documenting project sponsors' needs to meet the project objectives

B.

Defining and documenting stakeholders' needs to meet the project objectives

C.

Defining and documenting the project teams' needs to meet the project objectives

D.

Defining and documenting the project needs to meet the project objectives

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Questions 92

According to Herzberg, which of the following is a motivational factor?

Options:

A.

Working conditions

B.

Achievement

C.

Vacation time

D.

Pay

E.

Hygiene needs

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Questions 93

Which of the following are outputs of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?

Options:

A.

Requested changes, forecasts, recommended corrective actions

B.

Forecasts, resources plan, bottom up estimating

C.

Recommended corrective actions, cost baseline, forecasts

D.

Requested changes, recommended corrective actions, project constraints

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Questions 94

Resource reallocation from non-critical to critical activities is an example of which Project Scheduling technique:

Options:

A.

Critical Path Method

B.

Schedule Compression

C.

Resource Leveling

D.

What if Analysis

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Questions 95

A(n) _____ is defined as a specified accomplishment in a particular instant in time which does not consume time or resources.

Options:

A.

Event.

B.

Activity

C.

Correlation

D.

Event constrained within planned effort.

E.

Constant

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Questions 96

In a control chart, the consecutive measurements are 11, 13, 09, 07, 08, 09, 09, 09, 08, and 12. For the entire process, the goal is 10 and the standard deviation is 1.

For this data set, it is correct to say that the process:

Options:

A.

is under control.

B.

is out of control.

C.

has an increasing trend.

D.

has a decreasing trend.

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Questions 97

Where are product requirements and characteristics documented?

Options:

A.

Product scope description

B.

Project charter

C.

Preliminary project scope statement

D.

Communications management plan

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Questions 98

Plurality is a type of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Group creativity techniques

B.

Group decision making techniques

C.

Facilitated workshops

D.

Prototypes

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Questions 99

A new project manager is having difficulty creating a WBS with the team. To alleviate this situation, the project manager should ask for help from:

Options:

A.

The sponsor.

B.

Other project managers.

C.

The project management office.

D.

The team.

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Questions 100

The estimated cost to complete (ETC) is _____.

Options:

A.

BCWP/ACWP

B.

the forecasted and final cost - cost to date

C.

None of the other alternatives apply

D.

Total estimate - ACWP

E.

(ACWP-BCWP)/BCWP * 100

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Questions 101

A project manager needs the project team to make a group decision. Which of the following is a method that can be used to reach a group decision?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Majority

C.

SWOT analysis

D.

Brainstorming

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Questions 102

A project manager for a small construction company has a project that was budgeted for US $130,000 over a six-week period. According to her schedule, the project should have cost US $60,000 to date. However, it has cost US $90,000 to date. The project is also behind schedule, because the original estimates were not accurate.

Who has the PRIMARY responsibility to solve this problem?

Options:

A.

Project manager

B.

Senior management

C.

Project sponsor

D.

Manager of the project management office

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Questions 103

Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration"?

Options:

A.

Changing project specifications continuously

B.

Elaborate tracking of the project progress

C.

Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system

D.

Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses

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Questions 104

Continually measuring and monitoring the actual cost versus the budget is done to _____.

Options:

A.

None of the other alternatives apply

B.

analyze the reasons for variances

C.

establish the variances

D.

identify the problems

E.

All of the other alternatives apply.

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Questions 105

Which is a tool or technique used in scope definition?

Options:

A.

Templates, forms and standards

B.

Change requests

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Project assumptions

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Questions 106

What document should be reviewed by a project manager before finalizing the project closure?

Options:

A.

Customer acceptance

B.

Statement of work

C.

Product report

D.

User manual

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Questions 107

During project executing, a project team member informs the project manager that a work package has not met the quality metric, and that she believes it is not possible to meet it. The project manager meets with all parties concerned to analyze the situation.

Which part of the quality management process is the project manager involved in?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Assurance

B.

Project Control

C.

Perform Quality Control

D.

Plan Quality

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Questions 108

All of the following statements about acceptance sampling are true except:

Options:

A.

Acceptance sampling plans do not directly control the quality of a series of lots; they instead specify the risk of accepting lots of given quality.

B.

Acceptance sampling plans are never effective at rejecting nonconforming units as 100 percent inspection, even when the inspection process is very tedious.

C.

Acceptance sampling plans are not very effective for inspecting small lots of custom-made products.

D.

Acceptance sampling plans are beneficial when the cost of inspection is high and the resulting loss of passing nonconforming units is not great.

E.

Acceptance sampling plans are necessary when destructive inspections are required.

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Questions 109

What is included in a control chart?

Options:

A.

Baseline

B.

Planned value

C.

Upper specification limit

D.

Expenditure

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Questions 110

What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected performance?

Options:

A.

Cost aggregation

B.

Trend analysis

C.

Forecasting

D.

Variance analysis

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Questions 111

Reserve Analysis a technique not used in:

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Estimating Activity Duration

C.

Control Costs

D.

Determine Budget

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Questions 112

Your project sponsor has requested a cost estimate for the project on which you're working. This project is similar in scope to a project you worked on last year. She would like to get the cost estimates as soon as possible. Accuracy is not her primary concern right now. She needs a ballpark figure by tomorrow. You decide to use ___________________.

Options:

A.

parametric modeling techniques

B.

analogous estimating techniques

C.

bottom-up estimating techniques

D.

computerized modeling techniques

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Questions 113

What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?

Options:

A.

Increases

B.

Decreases

C.

Stays the same.

D.

Has no bearing.

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Questions 114

Surveys have shown that the primary skill needed to be a project manager is communication skill. The typical project manager spends approximately ______ percent of his or her time communicating.

Options:

A.

40-50

B.

50-60

C.

90-95

D.

75-90

E.

60-75

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Questions 115

The project manager calculated a schedule performance index of 0.8 and a cost performance index of 1.1 for the project. What is the actual status of this project?

Options:

A.

Behind schedule and over budget

B.

Behind schedule and under budget

C.

Ahead of schedule and under budget

D.

Ahead of schedule and over budget

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Questions 116

A project manager has made a change to the project.

What should she do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Assign resources.

B.

Revise the project management plan and/or project documents.

C.

Evaluate impact.

D.

Request change control board involvement.

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Questions 117

Which of the following outputs from the Schedule Control process aids in the communication of SV, SPI or any performance status to stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Performance organizations

B.

Schedule baselines

C.

Performance measurements

D.

Change requests

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Questions 118

You are a project manager for an engineering company. Your company won the bid to add ramp-metering lights to several on-ramps along a stretch of highway at the south end of the city. You subcontracted a portion of the project to another company. The subcontractor's work involves digging the holes and setting the lamp poles in concrete. The subcontractor's performance is not meeting the contract requirements.

Which of the following is not a valid option?

Options:

A.

You document the poor performance in written form and send the correspondence to the subcontractor.

B.

You terminate the contract for poor performance and submit a change request through Contract Administration.

C.

You agree to meet with the subcontractor to see whether a satisfactory solution can be reached.

D.

You submit a change request through Contract Administration demanding that the subcontractor comply with the terms of the contract.

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Questions 119

Company A bought a well-defined project deliverable from Company B. Company A will pay a fixed total price plus a percentage premium for the schedule target achieved.

Options:

A.

For which type of contract have they subscribed?

B.

Fixed-price-incentive-fee contracts (FPIF)

C.

Firm-fixed-price-contracts (FFP)

D.

Fixed price with Economic Price Adjustment Contracts (FP-EPA)

E.

Time and material contracts (T&M)

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Questions 120

In which of the following is the cost of risk hidden by the contractor?

Options:

A.

Fixed Price Plus Incentive

B.

Firm Fixed Price Contract and Fixed Price Plus Incentive

C.

Firm Fixed Price Contract

D.

Cost Plus Percentage of Cost

E.

Cost Plus Fixed Price

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Questions 121

How many knowledge areas are there according to PMBOK Guide?

Options:

A.

5

B.

8

C.

9

D.

12

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Questions 122

A project may be defined as ________.

Options:

A.

an integrated approach to managing projects

B.

a coordinated undertaking of interrelated activities.

C.

a group of activities directed by a project manager over a life cycle

D.

All of the other alternatives apply.

E.

an undertaking with a defined starting point and defined objectives

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Questions 123

Complete final contract performance reporting and verify product is done in _______.

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Close Procurements

C.

Plan Procurements

D.

Administer Procurements

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Questions 124

The sponsor is worried about the seller deriving extra profit on the cost plus fixed fee (CPFF) contract. Each month the sponsor requires the project manager to submit CPI calculations and an analysis of the cost to complete. The project manager explains to the sponsor that extra profits should NOT be a worry on this project because:

Options:

A.

The team is making sure the seller does not cut scope.

B.

All costs invoiced are being audited.

C.

There can only be a maximum 10 percent increase if there is an unexpected cost overrun.

D.

The fee is only received by the seller when the project is completed.

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Questions 125

How many process groups are there according to the PMBOK Guide?

Options:

A.

5

B.

9

C.

10

D.

12

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Questions 126

Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling and Closing are called:

Options:

A.

process groups.

B.

phase gates.

C.

knowledge areas.

D.

project phases.

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Questions 127

A project manager has finished the project. He knows that the project scope has been completed and is within cost and time objectives set by management. Management, however, says that the project is a failure, because the original schedule was for 27 weeks and the project was completed in 33 weeks. If the project baseline was 33 weeks, the project is a success because:

Options:

A.

It only had six weeks of changes.

B.

It was completed within the baseline.

C.

There were so few changes.

D.

There was good communication control.

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Questions 128

Which of the following can be used to track the requirements throughout the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Requirements traceability matrix

B.

Scope management plan

C.

Project charter

D.

Work breakdown structure

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Questions 129

The product scope description is used to:

Options:

A.

Gain stakeholders' support for the project.

B.

Document the characteristics of the product.

C.

Describe the project in great detail.

D.

Formally authorize the project.

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Questions 130

Giving a part of project work to a contractor is an example of:

Options:

A.

risk assumption

B.

risk assignment

C.

risk delegation

D.

risk deflection

E.

risk mitigation

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Questions 131

You are a project manager working in a foreign country. You observe that some of your project team members are having a difficult time adjusting to the new culture. You provided them with training on cultural differences and the customs of this country before arriving, but they still seem uncomfortable and disoriented.

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

This condition is known as culture shock.

B.

This is the result of jet lag and travel fatigue.

C.

This is the result of working with teams of people from two different countries.

D.

This condition is known as global culturalism.

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Questions 132

Trend Analysis is best described as:

Options:

A.

Examining project performance over time

B.

Calculating Earned Value

C.

Calculating Cost Variance

D.

Analyzing performance of similar projects over time

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Questions 133

Which contract type is typically used whenever the seller's performance period spans a considerable period of years?

Options:

A.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee contracts (FPIF)

B.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment contracts (FP-EPA)

C.

Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee contracts (CPFF)

D.

Time and Material contracts (T&M)

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Questions 134

Advantages of the functional (hierarchical) form of organization include _____ and creation of technical competence.

Options:

A.

Single voice to customers

B.

High information processing capability

C.

Ease of horizontal coordination

D.

Clearly defined authority

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Questions 135

What is one of the KEY objectives during contract negotiations?

Options:

A.

Obtain a fair and reasonable price.

B.

Negotiate a price under the seller's estimate.

C.

Ensure that all project risks are thoroughly delineated.

D.

Ensure that an effective communications management plan is established.

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Questions 136

What is one of the most important skills a project manager can have?

Options:

A.

Negotiation skills

B.

Communication skills

C.

Influencing skills

D.

Problem-solving skills

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Questions 137

In which type of organization(s) is the project manager's role most likely part-time?

Options:

A.

Functional

B.

Weak Matrix

C.

Balanced Matrix

D.

Both 1) Functional and 2) Weak Matrix

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Questions 138

Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI?

Options:

A.

EV

B.

SPI

C.

PV

D.

ETC

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Questions 139

Which of the following is not a cost of non-conformance?

Options:

A.

maintenance and calibration

B.

warranty repairs

C.

All of the other alternatives apply.

D.

scrap

E.

rework

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Questions 140

Your company has asked you to be the project manager for the product introduction of its new DeskTop Rock media system. You recently published the project scope statement.

Which of the following is not contained in the project scope statement?

Options:

A.

Requested changes

B.

Project configuration management requirements

C.

Constraints

D.

Project specifications

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Questions 141

Which of the following methods is a project selection technique?

Options:

A.

Flowcharting

B.

Earned value

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Pareto analysis

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Questions 142

Which knowledge area employs the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?

Options:

A.

Project Risk Management

B.

Project Integration Management

C.

Project Communications Management

D.

Project Quality Management

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Questions 143

Which activity is an input to the select seller’s process?

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Resource availability

C.

Change control process

D.

Team performance assessment

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Questions 144

What is the standard deviation for the estimates in the above problem?

Options:

A.

2

B.

0.5

C.

1.5

D.

0.6

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Questions 145

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data?

BAC = $100,000

PV = $50,000

AC = $80,000

EV = $40,000

Options:

A.

1.00

B.

0.40

C.

0.50

D.

0.80

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Questions 146

Which document is a narrative description of products or services to be delivered by the project?

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Contract

C.

Business case

D.

Project statement of work

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Questions 147

Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances?

Options:

A.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases.

B.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.

C.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases.

D.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.

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Questions 148

Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is known as what?

Options:

A.

Project management information system

B.

Work performance information

C.

Work breakdown structure

D.

Variance analysis

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Questions 149

You are managing an internal project where a vice president from the user group is acting as the sponsor. You have just been informed by your team that the critical path has slipped by three weeks. You should:

Options:

A.

See the sponsor after you have evaluated alternatives, recommendations, and performed an impact analysis

B.

Inform your senior management of the problem and tell them that you will get back to them after you assessed the situation

C.

Look for someone to blame before you see the sponsor

D.

Do nothing until the slippage occurs

E.

Immediately inform the sponsor and ask for advice

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Questions 150

Which of the following is an example of a technique used in quantitative risk analysis?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Probability and impact matrix

C.

Risk data quality assessment

D.

Risk categorization

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Questions 151

Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?

Options:

A.

Expert Judgment

B.

Project Management Methodology

C.

Project Management Information

D.

Project Selection Methods

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Questions 152

What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)?

Options:

A.

To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and subprojects that are tied to the parent organizations' or the client's overall business objectives.

B.

To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent organization's business objectives and to administer the project charters accordingly.

C.

To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team members and to handle any personnel and payroll issues.

D.

To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the work packages.

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Questions 153

A team member notifies the project manager that the activities comprising a work package are no longer appropriate.

It would be BEST for the project manager to be in what part of the project management process?

Options:

A.

Corrective action

B.

Integrated change control

C.

Monitoring and controlling

D.

Project closing

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Questions 154

Project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to what Project Time Management process?

Options:

A.

Activity Sequencing

B.

Activity Resource Estimating

C.

Schedule Development

D.

Schedule Control

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Questions 155

Communication plays a major role in:

Options:

A.

Organizing

B.

Controlling

C.

All of the other alternatives apply

D.

Directing

E.

Planning

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Questions 156

The erection of foundation formwork before the placement of foundation concrete would be an example of a _____ dependency.

Options:

A.

Soft logic

B.

Subcontracted

C.

Mandatory

D.

Discretionary

E.

External

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Questions 157

Which of the following is the definition of a project?

Options:

A.

Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a temporary business process or product

B.

Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result

C.

Permanent endeavor that produces repetitive outputs

D.

Temporary endeavor that produces repetitive outputs

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Questions 158

Which tool and technique is used to sequence activities?

Options:

A.

Decomposition

B.

Project management software

C.

Applying lead and lags

D.

Expert judgment

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Questions 159

The procurement document is an input to which of the following processes?

Options:

A.

Develop Project Management Plan

B.

Develop Schedule

C.

Identify Stakeholders

D.

Determine Budget

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Questions 160

What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships?

Options:

A.

Role dependencies chart

B.

Reporting flow diagram

C.

Project organization chart

D.

Project team structure diagram

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Questions 161

You are a new project manager who has never managed a project before. You have been asked to plan a new project. It would be BEST in this situation to rely on _______ during planning to improve your chance of success.

Options:

A.

Your intuition and training

B.

Stakeholder analysis

C.

Historical information

D.

Configuration management

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Questions 162

The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide should:

Options:

A.

Always be applied uniformly

B.

Be selected as appropriate by the sponsor

C.

Be selected as appropriate by the project team

D.

Be applied based on ISO guidelines.

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Questions 163

Information distribution involves making needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner.

What is an output from information distribution?

Options:

A.

Earned value analysis

B.

Trend analysis

C.

Project records

D.

Performance reviews

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Questions 164

The inputs of the Performance Reporting process include all of the following except for which one?

Options:

A.

Performance reviews

B.

Work performance information

C.

Forecasted completion

D.

Performance measurements

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Questions 165

Which of the following lists contain processes that are included within Project Procurement Management?

Options:

A.

Plan purchases and acquisitions, plan contracting, request seller responses, select sellers

B.

Plan purchases and acquisitions, request seller responses, select sellers, schedule control

C.

Plan purchases and acquisitions, acquire project team, request seller responses, select sellers

D.

Plan purchases and acquisitions, acquire project team, contract approval, select sellers

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Questions 166

A line manager who is asked to wear two hats and function as a project manager at the same time is likely to exercise:

Options:

A.

All of the other alternatives apply.

B.

Influence

C.

Power

D.

Authority and Power

E.

Authority

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Questions 167

What causes replanning of the project scope?

Options:

A.

Requested changes

B.

Project scope statement changes

C.

Variance analysis

D.

Approved change requests

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Questions 168

Which of the following would most likely increase the accuracy of estimating the project cost?

Options:

A.

Using historical data.

B.

Pricing out the work at lower levels in the work breakdown structure.

C.

Both 1) Pricing out the work at lower levels in the work breakdown structure, and 2) Talking to people who have worked on similar projects.

D.

Talking to people who have worked on similar projects.

E.

1) Pricing out the work at lower levels in the work breakdown structure, and 2) Talking to people who have worked on similar projects, and 3) Using historical data.

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Questions 169

You've been assigned as a project manager on a research and development project for a new dental procedure. You're working in the Scope Planning process.

What is the purpose of the project scope management plan?

Options:

A.

The project scope management plan describes and documents a scope baseline to help make future project decisions.

B.

The project scope management plan decomposes project deliverables into smaller units of work.

C.

The project scope management plan describes how project scope will be developed and how changes will be managed.

D.

The project scope management plan describes how cost and time estimates will be developed for project scope changes.

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Questions 170

In which of the following organizational structures does the project manager have full authority on a project?

Options:

A.

Functional

B.

Strong matrix

C.

Balanced matrix

D.

Projectized

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Questions 171

What component of the project scope definition defines project exclusions?

Options:

A.

Project boundaries

B.

Project constraints

C.

Project assumptions

D.

Project objectives

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Questions 172

Which of the following is involved in the initiation process group?

Options:

A.

Develop Project Management Plan

B.

Identify Stakeholders

C.

Plan Communications

D.

Collect Requirements

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Questions 173

Many companies self-insure against some risk. Problems which can arise from self-insurance include:

Options:

A.

confusion of business risks with insurable risks.

B.

Both 1) failure to reserve funds to handle worst case scenarios (low probability events) resulting in severe financial damage to the company, and 2) confusion of business risks with insurable risks.stiff competition from insurance companies

C.

All of the other alternatives apply.

D.

failure to reserve funds to handle worst case scenarios (low probability events) resulting in severe financial damage to the company

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Questions 174

Which of the following is NOT a reason to measure variances from the baseline?

Options:

A.

To catch deviations early

B.

To allow early corrective action

C.

To determine if there are any wild fluctuations

D.

To create a project control system

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Questions 175

What is one of the objectives of project risk management?

Options:

A.

Decrease the probability and impact of event on project objectives.

B.

Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place.

C.

Increase the probability and impact of positive events.

D.

Removal of project risk.

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Questions 176

Which is not one of the triple constraint of a project?

Options:

A.

Cost

B.

Time

C.

Resources

D.

Scope

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Questions 177

Which is a true statement regarding project governance?

Options:

A.

Project governance approach must be described in the project management plan.

B.

Project governance is independent of the organization or program sponsoring it.

C.

Once a project has begun, it is not necessary to formally initiate each project phase.

D.

Review of project performance and key deliverables is not required for each project phase.

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Questions 178

Which of the following choices is a contract closure tool or technique?

Options:

A.

Contract plan

B.

Procurement plan

C.

Closure process

D.

Procurement audits

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Questions 179

While creating the agenda for a status meeting with the team, a project manager receives input from one team member that an item should be added. Another team member says the team is not ready to resolve the item during the meeting. After much discussion, the project manager decides to put the item on the agenda as an initial discussion item only.

Which conflict resolution technique is the project manager using?

Options:

A.

Compromise

B.

Smoothing

C.

Forcing

D.

Withdrawal

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Questions 180

Which of the following is NOT part of stakeholder's management?

Options:

A.

Identify stakeholder's need

B.

make sure all the stakeholders are in project plan

C.

Identify stakeholders

D.

make sure all the stakeholders are in communication plan

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Questions 181

When working in a matrix environment, all of the following are true regarding the Manage Project Team process except for which one?

Options:

A.

Communication methods and issue logs are used to create performance appraisals, provide feedback, and track issues.

B.

Managing project teams in a matrix environment is often a critical success factor for the project.

C.

Loyalty issues might arise when managing projects in a matrix environment.

D.

It's the project manager's responsibility to make certain this dual reporting relationship is managed effectively.

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Questions 182

Which of the following is a tool and technique to develop the schedule?

Options:

A.

What-if scenario analysis

B.

Benchmarking

C.

Variance analysis

D.

SWOT analysis

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Questions 183

What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?

Options:

A.

Pareto

B.

Ishikawa

C.

Shewart-Deming

D.

Delphi

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Questions 184

Which tool or technique measures performance of the project as it moves from project initiation through project closure?

Options:

A.

Resource leveling

B.

Parametric measuring

C.

Pareto chart

D.

Earned value

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Questions 185

A risk may be graded into different priorities by which process?

Options:

A.

Risk monitoring and controlling

B.

Risk response planning

C.

Qualitative risk analysis

D.

Quantitative risk analysischart

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Questions 186

Which of the following is an example of a tool used in Plan Quality?

Options:

A.

Fishbone diagram

B.

Quality audit

C.

Cause and effect diagram

D.

Benchmarking

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Questions 187

Which of the following is an example of a risk symptom?

Options:

A.

Failure to meet intermediate milestones

B.

Force of nature, such as a flood

C.

Risk threshold target

D.

Crashing front loading or fast tracking

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Exam Code: ISEB-PM1
Exam Name: BCS Foundation Certificate in IS Project Management
Last Update: Oct 8, 2024
Questions: 625
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