Spring Sale - Limited Time 65% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: 65percent

Welcome To DumpsPedia

CAPM Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

Once the make-or-buy analysis is completed, which document defines the project delivery method?

Options:

A.

Procurement statement of work (SOW)

B.

Procurement strategy

C.

Terms of reference

D.

Change request

Buy Now
Questions 5

The project manager is working in an agile/adaptive environment. The project manager is considering different approaches for applying Project Integration Management in this environment. How can the project manager ensure that this will work for the project?

Options:

A.

Take control of all decisions and product planning.

B.

Build a team that can respond to changes within a collaborative, decision-making environment.

C.

Promote a team with a narrow specialization within a hierarchical environment.

D.

Delegate project decisions to the product owner and sponsor.

Buy Now
Questions 6

What is the risk rating if the probability of occurrence is 0.30 and the impact if it does occur is moderate (0.20)?

Options:

A.

0.03

B.

0.06

C.

0.10

D.

0.50

Buy Now
Questions 7

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?

Options:

A.

0.50

B.

0.67

C.

1.50

D.

2.00

Buy Now
Questions 8

Configuration identification, configuration status accounting, and configuration verification and audit are all activities in which process?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Assurance

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

Buy Now
Questions 9

Which tool or technique is used in validating the scope of a project?

Options:

A.

Facilitated workshops

B.

Interviews

C.

Inspection

D.

Meetings

Buy Now
Questions 10

Which type of project life cycle uses an iteration plan?

Options:

A.

Agile

B.

Predictive

C.

Waterfall

D.

Product

Buy Now
Questions 11

The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs because milestones:

Options:

A.

Are unpredictable and challenge the Plan Schedule Management process.

B.

Occur at random times in the project plans.

C.

Represent a moment in time such as a significant project point or event.

D.

Represent both significant and insignificant points in the project and are difficult to anticipate.

Buy Now
Questions 12

A project team member agrees to change a project deliverable after a conversation with an external stakeholder. It is later discovered that the change has had an adverse effect on another deliverable. This could have been avoided if the project team had implemented:

Options:

A.

Quality assurance.

B.

A stakeholder management plan.

C.

Project team building.

D.

Integrated change control.

Buy Now
Questions 13

Outputs of the Control Communications process include:

Options:

A.

expert judgment and change requests.

B.

work performance information and change requests.

C.

organizational process asset updates and an issue log.

D.

project management plan updates and an issue log.

Buy Now
Questions 14

Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?

Options:

A.

Interrelationship digraphs

B.

Tree diagram

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Network diagram

Buy Now
Questions 15

Organizational process assets, a lessons-learned database, and historical information are all inputs to which process?

Options:

A.

Plan Cost Management

B.

Plan Scope Management

C.

Plan Stakeholder Management

D.

Plan Schedule Management

Buy Now
Questions 16

The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress is known as:

Options:

A.

Earned value management.

B.

Forecasting.

C.

Critical chain methodology.

D.

Critical path methodology.

Buy Now
Questions 17

Which process is conducted from project inception through completion and is ultimately the responsibility of the project manager?

Options:

A.

Control Quality

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Control Scope

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

Buy Now
Questions 18

Which process is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk Responses?

Options:

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Buy Now
Questions 19

The cost baseline and project funding requirements are outputs of which process in Project Cost Management?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

Buy Now
Questions 20

Which quality tool may prove useful in understanding and estimating the cost of quality in a process?

Options:

A.

Checksheets

B.

Histograms

C.

Flowcharts

D.

Control charts

Buy Now
Questions 21

Which of these is a hybrid contract?

Options:

A.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF)

B.

Firm fixed price (FFP)

C.

Fixed price incentive fee (FPIF)

D.

Time and material (T&M)

Buy Now
Questions 22

Which of the following factors within a company cloud trigger the creation of a project?

Options:

A.

Need to lower production costs to remain competitive

B.

Need to submit a warranty claim for a faulty product

C.

Need to submit the monthly production report

D.

Need to define next month's production goals

Buy Now
Questions 23

A project lead asks the team to create a work breakdown structure (WBS) of the project's scope. The team is confused about how far they should break down the scope.

What should the project lead tell the team?

Options:

A.

Decompose to the activity or task level.

B.

Decompose until all of the risks are identified.

C.

Decompose to the work package level.

D.

Decompose until a WBS dictionary is obtained.

Buy Now
Questions 24

Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the costs of the current project?

Options:

A.

Analogous

B.

Parametric

C.

Bottom-up

D.

Top-down

Buy Now
Questions 25

Organizations perceive risks as:

Options:

A.

events that will inevitably impact project and organizational objectives.

B.

the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives.

C.

events which could have a negative impact on project and organizational objectives.

D.

the negative impact of undesired events on their project and organizational objectives.

Buy Now
Questions 26

The most appropriate project life cycle model for an environment with a high level of change and extensive stakeholder involvement in projects is:

Options:

A.

adaptive

B.

reflexive

C.

predictive

D.

iterative

Buy Now
Questions 27

A project manager Is addressing risks and potential concerns related to stakeholder management, and Is clarifying and resolving previously Identified issues. In which process is the project manager engaged?

Options:

A.

Identify Stakeholders

B.

Plan Stakeholder Engagement

C.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

D.

Monitor Slakeholder Engagement

Buy Now
Questions 28

Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change observed in the corresponding independent variable?

Options:

A.

Cause-and-effect diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Scatter diagram

Buy Now
Questions 29

Which task will a project manager undertake while conducting Project Resource Management?

Options:

A.

Identity the different aspects of me team to manage and control physical resources efficiently.

B.

Procure equipment, materials, facilities, and infrastructure for the project.

C.

Train the team members in project skill sets.

D.

Define the roles and responsibilities of each team member.

Buy Now
Questions 30

Which project risk listed in the table below is most likely to occur?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Buy Now
Questions 31

Which Perform Quality Assurance tool or technique is used to identify a problem, discover the underlying causes that lead to it, and develop preventative actions?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Quality audits

C.

Design of experiments

D.

Root cause analysis

Buy Now
Questions 32

Calculate the Schedule Performance Index (SPI) based on the following information: earned value (EV) is 30 and planned value (PV) is 15.

Options:

A.

2.0

B.

45

C.

0.5

D.

15

Buy Now
Questions 33

In which phase of team building activities do team members begin to work together and adjust their work habits and behavior to support the team?

Options:

A.

Performing

B.

Storming

C.

Norming

D.

Forming

Buy Now
Questions 34

For a stakeholder with low interest and high power, the project manager should:

Options:

A.

Monitor the stakeholder.

B.

Manage the stakeholder closely.

C.

Keep the stakeholder satisfied.

D.

Keep the stakeholder informed.

Buy Now
Questions 35

Organizational planning impacts projects by means of project prioritization based on risk, funding, and an organizations:

Options:

A.

Budget plan

B.

Resource plan

C.

Scope plan

D.

Strategic plan

Buy Now
Questions 36

Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances?

Options:

A.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases.

B.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.

C.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases.

D.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.

Buy Now
Questions 37

The chart below is an example of a:

Options:

A.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

RACI chart

D.

Requirements traceability matrix

Buy Now
Questions 38

A project team has completed the first iteration and the testing manager approved the test report, indicating that the acceptance criteria have been met. The manager of the business unit that will use the new product is asking for additional functionality before approving the rollout for their team.

What should the project manager do next?

Options:

A.

Escalate this issue to the project sponsor.

B.

Reschedule the rollout to start with another business unit.

C.

Reschedule the rollout to include the new requirements.

D.

Escalate this issue to the project management office (PMO).

Buy Now
Questions 39

What is an objective of the Develop Project Team process?

Options:

A.

Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness

B.

Ground rules for interaction

C.

Enhanced resource availability

D.

Functional managers becoming more involved

Buy Now
Questions 40

When a project is undertaken to reduce defects in a product or service, the objective of the project is to create a/an:

Options:

A.

improvement

B.

program

C.

result

D.

portfolio

Buy Now
Questions 41

The lowest level normally depicted in a work breakdown structure (VVBS) is called a/an:

Options:

A.

work package

B.

deliverable

C.

milestone

D.

activity

Buy Now
Questions 42

Using parametric estimating, if an assigned resource is capable of producing 120 units per hour, how many hours are required to produce 12,000 units?

Options:

A.

100

B.

120

C.

1,000

D.

1,200

Buy Now
Questions 43

Completion of the product scope is measured against the product:

Options:

A.

prototypes

B.

requirements

C.

analyses

D.

benchmarks

Buy Now
Questions 44

The procurement process that documents agreements and related documentation for future reference is known as:

Options:

A.

Plan Procurements.

B.

Control Procurements.

C.

Close Procurements.

D.

Conduct Procurements.

Buy Now
Questions 45

Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?

Options:

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Close Project

D.

Develop Project Charter

Buy Now
Questions 46

The process of defining how the project scope will be validated and controlled is known as:

Options:

A.

Define Scope.

B.

Develop Project Management Plan.

C.

Plan Scope Management.

D.

Plan Quality Management.

Buy Now
Questions 47

Tools and techniques used in Direct and Manage Project Work include:

Options:

A.

Process analysis and expert judgment

B.

Analytical techniques and a project management information system

C.

Performance reviews and meetings

D.

Expert judgment and meetings

Buy Now
Questions 48

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the cost performance index (CPI) for Task 2?

Options:

A.

0.8

B.

1

C.

1.25

D.

1.8

Buy Now
Questions 49

Which is an example of Administer Procurements?

Options:

A.

Negotiating the contract

B.

Authorizing contractor work

C.

Developing the statement of work

D.

Establishing evaluation criteria

Buy Now
Questions 50

Which of the following statements correctly characterizes pull communication?

Options:

A.

It includes letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes.

B.

It requires recipients to access communication content at their own discretion.

C.

It is the most efficient way to ensure a common understanding among all participants.

D.

It is primarily used when the volume of information to be transferred is minimal.

Buy Now
Questions 51

Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during Estimate Costs?

Options:

A.

Market conditions and published commercial information

B.

Company structure and market conditions

C.

Commercial information and company structure

D.

Existing human resources and market conditions

Buy Now
Questions 52

The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope as well as managing the changes to the scope baseline is known as:

Options:

A.

Validate Scope.

B.

Plan Scope Management.

C.

Control Scope.

D.

Define Scope.

Buy Now
Questions 53

Which schedule network analysis technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?

Options:

A.

Human resource planning

B.

Fast tracking

C.

Critical chain method

D.

Rolling wave planning

Buy Now
Questions 54

The Human Resource Management processes are:

Options:

A.

Develop Human Resource Plan, Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team, and Manage Project Team.

B.

Acquire Project Team, Manage Project Team, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Develop Project Team.

C.

Acquire Project Team, Develop Human Resource Plan, Conflict Management, and Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team, Manage Project Team, Estimate Activity Resources, and Acquire Project Team.

Buy Now
Questions 55

If the estimate at completion (EAC) is 25, and the budget at completion (BAC) is 17, what is the variance at completion (VAC)?

Options:

A.

-8

B.

425

C.

1.4

D.

8

Buy Now
Questions 56

After an internal deliverable review session with the team, the project manager indicates some issues that need to be fixed before submitting the deliverable for formal approval. The project manager will need to manage the additional costs and the required network. How would the project manager define extra costs?

Options:

A.

Appraisal costs

B.

Management reserves

C.

Cost of nonconformance

D.

Cost of conformance

Buy Now
Questions 57

A disadvantage associated with virtual teams is that they:

Options:

A.

Require communication technology that is not readily available.

B.

Create difficulties when including people with disabilities.

C.

Often cannot accommodate teams that work different hours or shifts.

D.

Create the possibility for misunderstandings to arise.

Buy Now
Questions 58

Which tool or technique of Plan Quality involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance?

Options:

A.

Histogram

B.

Quality audits

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Performance measurement analysis

Buy Now
Questions 59

The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:

Options:

A.

start-to-start (SS)

B.

start-to-finish (SF)

C.

finish-to-start (FS)

D.

finish-to-finish (FF)

Buy Now
Questions 60

Project or phase closure guidelines or requirements, historical information, and the lessons learned knowledge base are examples of which input to the Close Project or Phase process?

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

A work breakdown structure

C.

The project management plan

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Buy Now
Questions 61

The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables is known as:

Options:

A.

Validate Scope.

B.

Close Project or Phase.

C.

Control Quality.

D.

Verify Scope.

Buy Now
Questions 62

Which of the following answers includes an input, a technique, and an output of the Plan Stakeholders Engagement process?

Options:

A.

Project management plan, data gathering, and stakeholder engagement plan

B.

Business documents, meetings, and stakeholder register

C.

Organizational process assets, data gathering, and project document updates

D.

Project management plan, data analysis, and change requests

Buy Now
Questions 63

Correlated and contextualized information on how closely the scope is being maintained relative to the scope baseline is contained within:

Options:

A.

project documents updates.

B.

project management plan updates.

C.

change requests.

D.

work performance information.

Buy Now
Questions 64

In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?

Options:

A.

Functional manager

B.

Project manager

C.

Program manager

D.

Project management office

Buy Now
Questions 65

Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?

Options:

A.

Activity list

B.

Project plan

C.

Activity duration estimates

D.

Project schedule

Buy Now
Questions 66

Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?

Options:

A.

Project stakeholders

B.

Project sponsor and project stakeholder

C.

Project manager and project team

D.

Project manager and project sponsor

Buy Now
Questions 67

What are the two most common contract types used in a project?

Options:

A.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF) contract and fixed price contract

B.

Fixed price contract and cost-reimbursable contract

C.

Cost-reimbursable contract and time and material (T&M) contract

D.

Time and material (T&M) contract and cost plus award fee (CPAF) contract

Buy Now
Questions 68

Which tools and techniques should a project manager use to monitor risks?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment, data analysis, and interpersonal and ream skills

B.

Data analysis, audits, and decision making

C.

Expert judgement, audits, and decision making

D.

Meetings, data gathering, and expert judgment

Buy Now
Questions 69

When is a Salience Model used?

Options:

A.

In a work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

During quality assurance

C.

In stakeholder analysis

D.

During quality control (QC)

Buy Now
Questions 70

Which of the following is contained within the communications management plan?

Options:

A.

An organizational chart

B.

Glossary of common terminology

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Buy Now
Questions 71

An output of the Develop Project Team process is:

Options:

A.

change requests

B.

team performance assessments

C.

project staff assignments

D.

project documents updates

Buy Now
Questions 72

Work performance information and cost forecasts are outputs of which Project Cost Management process?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Plan Cost Management

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

Buy Now
Questions 73

What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management?

Options:

A.

Decrease the probability and impact of an event on project objectives.

B.

Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place.

C.

Increase the probability and impact of positive events.

D.

Removal of project risk.

Buy Now
Questions 74

Which document includes the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints?

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Project scope statement

C.

Scope management plan

D.

Project document updates

Buy Now
Questions 75

The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specified:

Options:

A.

objectives

B.

schedule

C.

product

D.

approach

Buy Now
Questions 76

When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model?

Options:

A.

Before constraints have been identified

B.

Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method

C.

After it has been analyzed by the critical path method

D.

After critical activities have been removed from the critical path

Buy Now
Questions 77

Which process includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?

Options:

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Plan Risk Responses

Buy Now
Questions 78

Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives?

Options:

A.

Program

B.

Functional

C.

Project

D.

Portfolio

Buy Now
Questions 79

Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what are these phases known as?

Options:

A.

Complete project phase

B.

Project life

C.

The project life cycle

D.

Project cycle

Buy Now
Questions 80

An input of the Plan Procurement Management process is:

Options:

A.

Make-or-buy decisions.

B.

Activity cost estimates.

C.

Seller proposals.

D.

Procurement documents.

Buy Now
Questions 81

Activity resource requirements and the resource breakdown structure (RBS) are outputs of which Project Time Management process?

Options:

A.

Control Schedule

B.

Define Activities

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

Buy Now
Questions 82

At the completion of a project, a report is prepared that details the outcome of the research conducted on a global trend during the project. Which item did this project create?

Options:

A.

Result

B.

Product

C.

Service

D.

Improvement

Buy Now
Questions 83

A measure of cost performance that is required to be achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal and is expressed as the ratio of the cost needed for finishing the outstanding work to the remaining budget is known as the:

Options:

A.

budget at completion (BAC)

B.

earned value management (EVM)

C.

to-complete performance index

D.

cost performance index

Buy Now
Questions 84

The completion of the project scope is measured against the:

Options:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

project scope statement.

C.

project management plan.

D.

work performance measurements.

Buy Now
Questions 85

Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Selected sellers

C.

Risk register updates

D.

Teaming agreements

Buy Now
Questions 86

Which input will be used when tasked with developing the human resource plan?

Options:

A.

Project management plan

B.

Activity resource requirements

C.

Resource calendar

D.

Project staff assignments

Buy Now
Questions 87

The component of the risk management plan that documents how risk activities will be recorded is called:

Options:

A.

tracking

B.

scoping

C.

timing

D.

defining

Buy Now
Questions 88

What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)?

Options:

A.

0.45

B.

0.56

C.

0.70

D.

1.36

Buy Now
Questions 89

Which action should a project manager take to ensure that the project management plan is effective and current?

Options:

A.

Conduct periodic project performance reviews.

B.

Identify quality project standards.

C.

Follow ISO 9000 quality standards.

D.

Complete the quality control checklist.

Buy Now
Questions 90

Risk responses reflect an organization's perceived balance between:

Options:

A.

risk taking and risk avoidance.

B.

known risk and unknown risk.

C.

identified risk and analyzed risk.

D.

varying degrees of risk.

Buy Now
Questions 91

The probability and impact matrix is primarily used to:

Options:

A.

Quantify risk issues for trends during a quality audit.

B.

Develop a risk register for risk planning.

C.

Evaluate each risk’s importance and priority during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

D.

Define risk and compare impacts during Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

Buy Now
Questions 92

Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Earned value

C.

Variance

D.

Trend

Buy Now
Questions 93

Definitions of probability and impact, revised stakeholder tolerances, and tracking are components of which subsidiary plan?

Options:

A.

Cost management plan

B.

Quality management plan

C.

Communications management plan

D.

Risk management plan

Buy Now
Questions 94

Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?

Options:

A.

Plan Communications

B.

Performance reporting

C.

Project status reports

D.

Distribute Information

Buy Now
Questions 95

Which technique is utilized in the Control Schedule process?

Options:

A.

Performance measure

B.

Baseline schedule

C.

Schedule network analysis

D.

Variance analysis

Buy Now
Questions 96

Which technique should a project manager use in a situation in which a collaborative approach to conflict management is not possible?

Options:

A.

Coaching

B.

Avoidance

C.

Consensus

D.

Influencing

Buy Now
Questions 97

Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Develop Project Charter process?

Options:

A.

Organizational standard processes

B.

Marketplace conditions

C.

Historical information

D.

Templates

Buy Now
Questions 98

Which of the following is a narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by a project?

Options:

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Business case

C.

Accepted deliverable

D.

Work performance information

Buy Now
Questions 99

Which term refers to the work performed to deliver results with specified features and functions?

Options:

A.

Project scope

B.

Product scope

C.

Change request

D.

Acceptance criteria

Buy Now
Questions 100

What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected performance?

Options:

A.

Cost aggregation

B.

Trend analysis

C.

Forecasting

D.

Variance analysis

Buy Now
Questions 101

Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to change unless the scope of work changes?

Options:

A.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments Contract (FP-EPA)

B.

Cost-Reimbursable Contract (CR)

C.

Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contract (FPIF)

Buy Now
Questions 102

Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?

Options:

A.

Control Costs

B.

Determine Budget

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

Buy Now
Questions 103

Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?

Options:

A.

The Delphi technique

B.

Nominal group technique

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

Buy Now
Questions 104

Most experienced project managers know that:

Options:

A.

every project requires the use of all processes in the PMBOK® Guide.

B.

there is no single way to manage a project.

C.

project management techniques are risk free.

D.

there is only one way to manage projects successfully.

Buy Now
Questions 105

Which type of estimating can produce higher levels of accuracy, depending upon the sophistication and underlying data built into the model?

Options:

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Three-point

C.

Parametric

D.

Analogous

Buy Now
Questions 106

Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Resource availability

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Team performance assessment

Buy Now
Questions 107

The integrative nature of project management requires which Process Group to interact with the other Process Groups?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Project Management

Buy Now
Questions 108

The creation of an internet site to engage stakeholders on a project is an example of which type of communication?

Options:

A.

Push

B.

Pull

C.

Interactive

D.

Iterative

Buy Now
Questions 109

Which type of analysis systemically gathers and analyzes qualitative and quantitative information to determine which interests should be taken into account throughout the project?

Options:

A.

Product

B.

Cost-benefit

C.

Stakeholder

D.

Research

Buy Now
Questions 110

Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles?

Options:

A.

Staffing level is highest at the start.

B.

The stakeholders' influence is highest at the start.

C.

The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start.

D.

The cost of changes is highest at the start.

Buy Now
Questions 111

A work package has been scheduled to cost $1,000 to complete and was to be finished today. As of today, the actual expenditure is $1,200 and approximately half of the work has been completed. What is the cost variance?

Options:

A.

-700

B.

-200

C.

200

D.

500

Buy Now
Questions 112

In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?

Options:

A.

Schedule

B.

Quality

C.

Communications

D.

Cost

Buy Now
Questions 113

Following a project planning meeting with the team, a few team members approach the project manager to follow up on actions required. How can the project manager assess the effectiveness of the meeting?

Options:

A.

Send the meeting minutes to all team members to verify that the required information is readily available.

B.

Ask the team members to provide feedback for meetings in the phase retrospective.

C.

Review the actions from the meeting with each of the project team members to ensure their understanding.

D.

Consult the communications management plan to determine the success criteria for meetings.

Buy Now
Questions 114

Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?

Options:

A.

The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.

B.

The critical path will have positive total float.

C.

Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager.

D.

Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.

Buy Now
Questions 115

A graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships is known as a:

Options:

A.

Resource calendar.

B.

Project organization chart.

C.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS).

D.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM).

Buy Now
Questions 116

What is project management?

Options:

A.

A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques

B.

Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements

C.

Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project

D.

A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled

Buy Now
Questions 117

What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production?

Options:

A.

Failure modes and effects analysis

B.

Design of experiments

C.

Quality checklist

D.

Risk analysis

Buy Now
Questions 118

The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:

Options:

A.

majority rule technique.

B.

nominal group technique.

C.

Delphi technique,

D.

idea/mind mapping technique.

Buy Now
Questions 119

Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?

Options:

A.

Control Scope

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Create WBS

D.

Define Scope

Buy Now
Questions 120

Which of the following is a tool and technique used to monitor risk?

Options:

A.

Technical performance measurement

B.

Cost performance baseline

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Cost of quality

Buy Now
Questions 121

An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is:

Options:

A.

Activity resource requirements.

B.

Published estimating data.

C.

Resource calendars.

D.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS).

Buy Now
Questions 122

Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

Options:

A.

Recognized by every project manager

B.

Constantly evolving

C.

The sum of all knowledge related to project management

D.

A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project

Buy Now
Questions 123

Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?

Options:

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Focus groups

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Plurality

Buy Now
Questions 124

The correct equation for schedule variance (SV) is earned value:

Options:

A.

minus planned value [EV - PV].

B.

minus actual cost [EV - AC].

C.

divided by planned value [EV/PV],

D.

divided by actual cost [EV/AC].

Buy Now
Questions 125

Exhibit A is an example of which of the following types of Sequence Activities?

Options:

A.

Activity-on-arrow diagramming

B.

Precedence diagramming

C.

Project schedule network diagramming

D.

Mathematical analysis diagramming

Buy Now
Questions 126

The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:

Options:

A.

assumption log.

B.

quality checklist.

C.

risk register.

D.

contract type.

Buy Now
Questions 127

Which of the following is a project constraint?

Options:

A.

Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.

B.

The technology to be used is cutting-edge.

C.

Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.

D.

The product is needed in 250 days.

Buy Now
Questions 128

After Define Activities and Sequence Activities, the next process is:

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Resources.

B.

Estimate Activity Durations,

C.

Develop Schedule.

D.

Control Schedule.

Buy Now
Questions 129

Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?

Options:

A.

Mitigate

B.

Transfer

C.

Exploit

D.

Avoid

Buy Now
Questions 130

Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)

B.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

C.

Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP-EPA)

Buy Now
Questions 131

Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)

B.

Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

C.

Time and Material Contract (T&M)

D.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

Buy Now
Questions 132

Which of the following change requests can bring expected future performance of the project work in line with the project management plan?

Options:

A.

Corrective action

B.

Defect repair

C.

Preventative action

D.

Probable action

Buy Now
Questions 133

A project manager has created an issue log to document issues communicated by project team members during weekly team meetings. This is an input of:

Options:

A.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations.

B.

Monitor and Control Risks.

C.

Plan Risk Management.

D.

Report Performance.

Buy Now
Questions 134

Which output is the approved version of the time-phased project budget?

Options:

A.

Resource calendar

B.

Scope baseline

C.

Trend analysis

D.

Cost baseline

Buy Now
Questions 135

Which is an enterprise environmental factor?

Options:

A.

Marketplace conditions

B.

Policies and procedures

C.

Project files from previous projects

D.

Lessons learned from previous projects

Buy Now
Questions 136

What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?

Options:

A.

Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers

B.

Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources

C.

Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts

D.

Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources

Buy Now
Questions 137

Which process is responsible for monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline?

Options:

A.

Variance Analysis

B.

Define Scope

C.

Verify Scope

D.

Control Scope

Buy Now
Questions 138

Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process?

Options:

A.

Work performance information

B.

Project management plan

C.

Business case

D.

Change requests

Buy Now
Questions 139

Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?

Options:

A.

Work performance reports

B.

Assumptions logs

C.

Network diagrams

D.

Academic studies

Buy Now
Questions 140

What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?

Options:

A.

Increases

B.

Decreases

C.

Stays the same

D.

Has no bearing

Buy Now
Questions 141

Who is responsible for initiating a project?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Program manager

D.

Project management office (PMO)

Buy Now
Questions 142

An input of the Create WBS process is:

Options:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

scope baseline.

C.

project charter.

D.

validated deliverables.

Buy Now
Questions 143

Prototype development may be used as a tool for which of the following risk response strategies?

Options:

A.

Avoid

B.

Accept

C.

Mitigate

D.

Exploit

Buy Now
Questions 144

The item that provides more detailed descriptions of the components in the work breakdown structure (WB5) is called a WBS:

Options:

A.

dictionary.

B.

chart.

C.

report.

D.

register.

Buy Now
Questions 145

The three processes of Project Cost Management are:

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs, Control Schedule, and Control Costs.

B.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Estimate Activity Resources.

C.

Determine Budget, Control Schedule, and Estimate Activity Resources.

D.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Control Costs.

Buy Now
Questions 146

How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?

Options:

A.

Keep satisfied

B.

Keep informed

C.

Manage closely

D.

Monitor

Buy Now
Questions 147

Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:

Options:

A.

feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype.

B.

initiate, plan, execute, and monitor.

C.

Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance.

D.

Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test.

Buy Now
Questions 148

Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 principle?

Options:

A.

Ishikawa diagram

B.

Control chart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

Buy Now
Questions 149

Which of the seven basic quality tools is especially useful for gathering attributes data while performing inspections to identify defects?

Options:

A.

Histograms

B.

Scatter diagrams

C.

Flowcharts

D.

Checksheets

Buy Now
Questions 150

A production support system is being managed by a team. The team members cannot plan their work in advance, even for a week, because they do not know when new support issues will be submitted. The team cannot start working on new issues until they finish existing issues, no matter how long it takes to finish the existing issues.

Which method should be used in this situation?

Options:

A.

SAFe®, as it does not allow for scaling work across different teams in the organization.

B.

Extreme Programming (XP), as it does not allow for moving on to new items until the existing items are finished.

C.

Kanban, because the team does not start new work until the existing work is finished.

D.

Scrum, as it allows for completing the whole architecture up front without leaving any technical debt for the future.

Buy Now
Questions 151

Which index is the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a specified management goal?

Options:

A.

Estimate at completion

B.

Cost performance

C.

Schedule performance

D.

To-complete performance

Buy Now
Questions 152

Which process requires implementation of approved changes?

Options:

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Close Project or Phase

Buy Now
Questions 153

Which baselines make up the performance measurement baseline?

Options:

A.

Scope baseline, cost baseline, and schedule baseline

B.

Scope baseline, project management baseline, and quality baseline

C.

Cost baseline, schedule baseline, and risk baseline

D.

Cost baseline, project management baseline, and schedule baseline

Buy Now
Questions 154

Using the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely duration is four months, the optimistic duration is two months, and the pessimistic duration is one year, how many months is the expected activity duration?

Options:

A.

Two

B.

Four

C.

Five

D.

Twelve

Buy Now
Questions 155

A project manager is newly assigned to a project. Which document can help the project manager understand the project scope?

Options:

A.

Process flow diagram

B.

Data flow diagram

C.

Context diagram

D.

User interface flow

Buy Now
Questions 156

A stakeholder is reading project documents given by the project manager. The stakeholder is

curious about the difference between a verified deliverable and an accepted deliverable.

Which of the following definitions can the project manager use to explain the difference?

Options:

A.

An accepted deliverable is approved by the project team; a verified deliverable is approved and formally signed off by the customer or sponsor.

B.

An accepted deliverable has been checked and confirmed for accuracy through the Control Quality process; a verified deliverable meets acceptance criteria that is formally signed off and approved by the customer or sponsor.

C.

An accepted deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is formally signed off and approved by the customer or sponsor, a verified deliverable is a completed project deliverable that has been checked and confirmed for accuracy through the Control Quality process

D.

An accepted deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is signed off by the project manager; a verified deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is signed off by the customer or sponsor.

Buy Now
Questions 157

The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?

Options:

A.

Alternatives identification

B.

Scope decomposition

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Product analysis

Buy Now
Questions 158

Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk register updates, stakeholder register, and quality management plan

B.

Communication management plan, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates

C.

Risk management plan, activity cost estimates, and project documents

D.

Project scope statement, organizational process assets, and scope baseline

Buy Now
Questions 159

Which of the following is an output of Close Procurements?

Options:

A.

Accepted deliverables

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Managing stakeholder expectations

D.

Performance reports

Buy Now
Questions 160

The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements describes management of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Project

B.

Scope

C.

Contract

D.

Program

Buy Now
Questions 161

The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. Assuming this performance wi continue, the new estimate at completion is $1000. What was the original budget at completion for the project?

Options:

A.

$800

B.

$1000

C.

$1250

D.

$1800

Buy Now
Questions 162

Which is an output of the Collect Requirements process?

Options:

A.

Requirements traceability matrix

B.

Project scope statement

C.

WBS dictionary

D.

Work performance measurements

Buy Now
Questions 163

While preparing the project management plan on a weekly basis, the project manager indicates the intention to provide an issues report to the staff via e-mail. In which part of the plan will this type of information be included?

Options:

A.

Communications management plan

B.

Human resource plan

C.

Quality management plan

D.

Procurement management plan

Buy Now
Questions 164

The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their:

Options:

A.

quality.

B.

value.

C.

technical performance.

D.

status.

Buy Now
Questions 165

The staffing management plan is part of the:

Options:

A.

organizational process assets.

B.

resource calendar.

C.

human resource plan.

D.

Develop Project Team process.

Buy Now
Questions 166

Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Three-point estimate

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Expected monetary value analysis

Buy Now
Questions 167

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique used in which process?

Options:

A.

Control Costs

B.

Determine Budget

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Control Budget

Buy Now
Questions 168

Administer Procurements is part of which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Closing

Buy Now
Questions 169

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Options:

A.

Performance reports

B.

Project charter

C.

Outputs from planning processes

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Buy Now
Questions 170

In adaptive projects, who should approve the prioritization of the backlog?

Options:

A.

Project manager

B.

Project sponsor

C.

Business analyst

D.

Product owner

Buy Now
Questions 171

When can we say that a project is completed?

Options:

A.

When the planned time duration is completed

B.

When the project objectives have been reached

C.

When the project manager has left the team

D.

When the project team decides to stop the work on the project

Buy Now
Questions 172

Project governance refers to framework.......which of the following is a portfolio?

Pioject governance refers lo framework, functions, and processes that guide project management activates with a defined hierarchy between projects, programs and poctfotos. According to this hierarchy, which ot Die following is a portfolio?

Options:

A.

A portfolio is a group of projects, programs, subsidiary portfolios and operations managed together to achieve strategic objectives.

B.

A portfolio is the mam project of the company, supervised directly by the CEO.

C.

A portfolio is a group of projects managed by the same project manager.

D.

A portfolio is a group of related proiecls, programs, subsidary portfolios, and operation*, thai provides similar products or services.

Buy Now
Questions 173

The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is:

Options:

A.

Define Activities.

B.

Create WBS.

C.

Define Scope.

D.

Develop Schedule.

Buy Now
Questions 174

A project team of telecommuters located in three different time zones regularly misses project deadlines Daily meetings often start and end with the same person talking and the rest of the team listening The project manager determines that communication among team members must be addressed.

What communication step is missing from the daily meetings?

Options:

A.

Interpersonal communication

B.

Feedback response communication

C.

Push communication

D.

Pull communication

Buy Now
Questions 175

The cost benefit analysis tool is used for creating:

Options:

A.

Pareto charts.

B.

quality metrics.

C.

change requests,

D.

Ishikawa diagrams.

Buy Now
Questions 176

A project veers off track due to scope creep. The project management team requests an immediate response from the major stakeholders.

What should the project manager do next to avoid project failure?

Options:

A.

Adopt a change management approach and delay the project to decide on the direction.

B.

Develop a focus group to face the issue and decide on the appropriate direction.

C.

Request a meeting with top management to state concerns about their ability to handle the situation.

D.

Delay the project by adopting a fast-fail approach, mitigating the risk of having a bigger impact on the company.

Buy Now
Questions 177

The project manager implemented the stakeholder engagement plan and realized that some uploads should be made. Which components of the project management plan should be modified?

Options:

A.

Project charter and stakeholder engagement plan

B.

Risk management plan and stakeholder engagement plan

C.

Communications management plan and stakeholder engagement plan

D.

Project charter and communications management plan

Buy Now
Questions 178

What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Options:

A.

Integrating all planned activities

B.

Performing the activities included in the plan

C.

Developing and maintaining the plan

D.

Execution of deliverables

Buy Now
Questions 179

What document gathers all of the lessons learned at the end of a phase or project

Options:

A.

Lessons learned register

B.

Lessons learned list

C.

Lessons learned project asset

D.

Lessons learned repository

Buy Now
Questions 180

The individual or group that provides resources and support for a project and is accountable for success is the:

Options:

A.

sponsor

B.

customer

C.

business partners

D.

functional managers

Buy Now
Questions 181

Which of the following techniques should a project manager of a large project with virtual teams use to enhance collaboration?

Options:

A.

Resource breakdown structure

B.

Physical resources assignment

C.

Team building activities

D.

Integrated Change Control

Buy Now
Questions 182

What Knowledge Area must be led by the project manager and cannot be delegated to other specialists?

Options:

A.

Project Cost Management

B.

Project Integration Management

C.

Project Risk Management

D.

Project Schedule Management

Buy Now
Questions 183

A project manager is working with the project sponsor to identify the resources required for the project. They use a RACI chart to ensure that the team members knows their roles and responsibilities.

What are the four elements of a RACI chart?

Options:

A.

Recommend, approve, coordinate, and inform

B.

Responsible, accountable, consult, and inform

C.

Recommend, accountable, consult, and inform

D.

Responsible, accountable, coordinate, and inform

Buy Now
Questions 184

During the project life cycle for a major product, a stakeholder asked to add a new feature. Which document should they consult for guidance?

Options:

A.

Product release plan

B.

Project release plan

C.

Project management plan

D.

Product management plan

Buy Now
Questions 185

The activity tailoring is necessary because:

Options:

A.

the members of the project team need to select the appropriate order of every tool, technique, input, and output listed in the PMBOK Guide, this is required for all projects

B.

each project is unique, and the members of the project team should select the appropriate tools, techniques, inputs, and outputs from the PMBOK Guide

C.

the members of the project team need to understand the PMBOK Guide processes, which are applied to all projects

D.

each project is unique, and the project team must plain how to apply all the tools, techniques, inputs, and outputs in the PMBOK Guide

Buy Now
Questions 186

Match the praxes manager's sphere of influence with the associated primary role:

Options:

Buy Now
Questions 187

A project manager is creating a project charter to provide a direct link between the project and the organization's strategic objectives. What must be considered when creating this document?

Options:

A.

High-level requirements and the project team

B.

Key stakeholder list and contingency reserve

C.

Detailed milestone schedule and project objectives

D.

Project purpose and high-level project description

Buy Now
Questions 188

A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:

Options:

A.

Adaptive

B.

Predictive

C.

Incremental

D.

Iterative

Buy Now
Questions 189

A construction project is underway, and during... tasks impacted the painting work

A construction project is underway, and during the progress review the painter complained that the task could not be started because the mason has not finished the plastering job What kind ot relationship between the tasks impacted the painting work?

Options:

A.

Finish-to-Finish (FF)

B.

Start-to-Finish (SF)

C.

Finish-to-Start(FS)

D.

Start-to-Slart(SS)

Buy Now
Questions 190

Which three of the following interpersonal skills does a project manager rely on when developing the project management plan? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

Focus groups

B.

Facilitation

C.

Meeting management

D.

Conflict management

E.

Interviews

Buy Now
Questions 191

A construction project is underway with three months left to complete the building. A public authority responsible for approving the final stage is stalling the project. What should the project manager do?

Options:

A.

Discuss this with the department head and arrive at an acceptable solution to expedite the approval process.

B.

Report the issue to major stakeholders and explore possible corrective actions along with legal assistance.

C.

Mitigate the risk by requesting an alternative public authority to participate in the approval process.

D.

Visit the public authority headquarters and formally petition them, demanding an explanation about the delay.

Buy Now
Questions 192

A business manager wants to start a project to launch a new product. How should the manager initiate the project?

Options:

A.

Ask a small team to produce a prototype of the product before full-scale development.

B.

Assign a project manager to the project and ask them to document the project scope.

C.

Prepare a detailed business case to document project objectives and success criteria.

D.

Discuss the project requirements with the team for alternative products in the market.

Buy Now
Questions 193

What is the purpose of an adaptive standup meeting?

Options:

A.

To review what work has been completed, remove impediments, and calculate velocity

B.

To ask the team what work has been completed, calculate velocity, and determine what work will be completed

C.

To ask the team what work has been completed, ask what work will be completed, and report impediments

D.

To update the burndown chart, calculate velocity, and report impediments

Buy Now
Questions 194

A business analyst has encountered a conflict related to competing requirements on an existing project. What tool should the business analyst use to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Peer review

B.

Procurement management

C.

Weighted ranking

D.

Risk assessment

Buy Now
Questions 195

What tern describes an intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component?

Options:

A.

Preventive action

B.

Corrective action

C.

Defect repair

D.

Updates

Buy Now
Questions 196

What purpose does the hierarchical focus of stakeholder communications serve?

Options:

A.

Maintains the focus on project and organizational stakeholders

B.

Preserves the focus on external stakeholders—such as customers and vendors—as well as on other projects

C.

Sustains the focus on general communication activities using email, social media and websites

D.

Keeps the focus on the position of the stakeholder or group with respect to the project team

Buy Now
Questions 197

How can a project manager represent a contingency reserve in the schedule?

Options:

A.

Additional weeks of work to account for unknown-unknowns risks

B.

Task duration estimates of the best case scenarios

C.

Addition Duration estimates in response to identified risks that have been accepted

D.

Milestones representing the completion of deliverables

Buy Now
Questions 198

Product requirements specify a functionality that depends upon expertise that is unavailable internally. What process should be implemented to generate a make-or-buy decision?

Options:

A.

Conduct ProcurementsB Plan Procurement Management

B.

Plan Risk Responses

C.

Plan Risk Management

Buy Now
Questions 199

A team member, who is close to an influential stakeholder, has joined the project team. The stakeholder is routing requests for multiple reports through the new team member, and the team member reaches out to the project manager regarding this. What should the project manager do first?

Options:

A.

Forward the status reports to the stakeholder.

B.

Manage stakeholder engagement.

C.

Consult the communications management plan.

D.

Update the communications management plan.

Buy Now
Questions 200

Which of the following does a portfolio combine?

Options:

A.

Projects, programs, and operations

B.

Operations, strategies, and business continuity

C.

Projects, programs, and risks

D.

Projects, change management, and operations

Buy Now
Questions 201

All testing on a project has been performed successfully and all acceptance criteria have been met. What is the next step?

Options:

A.

Set up a meeting with the sponsor.

B.

Set up a go/no-go meeting.

C.

Wait for the next sprint.

D.

Deliver the product.

Buy Now
Questions 202

A team is working on a project using an adaptive approach. During project execution, the project gets delayed by one month due to an unforeseen risk. What should the team do next to deliver this project?

Options:

A.

Stop working on the project completely, even if the team can continue working on the tasks with the identified risk.

B.

Accept the project delay and add the risk to the lessons learned document for the next project.

C.

Change the delivery date and deliver the initially agreed-upon scope after mitigation of the identified risk.

D.

Reprioritize the work based on the increased visibility of the current risks.

Buy Now
Questions 203

The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:

Options:

A.

Planning.

B.

Executing,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Closing.

Buy Now
Questions 204

Which process determines the risks that may affect the project and documents their characteristics?

Options:

A.

Control Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Plan Risk Responses

D.

Identify Risks

Buy Now
Questions 205

What does the creation of a project management plan accomplish?

Options:

A.

Defines the basis of all project work and how it will be performed

B.

Acknowledges the existence of a project and defines its high-level information

C.

Authorizes the project manager to apply organizational resources to project activities

D.

Provides the project manager with organizational standards, policies, processes, and procedures

Buy Now
Questions 206

Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?

Options:

A.

Document analysis

B.

Observations

C.

Product analysis

D.

Expert judgment

Buy Now
Questions 207

Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project?

Options:

A.

Power/influence grid

B.

Power/interest grid

C.

Influence/impact grid

D.

Salience model

Buy Now
Questions 208

What specific quality considerations should be examined while completing Quality Management plan?

Options:

A.

Risk registerB Stakeholder engagement

B.

Continuous improvement

C.

Standards and regulatory compliance

Buy Now
Questions 209

Which three of the following are the most widely used techniques that a business analyst should implement to gather requirements? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

Current state analysis

B.

Facilitated workshops

C.

Scheduled interviews

D.

Shop floor observation

E.

Brainstorming sessions

Buy Now
Questions 210

What internal enterprise environmental factor (EEF) can impact a project?

Options:

A.

Cultural influences

B.

Physical environmental elements

C.

Commercial databases

D.

Infrastructure

Buy Now
Questions 211

Which of the following lists of tools and techniques is used when conducting procurements?

Options:

A.

Expert judgement, procurement negotiations, bidder conferences, proposal evaluation advertising and independent estimates

B.

Budgeting procurement negotiations, bidder conferences, proposal evaluation and advertising, and seller's proposal C. Expert judgement, procurement negotiations bidder conferences, proposal evaluation and advertising, and make-or-buy decisions

C.

Agreements procurement negotiations, bidder conferences, proposal evaluation and advertising selected seller

Buy Now
Questions 212

To ensure stakeholder satisfaction; identified stakeholder needs should all be

Options:

A.

Vetted

B.

Ranked from greatest to least

C.

Qualified

D.

Documented in the stakeholder engagement plan

Buy Now
Questions 213

The project manager is leading a construction project that has been ongoing for eight years. The project manager needs to calculate the correct static payback period and consults the cash flow statement of the construction project investment.

What equation should the project manager use?

Options:

A.

Static payback period = 6 + 1300 / 500 = 6.6

B.

Static payback period = 3 + 1200 / 500 = 5.4

C.

Static payback period = 5 + 700 / 500 = 5.4

D.

Static payback period = 5 + 200 / 500 = 5.4

Buy Now
Questions 214

A project team is tasked with decomposing the scope to enable detailed cost and duration estimates. What should the team do to achieve this requirement?

Options:

A.

Prepare a WBS with task sequencing and detail the duration and cost estimates.

B.

Prepare a WBS to work package level to effectively manage duration and cost estimates.

C.

Prepare a WBS for immediate tasks in the plan to work package level for duration and cost estimates.

D.

Prepare a work breakdown structure (WBS) to include each deliverable with a target duration and cost estimate.

Buy Now
Questions 215

When does the project team determine which dependencies are discretionary?

Options:

A.

Before the Define Activities process

B.

During the Define Activities process

C.

Before the Sequence Activities process

D.

During the Sequence Activities process

Buy Now
Questions 216

Project managers plan a key role performing integration on the project what are the three different levels of integration?

Options:

A.

Process, cognitive

B.

Complexity, understand and change

C.

Interact, insight and leadership

D.

Communication, knowledge and value

Buy Now
Questions 217

What is the Project Schedule Management practice used to deliver incremental value to the customer'?

Options:

A.

Resource optimization

B.

Iterative scheduling with a backlog

C.

On-demand scheduling

D.

Critical path method

Buy Now
Questions 218

What can the project manager find among the factors that could lead a project to be tailored

Options:

A.

Company Culture

B.

Return on investment

C.

Earned Value

D.

Schedule Performance Index

Buy Now
Questions 219

Which enterprise environmental factors should be considered when creating a new procurement contract?

Options:

A.

Supply chains

B.

Trial engagements

C.

Lessons learned register

D.

Local laws and regulalk

Buy Now
Questions 220

The review of a sellers progress toward achieving the goals of scope and quality within cost and schedule compared to the contract is known as:

Options:

A.

Work performance information.

B.

Inspections and audits.

C.

Payment systems.

D.

Procurement performance reviews.

Buy Now
Questions 221

What is a tailoring consideration for Project Scope Management'?

Options:

A.

Life cycle approach

B.

Continuous improvement

C.

Validation and control

D.

Project complexity

Buy Now
Questions 222

An adaptive project team is grooming the backlog for the next iteration. What does the team need to document in the user stories to determine the work needed to complete each story?

Options:

A.

Team velocity in past iterations

B.

Related epics of each story

C.

Product owner's priorities

D.

Detailed acceptance criteria

Buy Now
Questions 223

Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:

Options:

A.

Performance measurement baseline.

B.

Analysis of project forecasts,

C.

Summary of changes approved in a period,

D.

Analysis of past performance.

Buy Now
Questions 224

Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?

Options:

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Control Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Plan Risk Responses

Buy Now
Questions 225

Which type of contract gives both the seller and the buyer flexibility to deviate from performance with financial incentives?

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)

B.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)

C.

Cost Pius Award Re (CPAF)

D.

Time and Material (T&M)

Buy Now
Questions 226

Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?

Options:

A.

Procurement statement of work

B.

Purchase order

C.

Source selection criteria

D.

Bidder conference

Buy Now
Questions 227

In one of the project meetings during a project execution, a new stakeholder attends and highlights a new risk. What should the project manager do next?

Options:

A.

Add this risk to the lessons learned register on project completion.

B.

Add the stakeholder to the stakeholder register and add the risk to the risk register.

C.

Make sure proper testing gets completed to minimize the risk highlighted.

D.

Ignore the risk from this stakeholder as this stakeholder never showed up at the start of the project.

Buy Now
Questions 228

Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?

Options:

A.

Nominal group technique

B.

Idea/mind mapping

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

Buy Now
Questions 229

Which tool or technique of the Define Activities process allows for work to exist at various levels of detail depending on where it is in the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Historical relationships

B.

Dependency determination

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Rolling wave planning

Buy Now
Questions 230

The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Initiating

D.

Planning

Buy Now
Questions 231

In which of the Risk Management processes is the project charter used as an input?

Options:

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Implement Risk Responses

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Responses

Buy Now
Questions 232

An input used in developing the communications management plan is:

Options:

A.

Communication models.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors.

C.

Organizational communications,

D.

Organizational cultures and styles.

Buy Now
Questions 233

Which Knowledge Areas include processes from the Closing Process Group?

Options:

A.

Project Quality Management and Project Time Management

B.

Project Scope Management and Project Risk Management

C.

Project Stakeholder Management and Project Cost Management

D.

Project Integration Management and Project Procurement Management

Buy Now
Questions 234

During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?

Options:

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Perform Quality Assurance

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Control Scope

Buy Now
Questions 235

Which Process Group and Knowledge Area include the Sequence Activities process?

Options:

A.

Executing Process Group and Project Time Management

B.

Executing Process Group and Project Cost Management

C.

Planning Process Group and Project Time Management

D.

Planning Process Group and Project Cost Management

Buy Now
Questions 236

An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is:

Options:

A.

smooth/accommodate.

B.

force/direct,

C.

collaborate/problem solve,

D.

compromise/reconcile.

Buy Now
Questions 237

Status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasted estimates to complete are examples of:

Options:

A.

Earned value management.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors.

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Work performance information.

Buy Now
Questions 238

Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?

Options:

A.

Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.

B.

Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,

C.

Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.

D.

Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.

Buy Now
Questions 239

The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements is provided by:

Options:

A.

A risk urgency assessment.

B.

The scope baseline.

C.

Work performance information.

D.

Procurement audits.

Buy Now
Questions 240

The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?

Options:

A.

Timing

B.

Methodology

C.

Risk categories

D.

Budgeting

Buy Now
Questions 241

Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?

Options:

A.

Strategic plan

B.

Project charter

C.

Project management plan

D.

Service level agreement

Buy Now
Questions 242

The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Project Communications Management

B.

Project Integration Management

C.

Project Risk Management

D.

Project Scope Management

Buy Now
Questions 243

Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?

Options:

A.

Plan Risk Management

B.

Plan Risk Responses

C.

Identify Risks

D.

Control Risks

Buy Now
Questions 244

Updates to organizational process assets such as procurement files, deliverable acceptances, and lessons learned documentation are typical outputs of which process?

Options:

A.

Close Project or Phase

B.

Conduct Procurements

C.

Control Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

Buy Now
Questions 245

Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?

Options:

A.

Control Scope

B.

Define Scope

C.

Plan Scope Management

D.

Collect Requirements

Buy Now
Questions 246

Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Plan Cost Management

Buy Now
Questions 247

Which tool or technique is used in the Estimate Costs process?

Options:

A.

Acquisition

B.

Earned value management

C.

Vendor bid analysis

D.

Forecasting

Buy Now
Questions 248

What is the estimate at completion (EAC) if the budget at completion (BAC) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $50, and the earned value (EV) is $25?

Options:

A.

$50

B.

$100

C.

$125

D.

$175

Buy Now
Questions 249

Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can best be involved in a project?

Options:

A.

Feedback analysis

B.

Stakeholder analysis

C.

Communication management plan

D.

Stakeholder management plan

Buy Now
Questions 250

An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is:

Options:

A.

change requests

B.

enterprise environmental factors

C.

the stakeholder management plan

D.

the change log

Buy Now
Questions 251

Which grid shows which resources are tied to work packages?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

C.

Project assignment chart

D.

Personnel assignment matrix

Buy Now
Questions 252

Units of measure, level of precision, level of accuracy, control thresholds, and rules of performance measurement are examples of items that are established in the:

Options:

A.

Cost management plan.

B.

Work performance information.

C.

Quality management plan.

D.

Work breakdown structure.

Buy Now
Questions 253

The project manager is working with some functional managers and stakeholders on the resource management plan Which elements may be included in this plan?

Options:

A.

Team values, team agreements, and conflict resolution process

B.

Conflict resolution process, communication guidelines, and meeting schedules

C.

Team roles and responsibilities, team management, and training plan

D.

Resource requirements, resource assignments, and team performance assessments

Buy Now
Questions 254

Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measurement for a current project describes which type of estimating?

Options:

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Parametric

C.

Analogous

D.

Three-point

Buy Now
Questions 255

An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:

Options:

A.

The project charter.

B.

The stakeholder analysis.

C.

A communication management plan.

D.

A stakeholder register.

Buy Now
Questions 256

An input to Close Project or Phase is:

Options:

A.

Accepted deliverables,

B.

Final products or services,

C.

Document updates,

D.

Work performance information.

Buy Now
Questions 257

An input to the Plan Procurement Management process is:

Options:

A.

Source selection criteria.

B.

Market research.

C.

A stakeholder register.

D.

A records management system.

Buy Now
Questions 258

Which item is an output of Plan Quality Management and an input to Perform Quality Assurance?

Options:

A.

Organizational process updates

B.

Quality metrics

C.

Change requests

D.

Quality control measurements

Buy Now
Questions 259

Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?

Options:

A.

Facilitation techniques

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Analytical techniques

D.

Variance analysis

Buy Now
Questions 260

In a project, total float measures the:

Options:

A.

Ability to shuffle schedule activities to lessen the duration of the project.

B.

Amount of time an activity can be extended or delayed without altering the project finish date.

C.

Cost expended to restore order to the project schedule after crashing the schedule.

D.

Estimate of the total resources needed for the project after performing a forward pass.

Buy Now
Questions 261

An example of a group decision-ma king technique is:

Options:

A.

Nominal group technique.

B.

Majority.

C.

Affinity diagram.

D.

Multi-criteria decision analysis.

Buy Now
Questions 262

Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which type of communication?

Options:

A.

Direct

B.

Interactive

C.

Pull

D.

Push

Buy Now
Questions 263

Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to project teams?

Options:

A.

Supportive

B.

Directive

C.

Controlling

D.

Instructive

Buy Now
Questions 264

The number of potential communication channels for a project with 5 stakeholders is:

Options:

A.

10.

B.

12.

C.

20.

D.

24.

Buy Now
Questions 265

The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Executing

Buy Now
Questions 266

A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the right time is an example of which type of communication?

Options:

A.

Efficient

B.

Effective

C.

Push

D.

Pull

Buy Now
Questions 267

The organization's perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the risk:

Options:

A.

Responses

B.

Appetite

C.

Tolerance

D.

Attitude

Buy Now
Questions 268

Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Only once, at the beginning

B.

At the beginning and the end

C.

Once during each phase

D.

Repeatedly

Buy Now
Questions 269

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished is known as:

Options:

A.

Start-to-start (SS).

B.

Start-to-finish (SF).

C.

Finish-to-start (FS).

D.

Finish-to-finish (FF).

Buy Now
Questions 270

When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?

Options:

A.

Interactive communication

B.

Claims administration

C.

Conflict management

D.

Performance reporting

Buy Now
Questions 271

The procurement requirements for a project include working with several vendors. What should the project manager take into consideration during the Project Procurement Management processes?

Options:

A.

Work performance information

B.

Bidder conferences

C.

Complexity of procurement

D.

Procurement management plan

Buy Now
Questions 272

A project reports an earned value (EV) of USS45 for work completed with an actual cost (AC) of US$40. What is the cost performance index (CPI)?

Options:

A.

0.88

B.

1.12

C.

0.58

D.

1.58

Buy Now
Questions 273

During the execution phase of a project a detect is found. The project manager takes responsibility and with the correct documentation, begins the task necessary to repair the defect. What process was applied?

Options:

A.

Change request

B.

Risk response

C.

Risk management plan

D.

Lessons learned

Buy Now
Questions 274

During the planning phase, a project manager must create a work breakdown structure (WBS) to improve management of the project's components. What should be included in the WBS?

Options:

A.

Activity dependencies

B.

Work package risks

C.

Description of work

D.

Resource estimates

Buy Now
Questions 275

What should a project manager use to determine how much money is needed to complete a project?

Options:

A.

Earned value management (EVM)

B.

Estimate at completion (EAC)

C.

Earned value analysis (EVA)

D.

Budget at completion (BAG)

Buy Now
Questions 276

To which knowledge area does the Collect Requirements process belong?

Options:

A.

Quality Management

B.

Scope Management

C.

Cost Management

D.

Integration Management

Buy Now
Questions 277

A project manager is reviewing the change requests for project documents, deliverables, and the project plan. In which project management process does this review belong?

Options:

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

Buy Now
Questions 278

What tool or technique can improve a products final characteristics?

Options:

A.

Design for X (DfX)

B.

Problem solving

C.

Process analysis

D.

Risk report

Buy Now
Questions 279

A firm contracted an event management company to conduct the annual sales day event. The agreement states that the event management company will charge the firm for the actuals and receive 8% of the total cost. What type of contract Is this?

Options:

A.

Time and material (T8M)

B.

Fixed price incentive fee (FPIF)

C.

Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)

D.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF)

Buy Now
Questions 280

Recognition and rewards are tools and techniques of which process?

Options:

A.

Develop Team

B.

Manage Team

C.

Control Resources

D.

Plan Resource Management

Buy Now
Questions 281

What is a tailoring consideration for the application of Project Risk Management processes?

Options:

A.

Project complexity

B.

Procurement criteria

C.

Communication technology

D.

Knowledge management

Buy Now
Questions 282

An output of the Create WBS process is:

Options:

A.

Scope baseline.

B.

Change requests.

C.

Accepted deliverables.

D.

Variance analysis.

Buy Now
Questions 283

What is the role of project management in terms of organizational strategy?

Options:

A.

Project management aligns initiatives, prioritizes work, and provides resources.

B.

Project management provides the strategic vision (or an organization lo achieve its goals.

C.

Project management enables the achievement of organizational goals and objectives.

D.

Project management harmonizes components and controls interdependencies to realize specific benefits.

Buy Now
Questions 284

When developing the project schedule, a project manager uses decomposition and rolling wave planning techniques in this process.

Options:

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Define Activities

C.

Define Scope

D.

Collect Requirements

Buy Now
Questions 285

A risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response is called a:

Options:

A.

contingent risk

B.

residual risk

C.

potential risk

D.

secondary risk

Buy Now
Questions 286

A project is in progress and about to move to a different phase, according to the plan. This will be a good opportunity for the project manager to:

Options:

A.

create the project management plan.

B.

identify the project objectives.

C.

review and update stakeholder engagement.

D.

create the schedule baseline.

Buy Now
Questions 287

A project has an estimated duration of 10 months with a total budget of US$220,000. At the end of the fifth month, it is estimated that at completion, the project will incur US$250,000. If the actual cost (AC) calculated is US$150,000, what is the earned value (EV) of the project?

Options:

A.

USS-30,000

B.

US$120,000

C.

US$370,000

D.

US$400,000

Buy Now
Questions 288

Match each dimension of the communications management plan to its corresponding focus.

Options:

Buy Now
Questions 289

A project manager needs to demonstrate that the project meets quality standards and success criteria. For that reason, the project manager is defining the quality objectives of the project, the quality tools that will be used, and quality metrics for the project deliverables.

Which process is the project manager executing?

Options:

A.

Manage Quality

B.

Plan Quality Management

C.

Control Quality

D.

Plan Scope Management

Buy Now
Questions 290

Make-or-buy analysis is a tool and technique of which process?

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Plan Procurement Management

C.

Analyze Procurements

D.

Control Procurements

Buy Now
Questions 291

A project manager held a meeting and listed all team members' ideas for improving the product on a white board. What data gathering technique did the project manager apply?

Options:

A.

Focus groups

B.

Interviews

C.

Brainstorming

D.

Delphi technique

Buy Now
Questions 292

Which of the following can a project manager use to represent dellned team member roles in a group of tasks?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

C.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

D.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

Buy Now
Questions 293

A new project has been set. Four main stakeholders besides the project manager and four other team members have been identified. How many communication channels are available?

Options:

A.

8

B.

18

C.

36

D.

40

Buy Now
Questions 294

What is a tailoring consideration in Project Integration Management?

Options:

A.

Validation and control

B.

Benefits

C.

Technology support

D.

Physical location

Buy Now
Questions 295

Which is the best way for a project manager to ensure efficient and frequent communication with management and stakeholders in an agile/adaptive environment?

Options:

A.

Post project artifacts in a transparent fashion and engage stakeholders on a regular basis.

B.

Make surveys among the stakeholders and meet with the team once a month.

C.

Create a social network and post news there.

D.

Create personalized emails for each stakeholder, asking for requests and reviewing objectives with them periodically.

Buy Now
Questions 296

What process is included in Project Schedule Management?

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Durations

B.

Create Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

C.

Direct and Manage Project Work

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

Buy Now
Questions 297

The primary purpose of the stakeholder register is to:

Options:

A.

Record stakeholder issues on the project

B.

Maintain lessons learned earlier in the project

C.

Maintain a list of all project stakeholders

D.

Document change requests and their status

Buy Now
Questions 298

Which are the main objectives of Project Risk Management?

Options:

A.

Increase the probability of positive risks and decrease the probability of negative risks

B.

Avoid all kind of risks

C.

Increase the probability of positive risks and eliminate all negative risks

D.

Identify positive and negative risks

Buy Now
Questions 299

What is the purpose of the project schedule management.

Options:

A.

Estimates specific time and the deadline when the products, services and results will be delivered.

B.

Determines in details the resources and time that each task will require to be done

C.

Represents how and when the project will deliver the results defined in the project scope.

D.

It provides the relationships among the project activities and their risks.

Buy Now
Questions 300

The Agile principle "welcome changing requirement, even late in development" relates to which agile manifesto?

Options:

A.

Working software over comprehensive documentation

B.

Individuals and interactions over processes and tools

C.

Customer collaboration over contract negotiation

D.

Responding to change over following a plan

Buy Now
Questions 301

Which stakeholder approves a project's result?

Options:

A.

Customer

B.

Sponsor

C.

Seller

D.

Functional manager

Buy Now
Questions 302

Which of these is true of project integration management?

Options:

A.

Project Integration Management is mandatory and more effective in larger projects.

B.

Project Integration Management and expert judgment are mutually exclusive.

C.

Project Integration Management is the responsibility of the project manager

D.

Project Integration Management excludes the triple constraints if cost performance index (CPI) equals zero.

Buy Now
Questions 303

Which is a list of organizational systems that may have an impact on a project?

Options:

A.

Internal policies, company procedures, and organizational resources

B.

Company culture, purchasing system, and project management information system

C.

Organizational structure, governance framework, and management elements

D.

Organizational process assets, enterprise environmental factors, and corporate knowledge

Buy Now
Questions 304

Which of the following are components of the technical project management skill?

Options:

A.

Ability to explain business aspects of the project, business strategy, goals and objectives, and business value.

B.

Ability to deal with people, to be collaborative, and to apply persuasion and negotiation.

C.

Ability to focus on relationships with people, inspire trust, and implement decisions and actions that support the business strategy.

D.

Ability to plan and prioritize, gather the right artifacts available for each project, and focus on critical success factors.

Buy Now
Questions 305

In which sphere of influence is the project manager demonstrating the value of project management and advancing the efficacy of the project management office (PMO)?

Options:

A.

The organization

B.

The project

C.

The industry

D.

The product

Buy Now
Questions 306

Which action should the project manager take after the team finishes executing the scope?

Options:

A.

Verify the deliverables to ensure that they are correct and meet the customer's satisfaction.

B.

Accept all the deliverables and deliver them to the customer for final acceptance.

C.

Conduct a joint session with the customer, change the deliverables, and then request approval.

D.

Check that all change requests were implemented and release deliverables to the customer.

Buy Now
Questions 307

Which of the following best correspond to the organizational process assets (OPAs) that affect the project?

Options:

A.

Policies and lessons learned from other projects

B.

Information technology software and employee capability

C.

Resource availability and employee capability

D.

Marketplace conditions and legal restrictions

Buy Now
Questions 308

What are the inputs of the Estimate Costs process?

Options:

A.

Project management plan, work performance data, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets

B.

Project management plan, project documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets

C.

Cost baseline, enterprise environmental factors, benefits management plan, and organizational process assets

D.

Project management plan, enterprise environmental factors, basis of estimates, and organizational process assets

Buy Now
Questions 309

Which standard has interrelationships to other project management disciplines such as program management and portfolio management?

Options:

A.

Program Management Body of Knowledge Guide

B.

The Standard for Program Management

C.

Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3$)

D.

Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK®)

Buy Now
Questions 310

What is the project manager's responsibility in Project Integration Management?

Options:

A.

Ensuring that requirements-related work is clarified in the project management plan

B.

Investing sufficient effort in acquiring, managing, motivating, and empowering the project team

C.

Combining the results in all other knowledge areas, and overseeing the project as a whole

D.

Developing a strategy to ensure effective stakeholder communication

Buy Now
Questions 311

A functional manager is delegating a key project to a project team without a project manager. Which communication method will be most effective?

Options:

A.

Interactive

B.

Push

C.

Verbal

D.

Oral

Buy Now
Questions 312

Which are inputs for the Plan Quality Management process?

Options:

A.

Quality metrics, project documents, and financial performance

B.

Quality management plan, project documents, and quality metrics

C.

Project management plan, project documents, and organizational process assets

D.

Project management plan, quality metrics. and project documents

Buy Now
Questions 313

Which set of competencies should a project manager have?

Options:

A.

Leadership, strategic and business management, and technical project management

B.

Expertise in the Industry, leadership and business management, and bilingual skills

C.

Technical project management, expertise in every role, and PMP certification

D.

Expertise in every detail on project activities. PMP certification, and leadership

Buy Now
Questions 314

A project manager is formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables. What is an input to this process?

Options:

A.

Verified deliverables

B.

Validated deliverables

C.

Accepted deliverables

D.

Completed change requests

Buy Now
Questions 315

What does an S-curve from a Monte Carlo analysis show?

Options:

A.

Cumulative probability distribution representing probability of achieving a particular outcome

B.

Individual project risks or uncertainties that have the most potential impact on outcome

C.

Best alternative out of the possible solutions, incorporating associated risks and opportunities

D.

Diagram for all project uncertainties and their influence over a period of time

Buy Now
Questions 316

Which knowledge area includes the processes to identify, define, and unify the various project management processes?

Options:

A.

Project Integration Management

B.

Project Communications Management

C.

Project Qualify Management

D.

Project Risk Management

Buy Now
Questions 317

In which organizational structure would the project manager have most authority?

Options:

A.

Matrix-weak

B.

Matrix-balanced

C.

Matrix-strong

D.

Organic or simple

Buy Now
Questions 318

The features and functions that characterize a result, product, or service can refer to:

Options:

A.

project scope

B.

product scope

C.

service scope

D.

product breakdown structure

Buy Now
Questions 319

What is the first step in the Stakeholder Management process?

Options:

A.

Plan Stakeholder Engagement

B.

Identify Stakeholders

C.

Manage Stakeholder Responsibility

D.

Monitor Stakeholder Activity

Buy Now
Questions 320

The project management plan requires the acquisition of a special part available from a supplier located abroad. Which source selection method is being used?

Options:

A.

Least cost

B.

Qualifications only

C.

Sole source

D.

Fixed budget

Buy Now
Questions 321

What does expert judgment provide as an input to the resource management plan?

Options:

A.

Geographic distribution of facilities and resources

B.

Physical resource management policies and procedures

C.

Estimated lead times based on lessons learned

D.

Templates for the resource management plan

Buy Now
Questions 322

A company must implement sales software because it is opening a new branch in a foreign market. Although this software is used in every domestic branch, multiple changes are expected during the implementation because It is a foreign location.

Which type of life cycle would the project manager use in this case?

Options:

A.

Predictive life cycle

B.

Waterfall life cycle

C.

Hybrid life cycle

D.

Product life cycle

Buy Now
Questions 323

Which tool or technique is used in Close Procurements?

Options:

A.

Contract plan

B.

Procurement plan

C.

Closure process

D.

Procurement audits

Buy Now
Questions 324

Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project management process?

Options:

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

C.

Define Scope

D.

Report Performance

Buy Now
Questions 325

Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Project Time Management

B.

Project Cost Management

C.

Project Scope Management

D.

Project Human Resource Management

Buy Now
Questions 326

The Project Management Process Group in which performance is observed and measured regularly from project initiation through completion is:

Options:

A.

Executing.

B.

Initiating,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Planning.

Buy Now
Questions 327

A project manager uses their networking skills to build agreement with a difficult stakeholder. What level of influence did the project manager apply?

Options:

A.

Project level

B.

Organizational level

C.

Industry level

D.

Influential level

Buy Now
Questions 328

Which tool and technique is used in Conduct Procurements?

Options:

A.

Teaming agreements

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Bidder conferences

D.

Contract types

Buy Now
Questions 329

Which of the following is an output from Control Scope?

Options:

A.

Change requests

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Accepted deliverables

D.

Requirements documentation

Buy Now
Questions 330

Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?

Options:

A.

Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials

B.

Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price

C.

Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis

D.

Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive

Buy Now
Questions 331

Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the most potential impact on a project?

Options:

A.

Cost risk simulation analysis

B.

Expected monetary value analysis

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Sensitivity analysis

Buy Now
Questions 332

In which process might a project manager use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?

Options:

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Monitor and Control Risk

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Plan Risk Responses

Buy Now
Questions 333

Ensuring that both parties meet contractual obligations and that their own legal rights are protected is a function of:

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements.

B.

Close Procurements.

C.

Administer Procurements,

D.

Plan Procurements.

Buy Now
Questions 334

The project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to which Project Time Management process?

Options:

A.

Sequence Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Control Schedule

Buy Now
Questions 335

Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution process?

Options:

A.

Approved change requests

B.

Approved contract documentation

C.

Work performance information

D.

Rejected change requests

Buy Now
Questions 336

Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?

Options:

A.

Responsible organization

B.

Change requests

C.

Validated deliverables

D.

Organizational process assets

Buy Now
Questions 337

Which process should be conducted from the project inception through completion?

Options:

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Perform Quality Control

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Monitor and Control Risks

Buy Now
Questions 338

Labor, materials, equipment, and supplies are examples of:

Options:

A.

Resource attributes.

B.

Resource types.

C.

Resource categories.

D.

Resource breakdown structures (RBS).

Buy Now
Questions 339

What is the most accurate rough order of magnitude (ROM)?

Options:

A.

In the Initiation phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.

B.

In the Planning phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.

C.

In the Monitoring and Controlling phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.

D.

In the Closing phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.

Buy Now
Questions 340

Which can be used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?

Options:

A.

Matrix diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Flowchart

Buy Now
Questions 341

Which of the following is a set of interrelated actions and activities performed to achieve a prespecified product, result, or service?

Options:

A.

Portfolio

B.

Process

C.

Project

D.

Program

Buy Now
Questions 342

A project has a current cost performance index (CPI) of 1.25. To date, US$10,000 have been spent on performing the project work. What is the earned value of the work completed to date?

Options:

A.

US$S000

B.

US$9500

C.

US$10,000

D.

US$12,500

Buy Now
Questions 343

In a construction project schedule, what is the logical relationship between the delivery of the concrete materials and the pouring of concrete?

Options:

A.

Start-to-start (SS)

B.

Start-to-finish (SF)

C.

Rnish-to-finish (FF)

D.

Finish-to-start (FS)

Buy Now
Questions 344

Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?

Options:

A.

Team performance assessment

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Staffing management plan

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Buy Now
Questions 345

A tool and technique used during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is:

Options:

A.

risk data quality assessment.

B.

variance and trend analysis.

C.

data gathering and representation techniques.

D.

risk audits.

Buy Now
Questions 346

Control charts, flowcharting, histograms, Pareto charts, and scatter diagrams are tools and techniques of which process?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Perform Quality Assurance

C.

Plan Quality

D.

Report Performance

Buy Now
Questions 347

The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?

Options:

A.

Define Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Sequence Activities

Buy Now
Questions 348

Which of the following is a conflict resolution technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference?

Options:

A.

Compromising

B.

Collaborating

C.

Smoothing

D.

Problem Solving

Buy Now
Questions 349

Which of the following is an output of the Distribute Information process?

Options:

A.

Project calendar

B.

Communications management plan

C.

Organizational process assets updates

D.

Project document updates

Buy Now
Questions 350

Which of the following is the primary output of the Identify Risks process?

Options:

A.

Risk management plan

B.

Risk register

C.

Change requests

D.

Risk response plan

Buy Now
Questions 351

What is a deliverable-oriented, hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables?

Options:

A.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B.

Work performance information

C.

Work package

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Buy Now
Questions 352

Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Define Activities process?

Options:

A.

Rolling wave planning

B.

Precedence diagramming method (PDM)

C.

Alternatives analysis

D.

Parametric estimating

Buy Now
Questions 353

A required input for Create WBS is a project:

Options:

A.

quality plan.

B.

schedule network.

C.

management document update.

D.

scope statement.

Buy Now
Questions 354

An input to the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process is the:

Options:

A.

quality management plan.

B.

project management plan.

C.

communications management plan.

D.

schedule management plan.

Buy Now
Questions 355

One of the tools and techniques of the Manage Project Team process is:

Options:

A.

organization charts.

B.

ground rules.

C.

organizational theory,

D.

conflict management.

Buy Now
Questions 356

In which Process Group are lessons learned documented?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Closing

C.

Executing

D.

Initiating

Buy Now
Questions 357

A project has an EV of 100 workdays, an AC of 120 workdays, and a PV of 80 workdays. What should be the concern?

Options:

A.

There is a cost underrun.

B.

There is a cost overrun.

C.

The project may not meet the deadline.

D.

The project is 20 days behind schedule.

Buy Now
Questions 358

Which of the following Process Groups covers all nine Project Management Knowledge Areas?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Initiating

Buy Now
Questions 359

The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?

Options:

A.

1.33

B.

2

C.

0.75

D.

0.5

Buy Now
Questions 360

What is the responsibility of the project manager and the functional manager respectively?

Options:

A.

Oversight for an administrative area; a facet of the core business

B.

Achieving the project objectives; providing management oversight for an administrative area

C.

A facet of the core business; achieving the project objectives

D.

Both are responsible for achieving the project objectives.

Buy Now
Questions 361

Which of the following is an output of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Options:

A.

Project management plan

B.

Change request status updates

C.

Organizational process assets updates

D.

Work performance information

Buy Now
Questions 362

Which tool or technique is used in Manage Stakeholder Expectations?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder management strategy

B.

Communication methods

C.

Issue log

D.

Change requests

Buy Now
Questions 363

Which is an input to the Verify Scope process?

Options:

A.

Performance report

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

Requested changes

D.

Project management plan

Buy Now
Questions 364

Change request status updates are an output of which process?

Options:

A.

Perform Integrated Change Control

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Monitor and Control Project Work

Buy Now
Questions 365

A given schedule activity is most likely to last four weeks. In a best-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last two weeks. In a worst-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last 12 weeks. Given these three estimates, what is the expected duration of the activity?

Options:

A.

Three weeks

B.

Four weeks

C.

Five weeks

D.

Six weeks

Buy Now
Questions 366

Based on the following metrics: EV= $20,000, AC= $22,000, and PV= $28,000, what is the project CV?

Options:

A.

-8000

B.

-2000

C.

2000

D.

8000

Buy Now
Questions 367

As the project progresses, which of the following is routinely collected from the project activities?

Options:

A.

Communication management activities

B.

Change requests

C.

Configuration verification and audit

D.

Work performance information

Buy Now
Questions 368

Which of the following is developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within a related contract?

Options:

A.

Product scope description

B.

Procurement statement of work

C.

Project schedule

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Buy Now
Questions 369

When calculating the cost of quality (COQ) for a product or service, money spent for cost of conformance would include the areas of:

Options:

A.

training, testing, and warranty work.

B.

equipment, rework, and scrap.

C.

training, document processes, and inspections.

D.

inspections, rework, and warranty work.

Buy Now
Questions 370

Monte Carlo is which type of risk analysis technique?

Options:

A.

Probability

B.

Quantitative

C.

Qualitative

D.

Sensitivity

Buy Now
Questions 371

The project manager needs to review the templates in use. The templates are part of the:

Options:

A.

Enterprise environmental factors.

B.

Historical information,

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Corporate knowledge base.

Buy Now
Questions 372

What is a tool to improve team performance?

Options:

A.

Staffing plan

B.

External feedback

C.

Performance reports

D.

Co-location

Buy Now
Questions 373

Which of the following reduces the probability of potential consequences of project risk events?

Options:

A.

Preventive action

B.

Risk management

C.

Corrective action

D.

Defect repair

Buy Now
Questions 374

Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Decomposition

Buy Now
Questions 375

Lessons learned documentation is gathered during which of the following Project Management Process Groups?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

Buy Now
Questions 376

Changes to formally controlled documentation, plans, etc. to reflect modified or additional ideas or content are known as:

Options:

A.

updates.

B.

defect repairs.

C.

preventive actions.

D.

corrective actions.

Buy Now
Questions 377

Who provides the inputs for the original estimates of activity durations for tasks on the project plan?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Person responsible for project scheduling

D.

Person who is most familiar with the task

Buy Now
Questions 378

How many Project Management Process Groups are there?

Options:

A.

3

B.

4

C.

5

D.

6

Buy Now
Questions 379

In Project Cost Management, which input is exclusive to the Determine Budget process?

Options:

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Project schedule

D.

Resource calendars

Buy Now
Questions 380

The component of the human resource management plan that includes ways in which team members can obtain certifications that support their ability to benefit the project is known as:

Options:

A.

recognition and rewards

B.

compliance

C.

staff acquisition

D.

training needs

Buy Now
Questions 381

An example of a group decision-making technique is:

Options:

A.

nominal group technique

B.

majority

C.

affinity diagram

D.

multi-criteria decision analysis

Buy Now
Questions 382

Which change request is an intentional activity that realigns the performance of the project work with the project management plan?

Options:

A.

Update

B.

Preventive action

C.

Defect repair

D.

Corrective action

Buy Now
Questions 383

Stakeholder communication requirements should be included as a component of:

Options:

A.

enterprise environmental factors

B.

organizational process assets

C.

the project management plan

D.

the stakeholder register

Buy Now
Questions 384

Skills necessary for project management such as motivating to provide encouragement; listening actively; persuading a team to perform an action; and summarizing, recapping, and identifying next steps are known as:

Options:

A.

organizational skills

B.

technical skills

C.

communication skills

D.

hard skills

Buy Now
Questions 385

A benefit of using virtual teams in the Acquire Project Team process is the reduction of the:

Options:

A.

cultural differences of team members

B.

possibility of communication misunderstandings

C.

costs associated with travel

D.

costs associated with technology

Buy Now
Questions 386

The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is called risk:

Options:

A.

appetite

B.

tolerance

C.

threshold

D.

management

Buy Now
Questions 387

Which enterprise environmental factors may influence Plan Schedule Management?

Options:

A.

Cultural views regarding time schedules and professional and ethical behaviors

B.

Historical information and change control procedures

C.

Risk control procedures and the probability and impact matrix

D.

Resource availability and organizational culture and structure

Buy Now
Questions 388

Specification of both the deliverables and the processes is the focus of:

Options:

A.

Change control

B.

Configuration control

C.

Project monitoring and control

D.

Issue control

Buy Now
Questions 389

Perform Integrated Change Control is the process of:

Options:

A.

Reviewing, approving, and managing all change requests

B.

Facilitating change management, manuals, or automation tools

C.

Comparing actual results with planned results in order to expand or change a project

D.

Documenting changes according to the change control system by the change control board

Buy Now
Questions 390

A project team attempts to produce a deliverable and finds that they have neither the expertise nor the time to complete the deliverable in a timely manner. This issue could have been avoided if they had created and followed a:

Options:

A.

risk management plan

B.

human resource management plan

C.

scope management plan

D.

procurement management plan

Buy Now
Questions 391

Project Stakeholder Management focuses on:

Options:

A.

project staff assignments

B.

project tea m acquisition

C.

managing conflicting interests

D.

communication methods

Buy Now
Questions 392

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The total float for the project is how many days?

Options:

A.

5

B.

9

C.

12

D.

14

Buy Now
Questions 393

An element of the modern quality management approach used to achieve compatibility with the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) is known as:

Options:

A.

Forecasting,

B.

Brainstorming.

C.

Historical databases.

D.

Cost of quality.

Buy Now
Questions 394

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique of which Project Cost Management process?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

Buy Now
Questions 395

A complete set of concepts, terms, and activities that make up an area of specialization is known as:

Options:

A.

a Knowledge Area

B.

a Process Group

C.

program management

D.

portfolio management

Buy Now
Exam Code: CAPM
Exam Name: Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)
Last Update: Feb 25, 2026
Questions: 1317
$57.75  $164.99
$43.75  $124.99
$36.75  $104.99
buy now CAPM