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GMAT Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

Legislator: Relatively few people in this society object to allowing the potential use of gene replacement techniques to treat disease, but most react negatively to allowing the use of such techniques to enhance people's performance in competitive sports. A clear distinction should therefore be made between medical treatment and performance enhancement when regulations concerning gene replacement are being formulated, because otherwise__________,

Which of the following most logically completes the passage?

Options:

A.

these regulations will not accurately reflect the sentiments of most people in this society

B.

gene replacement may be used for purposes yet unimagined

C.

the opinions people have of gene replacement will not have a scientific basis

D.

the generally accepted conception of athletic ability will have already shifted by the time the regulations are implemented

E.

the potential benefits of gene replacement will never be fully realized

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Questions 5

The passage most strongly indicates that the author would agree with which of the following statements?

Options:

A.

None of the subjects in the various studies other than the 1998 study who seemed to commit the conjunction fallacy actually did commit it.

B.

People who have studied the mathematical principles of probability are very unlikely to commit the conjunction fallacy.

C.

The conjunction fallacy is rarely committed outside of betting contexts.

D.

Many of the subjects in the various studies In addition to the 1998 study probably committed the conjunction fallacy.

E.

The conceptions of "probability" that underlie everyday use of the word rarely, if ever, conform to the mathematical principles of probability.

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Questions 6

Government regulations in Nation X require that milk products labeled "organic" come from cows that have access to pasture. Many industrial dairies have begun using the organic label on their products even though their cows spend most of their milk-bearing lives confined to feed lots eating grain. Critics charge that industrial dairy cows spend too little time grazing in pastures for their milk to bear the organic label, but the cows' owners insist that the animals are in good health and show no signs of discontent.

Which of the following would it be most useful to establish in order to determine whether the industrial dairies' use of the organic label complies with government regulations?

Options:

A.

The average amount of grass eaten by a cow from an industrial dairy that uses the organic label, as compared to the average amount of grass eaten by a cow from a smaller organic dairy farm

B.

By what criteria a cow is considered to be "in good health," according to government regulation

C.

The nutritional value of the milk labeled organic that is produced by cows from industrial dairies

D.

The effects on milk prices of the wider use of the organic label

E.

The meaning of "access to pasture," as stipulated by government regulation

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Questions 7

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

0

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

E.

Option

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Questions 8

Which of the following is the best example of the profound changes in corporate strategy and structure discussed In the second paragraph?

Options:

A.

Increased authority of a department manager over the staff of another department

B.

Appointment of a manager to oversee all contact among departments within a company

C.

Initiation of collaborative joint projects by staff from different departments

D.

Assignment of managerial tasks to nonmanagerial departmental staff

E.

increased emphasis on competition among departments

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Questions 9

A series of financial reports in recent months has portrayed an economy that is slowing sharply, thus raising expectations that the Federal Reserve v.ill be comp.. -xi to cut interest rates in order to avert a recession.

Options:

A.

that the Federal Reserve will be compelled to cut interest rates in order to avert a recession

B.

that averting a recession will compel the Federal Reserve to cut interest rates

C.

of averting a recession by the Federal Reserve being compelled to cut interest rates

D.

of the Federal Reserve's being compelled into cutting interest rates in order to avert a recession

E.

of compelling the Federal Reserve into cutting interest rates in order that a recession is averted

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Questions 10

Scientists recently found traces of down on the fossil of a dinosaur, which they describe as typical of the kind that eventually, in birds, develops into feathers.

Options:

A.

recently found traces of down on the fossil of a dinosaur, which they describe as typical of the kind that eventually, in birds, develops

B.

recently found traces of down on the fossil of a dinosaur, describing It as typical of the kind in birds that eventually develop

C.

recently found traces of down on the fossil of a dinosaur and describe it to be typical of the kind that, in birds, eventually develops

D.

describe the recently found traces of down on the fossil of a dinosaur to be typical of the kind in birds that eventually develop

E.

describe the traces of down found recently on the fossil of a dinosaur as typical of the kind that, in birds, eventually develops

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Questions 11

Which of the following does the passage NOT indicate is practiced by one or more companies in emerging markets discussed in the study?

Options:

A.

Lowering prices in order to decrease certain types ol losses

B.

Reengineering their practices in order to do more with fewer resources

C.

Reducing illegal use of their resources by working with regulators

D.

Allying with other companies In order to develop environmental sustainability Initiatives

E.

Working with outside partners to mitigate risks of the company's investments

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Questions 12

Riya: Chinese firms have had more success expancfing Wo East Africa than have firms from certain other countries in Asia, Europe, and North America. The Chinese government has coordinated with Chinese firms to have Chinese cultural productions, such as television dramas and news, translated into Swahili. These efforts helped gain acceptance by residents of the region for the Chinese firms that have expanded into the region. Thus if the governments of the other countries with businesses that seek to expand into East Africa were to emulate the Chinese government's approach, their businesses would find Just as much success.

Which of the following most clearly identifies an assumption on which Riya's argument depends?

Options:

A.

Producers of cultural productions in Europe, North America, and the other Asian countries would be willing to distribute them in East Africa free of charge.

B.

Residents of East Africa have not developed a long-lasting preference for Chinese cultural productions over the productions of other non-East African countries.

C.

The Chinese government controls more of the cultural production in its home country than the governments of the other countries control In their home countries.

D.

The non-Chinese firms seeking to expand Into East Africa will not compete directly with the Chinese firms that are already established there.

E.

Translating cultural productions such as television shows Into Swahili is not the only intervention by the Chinese government in support of Chinese firms.

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Questions 13

Options:

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Questions 14

Archaeologists have excavated two ancient sites, Site A and Site B, each containing bowls and dishes. A third site containing similar vessels (bowls and dishes), Site C, Is known to have existed but has not yet been located. The vessels have been dated to three successive 40-vear-long time periods (Mil).

The dishes that were found are small and plain and were made primarily for everyday use. For each site, the average population at the site for a period is known to be roughly proportional to the number of dishes found that were dated to that period.

The bowls are more elaborate, decorated In either a curvy or a rectilinear style. They were made primarily for ritual use. The numbers of bowls found indicate the level of wealth of the site's inhabitants during the period to which the bowls were dated (with greater numbers indicating greater wealth).

Documents found at Sites A and B establish that exactly 18 of the dishes found at Site A were manufactured at Site C; otherwise, all of the vessels were made at the sites where they were found.

For each of Sites A through C, select Yes If the Information provided Indicates that the population at that site was both greater in Period II than Period I and greater in Period III than in Period II. Otherwise, select No.

Options:

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Questions 15

Options:

A.

Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone Is not sufficient.

B.

Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone Is not sufficient.

C.

BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE Is sufficient.

D.

EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.

E.

Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

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Questions 16

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

E.

Option

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Questions 17

Each of the 75 employees at @ certain company works in exactly one of the company's 3 departments (Departments X, Y, and Z). Exactly 20% of the employees work in

Department X, and 10 fewer employees work in DepartmentY than work in Department Z.

Based on the information provided, select for Departinent Yand Department Zthe numbers of employees who work in Department Y and Department Z. Make only

two selections, one in each column.

Options:

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Questions 18

The scientists say the newly discovered caverns range from 330 to 825 feet wider from at least 425 feet deep, and have named them after family members and friends.

Options:

A.

wide, from at least 425 feet deep, and

B.

wide and are at least 425 feet deep, and they

C.

wide, are at least 425 feet deep, and

D.

wide, while being at least 425 feet deep and they

E.

wide and at least 425 feet deep and

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Questions 19

Buoyed by stability and economic growth at home, Russia has developed a foreign policy that seeks to reestablish its place as a key actor on the world stage.

Options:

A.

Buoyed by stability and economic growth at home, Russia has developed a foreign policy that seeks to reestablish its place as a key actor on the world stage.

B.

Given that it is stable at home and with economic growth, Russia has developed a foreign policy that seeks to restore its place being a key actor throughout the world stage.

C.

Held high by its own stability and economic growth, Russia has developed a foreign policy that seeks to once again restore its key place acting on the world stage.

D.

Through stability and economic growth at home, Russia invigorated a foreign policy that desires reestablishment of its place as a key actor on the world stage.

E.

Russia has developed a foreign policy seeking to reestablish its place as a key actor on the world stage elevated by stability and economic growth at home.

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Questions 20

The passage suggests that one reason that the "conditions of captivity" (see bolded text) were significant was that

Options:

A.

food and water were readily available to all members of a group

B.

researchers were unable to observe animals from an unobtrusive distance

C.

climatic conditions seldom matched those of the animals' natural habitat

D.

animals were unable to distance themselves from each other physically

E.

animals lacked opportunities to interact with members of other species

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Questions 21

The use o* bets in the 1998 study was intended to deflect objections that would be based on which of the following Issues?

Options:

A.

The possibility of research subjects interpreting "probability" so as not to conform to the mathematical principles, and their interpretation of Xto include additional information

B.

The possibility of research subjects interpreting "probability" so as not to conform to the mathematical principles, and the lack of motivation of some of the subjects

C.

Failure of research subjects to recognize that adolescent smoking could decrease even when the cigarette tax remains the same

D.

The Interpretation of *by some study subjects to include additional Information, and their lack of concentration on the assigned tasks

E.

The fact that some of the research subjects did not commit the conjunction fallacy

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Questions 22

Using computer models, ecologist Werner Kurtz is able both to weigh the effect of the beetle outbreak by indicating the health the forest would most likely be enjoying today had the beetle population not exploded and to predict the consequences for the forest should beetle population increases continue unabated.

Options:

A.

the hearth the forest would most likely be enjoying today had the beetle population not exploded

B.

the forest s likely health today if the beetle population did not explode

C.

the health enjoyed by the forest today without the beetle population explosion that occurred

D.

if the beetle population did not explode, the forest of today would most likely be enjoying health

E.

the likely health the forest today would be enjoying if the beetle population had not exploded

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Questions 23

Under laboratory conditions, fruit flies can learn to respond to odors that elicit no response from them in nature. Mutant fruit flies that cannot produce a certain enzyme are,

however, incapable of such learning. These mutant flies respond to other odors just as ordinary fruit flies do. Thus it is unlikely that the enzyme's absence impairs

the fruit flies’ perception of odors, since presumably fruit flies would not have an enzyme that was needed only for the perception of odors that fruit flies

do not respond to in nature. Given that many researchers believe that this enzyme is somehow involved in the process of forming memories, what the enzyme's absence

probably impairs is the fruit flies' ability to learn.

In the argument given, the two boldfaced portions play which of the following roles?

Options:

A.

The first is a conclusion drawn about one possible explanation of the phenomenon at issue; the second presents an explicit assumption that is introduced to support that

conclusion.

B.

The first is a hypothesis that the argument seeks to establish; the second is an alternative hypothesis, which the argument provides grounds for rejecting.

C.

The first is a hypothesis that the argument seeks to establish; the second presents an explicit assumption that has been used in arguing for the position that the

argument opposes.

D.

The first provides evidence in support of the main conclusion of the argument; the second is a claim that has been advanced in order to undermine the force of that

evidence.

E.

The first is an objection that has been raised against the position adopted in the argument; the second presents an explicit assumption that is introduced in order to

meet that objection.

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Questions 24

The first two sentences of the second paragraph serve primarily to

Options:

A.

provide an example of a species that relies on the help of another species in defending itself against a particular predator

B.

provide a point of reference against which the author's description of a related phenomenon can be compared

C.

introduce a phenomenon that casts doubt on experimental results described later in the passage

D.

introduce the phenomenon that the experiment described later in the passage is designed to explain

E.

offer a conventional but probably inaccurate view of how many plants defend themselves from predators

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Questions 25

Taking as her focus Bengali-language books of household advice, the author traces how colonialism gradually reconfigured daily domestic life, with the result that familial and domestic authority, once held by elder women, was replaced by that of the modern colonial husband.

Options:

A.

familial and domestic authority, once held by elder women, was

B.

elder women’s authority was in familial and domestic matters

C.

authority over familial and domestic matters held by elder women was

D.

elder women, the authorities in familial and domestic matters, were

E.

the authority of elder women in familial and domestic matters was

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Questions 26

Options:

A.

5.79

B.

6.57

C.

7.57

D.

8.14

E.

12.28

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Questions 27

It can be inferred from the passage that if Cope's hypothesis were correct, which of the following would most likely be true concerning salt-affected areas in Victoria?

Options:

A.

The permeable layer of soil would be less thick than the impermeable layer.

B.

Average soil salinity would be less before a rainfall than after a rainfall.

C.

Average soil salinity on certain hillside areas would be less than average soil salinity in adjacent valleys.

D.

During a year of especially low rainfall, the salinity of the soil on the valley floor would decrease.

E.

The land in valley floors affected by salinization would tend to be waterlogged except in dry seasons.

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Questions 28

Paleontologist: Dinosaurs belonged to two major taxonomic groups, the Saurischia and the Orlnithischia. Scientists have long known that the branch of the Saurischia from which birds are descended had primitive feathers. However, a recently discovered fossil of a previously unknown Orinithischia species also has feather-like structures. Thus, dinosaurs must have evolved feathers early in their history, before the Saurischia and Orinithischia diverged.

Which of the following is an assumption the paleontologist's argument requires?

Options:

A.

It is not likely that Orinithischia evolved feathers independently of Saurischia.

B.

Most species of both the Orinithischia and the Saurischia had primitive feathers.

C.

At least one dinosaur fossil dating from the era before the Saurischia and Orinithischia diverged shows evidence of feather-Ike structures.

D.

Scientists had not previously discovered any fossils from Orinithischia species that had primitive feathers.

E.

At least some bird species are descended from the previously unknown dinosaur species of the recently discovered fossil.

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Questions 29

Taking as her focus Bengali-language books of household advice, the author traces how colonialism gradually reconfigured daily domestic life, with the result that familial and domestic authority, once held by elder women, was replaced by that of the modern colonial husband.

Options:

A.

familial and domestic authority, once held by elder women, was

B.

elder women’s authority was in familial and domestic matters

C.

authority over familial and domestic matters held by elder women was

D.

elder women, the authorities in familial and domestic matters, were

E.

the authority of elder women in familial and domestic matters was

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Questions 30

Although a substantial body of evidence Indicates that flexible and participative work arrangements make possible significant performance advantages over more traditional centralized and hierarchical structures, the proportion of businesses that have so transformed themselves remains quite small. Why, then, do firms that purport to be rationally acting organizations appear to resist the very methods that would best equip them to achieve their stated goals?

The passage most strongly suggests that most firms aim to

Options:

A.

adopt flexible and participative work arrangements

B.

adopt innovative routines and production methods

C.

enhance the centralization and hierarchy of their bureaucratic structures

D.

produce more-marketable goods and services

E.

achieve improved performance

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Questions 31

Select from each drop-down menu the option that creates the statement that most accurately reflects the information in the graph.

The age groups of India reflected on the vertical axis for which the population is projected to be higher in 2050 than it was in 2010 are the age groups that are above Select...

The age groups of India reflected on the vertical axis for which the population is projected to be lower in 2050 than it was in 2010 are the age groups that are below Select...

Options:

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Questions 32

The table provides data about 12 different Persian rugs currently available for sale by a rug dealer. For each rug, the data includes the number of knots per square inch (KPSI) in the yarn, which is consistent throughout the rug.

Options:

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Questions 33

Geraldine: The medical profession claims that it is constantly refining its diagnostic techniques so as to improve its ability to treat those who are ill, but I suspect that this is all Just obfuscation. Anyone who really wants to know why medical diagnoses have increased in recent years need look only at the tremendous amount of money that is made manufacturing, advertising, and distributing drugs.

Which of the following would it be most useful to determine in evaluating Geraldine's explanation?

Options:

A.

Whether the medical profession's diagnostic techniques have changed significantly in recent years

B.

Whether in recent years medical professionals have prescrfoed different medications than they did in years past for certain ailments

C.

Whether in recent years those who were prescribed drugs reported that they were satisfied with the treatment they received

D.

Whether in recent years diagnoses of ailments treated by nondrug therapies have increased at a more rapid rate than diagnoses of ailments treated by drugs

E.

Whether in recent years the amount of money that was made manufacturing, advertising, and distributing drugs was greater than the amount of money that was made by the physicians who diagnosed ailments

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Questions 34

In good times, an auction is the obvious choice for colectors wanting to sell a work of art, but A did just a few short months ago.

Options:

A.

to, fewer collectors are putting their holdings up for auction as

B.

to, less of them are putting their holdings up for auction than

C.

to, collectors aren't putting their holdings up for auction, and there are fewer than

D.

to do so, fewer of them put up their holdings for auction as they

E.

to put their holdings up for auction, they don't, and fewer are doing so now than

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Questions 35

Protectionist trade restrictions harm large segments of society for the benefit of a smaller segment. For example, every time the steel industry asks for tariffs on steel Imports from foreign countries, someone correctly points out that if that wish were granted, it would harm the United States auto industry and other steel users, not to mention consumers. Protectionist trade restrictions serve particular interests and only rarely also the general welfare. But the U.S. Constitution requires the government to serve the general welfare. It follows that__________.

Which of the following best completes the passage?

Options:

A.

trade restrictions of any kind are unconstitutional

B.

most U.S. domestic industries are probably helped, not hindered, by foreign competition

C.

protectionist trade restrictions are usually incompatible with the U.S. Constitution

D.

government measures that serve the general interest are generally compatible with the U.S. Constitution

E.

the general welfare requires protectionist trade restrictions

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Questions 36

The company’s long-term planning statement, particularly the sections condemning temporary price adjustments and new customer-service approaches, were criticized for

being insufficiently responsive to the current business climate.

Options:

A.

approaches, were criticized for being

B.

approaches being criticized as

C.

approaches, was criticized as

D.

approaches, criticized for being

E.

approach was criticized as

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Questions 37

Until the Apollo astronauts brought samples of lunar material to Earth during 196£-72, scientists believed that the Moon's surface was largely undisturbed, given its dry, airless environment. Examination of the samples has shown otherwise. Micrometeorites, many smaller than a pencil point, constantly rain onto the Moon at up to 100,000 kilometers per hour, chipping materials or forming microscopic craters. Some melt the soil and vaporize and recondense as glassy coats on other specks of dust. Impacts weld debris into lumps of heterogeneous matter called "agglutinates." Complicated interactions with solar particle streams convert iron into myriads of microscopic iron grains. The regdith—pebbles, sand, and dust-from these erosion processes blankets the Moon. Much of the top layer consists of a complex abrasive dust of microscopic glass shards that can grind machinery and sealing devices and damage human lungs.

The Apollo specimens held by the United States are doled out in ultra-small samples to scientists who demonstrate that nothing else will suffice for high-value experiments. Renewed interest In lunar exploration in the late 1980s meant that materials designed to simulate lunar regolith—simulants—were needed for research to develop schemes for lunar building and procedures for extracting elements such as oxygen found abundantly in regolith. That led to the development of JSC-1 in 1993, made of volcanic cinder cone from a quarry in Arizona in the U.S. The more than 22 metric tons made was in high demand. Efforts are now afoot to manufacture 16 metric tons of JSC-1 A, with 1 ton of fine grains, 14 tons of moderately fine, and 1 ton of coarse.

The information in the passage most strongly supports which of the following claims about the samples of lunar material brought back from the Moon by the Apollo astronauts?

Scientists for whose experiments JSC-1A would suffice are not regarded as entitled to obtain material from the samples.

Options:

A.

Only scientists working on the development of simulants of lunar regolith have access to the samples.

B.

The samples were of all the major types of lunar regolith.

C.

The samples' ingredients included some cinder cone from lunar volcanoes.

D.

Only one of the samples contained ilmenite.

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Questions 38

As discussed in the passage, smoothing production is primarily concerned with

Options:

A.

using the most efficient production processes available in order to avoid bottlenecks

B.

absorbing into overhead expenses the cost of holding inventory

C.

keeping production lines running continuously without interruption for maintenance

D.

assuring that there are as few peaks and valleys as possible in demand for the products made

E.

maintaining production levels as constant as is practicable

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Questions 39

The company's choice of Mr. Frederick for the position was based mostly on his being mote of a manager than the other candidates.

Options:

A.

mostly on his being more of a manager than the other candidates

B.

mostly from the fact that he was more a manager than the other candidates

C.

mostly on the fact that he was more of a manager than on what the other candidates were

D.

more on his being a manager than what the other candidates were

E.

on the fact of he being more a manager than the other candidates were

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Questions 40

The belief of physicists Enrico Fermi and Glenn Seaborg, articulated In 1946, that nuclear physics would ultimately prove more useful a tool in medical diagnosis treatment than as a source of energy was not widely shared by their colleagues.

Options:

A.

more useful a tool in medical diagnosis and treatment than as

B.

more useful as a tool in medical diagnosis and treatment than

C.

more useful as a tool for medical diagnosis and treatment than as

D.

a more useful tool in medical diagnosis and treatment than

E.

a more useful tool in medical diagnosis and treatment than as

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Questions 41

In none of the archaeological sites where floor mosaics were found, not even in those one that like Alarna or Gaanip had well-preserved mosaics in them, there was any evidence of Greek artisans having worked there.

Options:

A.

ones that like Alarna or Gaanip had well-preserved mosaics in them, there was

B.

like Alarna or Gaanip. with well-preserved mosaics, was there

C.

such as Alarna or Gaanip with well-preserved mosaics in them, there was

D.

that, like Alarna or Gaanip, had well-preserved mosaics, was there

E.

ones like Alarna or Gaanip having well-preserved mosaics, was there

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Questions 42

Options:

A.

Statement (1) ALONE Is sufficient, but statement (2) alone Is not sufficient

B.

Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient but statement (1) atone is not sufficient.

C.

BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

D.

EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.

E.

Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

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Questions 43

As per following figure below:

What is the best answer

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

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Questions 44

What is the median of the numbers in set A?

(1) n is even.

(2) n is less than 7.

Options:

A.

Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone Is not sufficient.

B.

Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) atone is not sufficient.

C.

BOTH statements TOGETHER ace sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE Is sufficient.

D.

EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.

E.

Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

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Questions 45

Pete made a trip to the beach, of which 80 kilometers were on highway X. What was Pete’s average speed for the trip?

(1)

Pete’s average speed for the part of the trip on highway X was 80 kilometers per hour.

(2)

Pete’s average speed for the part of the trip not on highway X was 96 kilometers per hour.

Options:

A.

Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.

B.

Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.

C.

BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

D.

EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.

E.

Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

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Questions 46

Options:

A.

x+2

B.

x+3

C.

2x

D.

2x+1

E.

4x+2

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Questions 47

Options:

A.

Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient

B.

Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.

C.

BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

D.

EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.

E.

Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

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Questions 48

Of the coins in a certain collection, 30 percent were issued more than ten years ago and 45 percent are foreign. Of the foreign coins, 20 percent were issued more than ten

years ago. If there are 1,500 coins in the collection, how many are foreign coins that were issued ten years ago or less?

Options:

A.

75

B.

135

C.

315

D.

375

E.

540

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Questions 49

Options:

A.

7

B.

6

C.

5

D.

4

E.

3

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Questions 50

If = 5 × 10k, what is the value of k?

Options:

A.

–6

B.

–3

C.

–2

D.

3

E.

6

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Questions 51

If n is a positive integer greater than 1 and n integers are added together, is the sum even?

(1) n is even.

(2) Exactly n- 1 of the integers are odd.

Options:

A.

Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) atone is not sufficient.

B.

Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.

C.

BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

D.

EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.

E.

Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

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Questions 52

Last month Ann, Bob, Carl, Dave, and Ellen volunteered at a hospital. The number of hours that Carl volunteered was equal to the average (arithmetic mean) number of hours volunteered by the 5 people. If the number of hours that Carl volunteered was also equal to the total number of hours that Ann and Bob volunteered, then the total number of hours that Dave and Ellen volunteered was how many times the number of hours that Carl volunteered?

Options:

A.

2

B.

3

C.

4

D.

5

E.

6

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Questions 53

If x, y, and z are positive integers and x3y4 = z, what is the value of x?

(1)

y = 2

(2)

z = 2,000

Options:

A.

Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.

B.

Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.

C.

BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

D.

EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.

E.

Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

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Questions 54

What is the value of 1 – c – d?

(1)

c + d = 2

(2)

c = d + 1

Options:

A.

Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.

B.

Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.

C.

BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

D.

EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.

E.

Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

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Questions 55

Is x2– X positive?

Options:

A.

Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone Is not sufficient.

B.

Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) atone is not sufficient.

C.

BOTH statements TOGETHER ace sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE Is sufficient.

D.

EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.

E.

Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

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Questions 56

Candidate McFee received 12,000 votes, which was of the total number of votes. If .r additional people had voted and each had voted for McFee, then McFee would

have received of the total number of votes. What is the value of x?

Options:

A.

8,000

B.

6,000

C.

4,000

D.

3,000

E.

2,000

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Questions 57

If the perimeter of triangle AXB is 11, which of the following could be the length of side AB?

Options:

A.

None

B.

I only

C.

III only

D.

I and II

E.

II and III

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Questions 58

Options:

A.

Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.

B.

Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.

C.

BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

D.

EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.

E.

Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

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Questions 59

If one of the numbers in list M is 30, is the range of the numbers in M greater than 12?

(1)

The greatest number in M is 50.

(2)

The least number in M is 25.

Options:

A.

Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.

B.

Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.

C.

BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

D.

EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.

E.

Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

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Questions 60

For any data set, the proportion of data that lies within A" standard deviations of its mean is at least 1 - -K. The scores on a spelling test taken by 64 students have a mean of 74.0 and a standard deviation of 6.0. If t\$ the number of students who have scores greater than 62 and less than 86, and t\s as small as possible, what is the value of t?

Options:

A.

44

B.

48

C.

57

D.

61

E.

64

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Questions 61

∆ABC has sides whose lengths, in centimeters, are x, y, and z. If x < y < z, is ∆ABC a right triangle?

Options:

A.

Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.

B.

Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone Is not sufficient.

C.

BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE Is sufficient.

D.

EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.

E.

Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

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Questions 62

In the standard (x,y) coordinate plane, points (a,b) and (c,d) lie on the graph of y = x2. If ac < 0, what is the y-intercept of the line containing (a,b) and (c,d) ?

(1) d = 9

(2) ac = -3

Options:

A.

Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.

B.

Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.

C.

BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE Is sufficient.

D.

EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.

E.

Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

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Questions 63

Options:

A.

Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.

B.

Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.

C.

BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

D.

EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.

E.

Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

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Questions 64

What amount. In dollars, Invested for one year at an interest rate of 2 percent compounded semiannually would produce the same final balance at the end of the year as $10,000 Invested for one year at an interest rate of 4 percent compounded quarterly?

Options:

A.

$10,000

B.

$10,201

C.

$10,500

D.

$10,801

E.

$20,000

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Questions 65

Options:

A.

Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.

B.

Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.

C.

BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

D.

EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.

E.

Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

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Questions 66

A)

B)

C)

D)

E.

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

E.

Option

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Questions 67

In the coordinate plane, if P and Q are the points where the graph of y= c+ 2x- 8 intersects the y-axis, and the positive x-axis, respectively, what is the slope of the line containing P and Q?

Options:

A.

-2

B.

C.

¼

D.

2

E.

4

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Questions 68

If x ≠ 0, for which of the following sets of numbers is the average (arithmetic mean) equal to the median?

Options:

A.

I only

B.

II only

C.

III only

D.

I and II only

E.

I, II, and III

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Questions 69

Options:

A.

Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.

B.

Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.

C.

BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE Is sufficient.

D.

EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

E.

Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

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Questions 70

For which year between 1980 and 2008, inclusive, does the fee paid for television rights to that year's Olympic games represent the greatest percent increase over the fee paid for television rights to the Olympic games four years earlier?

Options:

A.

1998

B.

1984

C.

1992

D.

2000

E.

2008

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Questions 71

The figure above shows a playground with Its dimensions given In meters. What is the area, In square meters, on the playground?

Options:

A.

81

B.

89

C.

91

D.

99

E.

101

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Questions 72

At a certain hospital, the number of babies born each day of the year 2002 was recorded. If 20 percent of the recorded numbers were greater than 7, was the median of the recorded numbers less than 5 ?

(1) Of the recorded numbers that were 7 or less, 75 percent were less than 5.

(2) Of the recorded numbers that were 5 or greater, 50 percent were 7 or less.

Options:

A.

Statement (1) ALONE Is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.

B.

Statement (2) ALONE Is sufficient, but statement (1) atone is not sufficient.

C.

BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

D.

EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.

E.

Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

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Questions 73

Eric bought 7 T-shirts, each at the retail price of $6.91. If he paid a 6% sales tax on the total of the retail prices of the 7 T-shirts, what was the total amount, including tax, he paid for the T-shirts?

Options:

A.

$7.32

B.

$48.37

C.

$48.43

D.

$48.79

E.

$51.27

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Questions 74

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

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Questions 75

Options:

A.

Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient.

B.

Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) alone is not sufficient.

C.

BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

D.

EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

E.

Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

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Questions 76

For each international call made to Country B last month, a certain telephone company charged a customer $075 to connect the cal plus a certain per-minute rate applied to each minute or part of a minute of the duration of the call. If the telephone company's total charge for the customer's calls to Country B last month was $84.00, what was the per-minute rate, in dollars?

(1) The telephone company connected 12 calls for the customer to Country B last month.

(2) If the telephone company had no connection fee last month but had charged a per-minute rate that was 20 percent greater than the rate the customer was actually charged, then the total charge for the customer's calls to Country B last month would have been $90.00.

Options:

A.

Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone Is not sufficient.

B.

Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) atone is not sufficient.

C.

BOTH statements TOGETHER ace sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE Is sufficient.

D.

EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.

E.

Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

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Questions 77

When joni, Katrina, and Leah started their business, JKL Enterprises, each contributed an amount of money, in euros. The amounts were in the ratio of 3:5:8, respectively, and the first-year profit of JKL Enterprises was split in the same ratio. Katrina's share of the first-year profit was €5,000.

Select for First-year profit and for Leah's stare amounts In euros that are consistent with the given Information and could be the first-year profit of JKL Enterprises and Leah's share of those profits, respectively. Make only two selections, one in each column.

Options:

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Questions 78

West River Glen is deciding which network architecture should replace its old copper telephone lines. The town will replace 300 miles of Outside Plant (OSP) cable that will serve approximately 2,500 homes.

The first option is to install a Fiber to the Home (FTTH) system architecture that uses fiber-optic cable to transmit signals from the source to each home. The advantages of this architecture include greater bandwidth capabilities, less signal loss, and slightly lower new-cable deployment costs than the second option. Hybrid Fiber-Coax (HFC).

An HFC network integrates fiber-optic cables and devices with coaxial cables.

This will cost the town substantially less money for internal equipment and for customer installations. However, the coaxial cable does not last as long as fiberoptic cable and will thus need to be replaced more frequently, resulting in higher long-term maintenance expenses.

The town believes that either the FTTH or HFC architectures will be capable of serving the communities' data and television needs for the next 30 years.

According to the information provided, which of the following attributes is an advantage of HFC network architecture as compared with FTTH architecture?

Options:

A.

Lower new cable deployment costs

B.

Lower maintenance expenses

C.

Greater longevity of coaxial cable

D.

95% lower internal equipment deployment costs

E.

90% lower customer installation costs

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Questions 79

Welleby’s Plan

The water In the underground water table beneath the town of Welleby is moderately saline— 20,000millkjrarns of salt per liter of water (mg/L), or roughly half as saline as ocean water. To lower the level of the water table and thus prevent agricultural land from being inundated with salt water, the town plans to pump water from the table at a rate of 450kiloliters per day (kL/day) into a large shallow pond, allowing much of the water to evaporate. The town plans to divert 10percent of the water pumped from the water table to supplement Us supply of drinking water, which Is currently piped In from great distances. Due to the water's supply, the town intends to construct a desalination plant to treat the diverted water for use as drinking water.

Desalination Types

Comparison

Welleby is deciding among the following three desalination methods.

Reverse Osmosis (RO): Water Is pushed through a membrane, leaving salts behind. RO systems can handle a large range of water flow rates and use relatively little energy. However, RO membranes are expensive and must be replaced every 2 to 5 years. There is also a possibility that bacteria can grow on the membrane. Introducing tastes and odors Into the desalinated water.

Multi-Effect Distillation (MED): Saline water Is heated to produce water vapor, from which Is condensed potable fresh water. This process requires large amounts of energy, regardless of the salinity of the source water. It becomes more cost effective as water volumes increase.

Electrodialysis (ED): Electricity is used to selectively move salts through a membrane. Consumption of energy Is directly proportional to the salinity of the water to be treated, so with higher salinities the process rapidly becomes more costly than other methods. ED membranes need to be replaced every 7 to 10years.

Based on the information provided, which one of the following benefits to Welleby is most likely to result from Its building a desalination plant?

Options:

A.

Reduced dependence on distant sources for drinking water

B.

Reduced costs for pumping water from the underground water

C.

table Increased quantity of agricultural land

D.

Reduced salinity of the underground water table

E.

Reduced average salinity of the town's drinking water

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Questions 80

A company processes boxes that have a number of different dimensions. Based on the dimensions of the boxes, the company classifies all of them In three categories. A, B. and C. The table Ms some examples of boxes, their Dimensions, and their classification categories.

Options:

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Questions 81

The graph shows the total annual revenue. In US dollars (US$), from sales of each of 2 competing health-care products for 10 consecutive years. Product 1 was first sold In Year 1, and Product 2 was first sold ki Year 2.

From each drop-down menu, select the option that creates the most accurate statement based on the information provided.

Options:

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Questions 82

Which one of the following is the total number of bowls found at Site B that have no Identified artisan?

Options:

A.

15

B.

22

C.

31

D.

45

E.

57

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Questions 83

The Red Balloon Challenge was an experiment aimed at determining how quickly widely disbursed information could be gathered using social media. Competitors tried to locate 10 red weather balloons that had been tethered above random locations around the world in return for a $40,000 prize. The winning team located all of the balloons in just 9 hours, using an incentive-based strategy to encourage information sharing; The first person to send the correct coordinates of a particular balloon to the team received $2,000, but whoever recruited that person received $1,000, and the recruiter's recruiter received S500, and that person's recruiter received $250.

Select for 3 payments per balloon the amount of the prize money that the winning team would have remaining if they had to pay 3 people for each balloon located, and select for 4 payments per balloon the amount of the prize money that the winning team would have remaining if they had to pay 4 people for each balloon located. Make only two selections, one in each column.

Options:

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Questions 84

(1) The telephone company connected 12 calls for the customer to Country B last month.

(2) If the telephone company had no connection fee last month but had charged a per-minute rate that was 20 percent greater than the rate the customer was actually charged, then the total charge fa the customer's calls to Country B last month would have been $90.00.

Options:

A.

Statement (1) ALONE Is sufficient but statement (2) alone Is not sufficient.

B.

Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) atone Is not sufficient.

C.

BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE Is sufficient.

D.

EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.

E.

Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

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Questions 85

Executive: For this year, our firm's advertising budget for Brand X is four times that for last year, but only half that for the year before last. For each year, for each of our

brands, our advertising budget is 10 percent of the average (arithmetic mean) of two amounts: the brand's projected sales for the year and the brand's actual sales for the

preceding year. Actual sales of Brand X last year were $5.23 million.

Statement A: Given the executive's statements, a journalist could infer what this year's advertising budget for Brand X is if she knew what the amount of

was.

Statement B: Given the knowledge of this year's advertising budget for Brand X, if the reporter also knew Brand X's actual sales for the year before last, she could also

infer :

Select for A and for 8 two different options that, if inserted in the blanks, create statements that are supported by the statements attributed to the executive. Make only

two selections, one in each column.

Options:

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Questions 86

The graph summarizes data on a sample of 100 automobiles requiring warranty service within one year of purchase. Each automobile required service in exactly one of seven categories. For each category, the frequency\& the number of automobiles in the sample requiring service in that category; the cumulative frequency\s the total number of automobiles in (he sample requiring service in that category or in any of the categories to the left in the graph. In the graph, the frequency scale is on the left and the cumulative frequency scale is on the right.

From each drop-down menu, select the option that creates the most accurate statement based on the information provided.

Options:

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Questions 87

A certain local bakery operates 7 days a week. On Monday of next week, the bakery will begin a new schedule for baking 3 specialty breads. Under the new schedule, millet bread will be baked on Monday of next week and will be baked again every other day thereafter (Wednesday, Friday, and so on). Seven-grain bread will also be baked on Monday of next week, and will be baked again every third day thereafter (Thursday, Sunday, and so on). Pumpernickel bread will be baked on Tuesday of next week and will be baked again every third day thereafter. The schedule will continue indefinitely, and these 3 breads will not be baked at any times other than those specified.

In the table, select First day for none of the J for the day of the week on which, for the first time under the new schedule, none of the 3 specialty breads will be baked; select Second day for none of the 3'forthe day of the week on which, for the second time under the new schedule, none of the 3 specialty breads will be baked. Make only two selections, one in each column.

Options:

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Questions 88

A city's chamber of commerce has the following goal for small businesses: revenue should be at least 20% greater than costs. The Venn diagram indicates that x is the number of small businesses that both in Year 1 and in Year 2 met the goal. The diagram also indicates that 53 - x is the number of small businesses that met the goal in Year 1 but not in Year 2, and that 47 - x is the number of small businesses that met the goal in Year 2 but not in Year 1.

Options:

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Questions 89

A certain small company has a policy that every manager must be scheduled to be present at the company's office at any time during which all of the manager's supervisees

are scheduled to be present at the office. The shifts of the three supervisees of a certain manager, in 24-hour format, are as follows:

* Employee 1—Scheduled to be present from 11:30 through 16:00 every business day

* Employee 2—Scheduled to be present from 9:00 through 14:30 every business day

* Employee 3—Scheduled to be present from 10:30 through 13:30 every business day

Indicate below the earliest time and the latest time at which, based on the information provided, the manager must be scheduled to be present at the office on every

business day. Make only two selections, one in each column.

Options:

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Questions 90

An orchestra conductor « planning the group's next concert. The orchestra will play a total of 3 pieces, and the conductor requires the total playing time of the 3 pieces to be at least 90 minutes but no more than 120 minutes. The pieces the conductor is considering are listed below with the approximate playing time.

First the orchestra will play one of two preludes:

• Prelude A (10 minutes)

• Prelude 8 (28 minutes)

Next they will play one of two classical piano concertos:

• Concerto A (32 minutes)

• Concerto B (48 minutes)

Finally they will play one of two romantic symphonies:

• Symphony A (35 minutes)

• Symphony B (41 minutes)

Based on these approximate lengths, select for Piece X and for Piece K two different pieces so that Piece X will be played before Piece Y, and if the conductor chooses Piece X, then in of def to comply with the given time constraints, the conductor must also choose Piece Y. Make only two selections, one in each column.

Options:

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Questions 91

Journal

The editor of Metathesis, a new academic journal of literature, manages the peer-review of articles submitted for publication. The journal accepts articles focusing on any of three general subject areas: comparative literature, modernist literature, and postcolonial literature.

When an article is submitted, the editor has the article peer-reviewed by exactly three experts, none of whom authored or coauthored the article. The table (see the Reviewers/Authors tab) consists of all the authors or coauthors who have recently submitted articles and all the experts who currently peer-review or have recently peer-reviewed those articles. It also lists the general subject areas for each of the authors and reviewers.

Each author of each submitted article specializes in the general subject area of the article. Moreover, each recently submitted article was peer-reviewed by experts listed in the table.

Review Rules

Suppose Laprade was the secondary reviewer of a recently submitted article. For each of the following statements, select Keslf the statement must be true, based on this supposition and the information provided. Otherwise, select Ato.

Options:

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Questions 92

For each of the background colors, the graphic shows the average (arithmetic

mean) of the maximum prices that the participants who viewed the item with that

background reported that they were willing to pay for the item. Results are shown

for bath the auction and the negotiation scenarios.

Assuming the researchers’ hypothesized link between offers and aggression is

correct, for each of the following background colors select More aggressive if, on

average, participants in the negotiation group in the study behaved more

aggressively when the product was displayed with that background color than the

participants did when the product was displayed with a gray background.

Otherwise, select Not more aggressive.

Options:

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Questions 93

The artist has correctly determined that to make the largest possible square grid from the available tiles, she must use all of the except for those in the group of X tiles. Moreover, if she uses all of the tiles except for those in the group with X tiles and those in the group with Y tiles, she could make a smaller square grid.

select for X for Y the values that are consistent with the information provided. Make only two selections, one in each column.

Options:

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Questions 94

A motorist passing through an unfamiliar city needs to fill her car's fuel tank soon, well before she leaves the city, and needs to minimize her expenses. Nearby is the King Petrol station, offering the correct fuel for 2.OX) euros per liter. She has seen about one petrol station every 2 kilometers (km) of driving, on average, though distances vary. Prices at different petrol stations appear to vary randomly by up to 10%: roughly 2 km behind her in her journey she saw the correct fuel for 1.81 euros per liter. The fuel efficiency of her car under the current driving conditions is about 10 liters per 100 km. She could get a small amount of fuel at one station to allow her to drive to another station within the city.

On the basis of the information in the passage, select for Reason to stop the factor that most clearly provides a logical reason for the motorist to stop at the King Petrol station. And select for Reason not to stop the factor that most clearly provides a logical reason for the motorist not to stop at the King Petrol station. Make only two selections, one in each column.

Options:

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Questions 95

Researchers studying long-term changes In regional mouse populations have found that by focusing on the populations of a rare but widespread and easily identifiable species of mouse (Species X), they can make fairly accurate estimations about the total regional mouse populations.

In a report on a recent study that Included the data tables that follow, the researchers provided some addenda:

1. The Species X population of Region CV increased by 123,995 between 1990 and 2005.

2. In contrast, the Species X population of Region EW declined by about 52% during that same time.

For each of the following regions, select Ye$\i the region's Species X population decreased from 1960 to 1975 AND the region's total mouse population exceeded 50 million In 1975. Otherwise, select No.

Options:

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Questions 96

Options:

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Questions 97

Client: You've recommended that we use humor In our new radio advertising campaign. Why be funny on the radio when we haven't been funny in advertising campaigns for

other media?

Advertising director: Because humor on the radio is very engaging. Two other common approaches to radio advertising-using announcers and producing short catchy songs or jingles—are both so inherent In the existing radio programming that commercials using those two approaches often get tost in the programs. Humor, on the other hand, Is rare —so rare it stands out and engages completely.

The advertising director's argument depends on an assumption of cause and effect. Indicate by an appropriate selection which of the statements In the table most accurately describes the cause of such an effect, and which most accurately describes such an effect. Make only two selection one in each column.

Options:

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Questions 98

Options:

A.

Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient but statement (2) alone Is not sufficient.

B.

Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) atone is not sufficient.

C.

BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

D.

EACH statement ALONE b sufficient.

E.

Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

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Questions 99

Today a certain cinema multiplex has exactly two showings (an early showing and a late showing) for each of five films (Rims A, B, C, D, and E). All of these showings occur after noon, and each showing consists of the film only, with no previews, announcements, or advertisements. The following gives the duration of each film and the start time for each showing:

• Film A (90 minutes); 3:45 and 5:30

• Film B (100 minutes); 1:30 and 7:15

• Film C (105 minutes); 2:00 and 6:00

• Film D (115 minutes); 5:00 and 8:00

• Film E (125 minutes); 12:15 and 7:00

Statement: The early showing of Rim ---------1 overlaps with at least part of both showings of Film ----------2.

Select for / and for 2 the options that complete the statement so that It Is accurate of the showings listed in the Information provided. Make only two selections, one in each column.

Options:

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Questions 100

A company is considering replacing its periodic offsite face-to-face meetings with ones that can be conducted online In a virtual environment. The company calculated Its costs for each face-Io-face meeting as well as the initial one-time costs necessary to set up online meeting capabilities. Once those capabilities are established, the company incurs negligible additional costs for each subsequent meeting. The graphic shows the one-time cost to the company for the virtual meetings as well as the total costs for the face-to-face meetings. For example, if the company conducted 5 face-to-face meetings, then the total costs to the company for the meetings would be approximately US$20,000.

Options:

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Questions 101

Options:

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Questions 102

Options:

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Questions 103

West River Glen is deciding which network architecture should replace its old copper telephone lines. The town will replace 300 miles of Outside Plant (OSP) cable that will serve approximately 2,500 homes.

The first option is to install a Fiber to the Home (FTTH) system architecture that uses fiber-optic cable to transmit signals from the source to each home. The advantages of this architecture include greater bandwidth capabilities, less signal loss, and slightly lower new-cable deployment costs than the second option. Hybrid Fiber-Coax (HFC).

An HFC network integrates fiber-optic cables and devices with coaxial cables.

This will cost the town substantially less money for internal equipment and for customer installations. However, the coaxial cable does not last as long as fiberoptic cable and will thus need to be replaced more frequently, resulting in higher long-term maintenance expenses.

The town believes that either the FTTH or HFC architectures will be capable of serving the communities' data and television needs for the next 30 years.

For each of the following statements, select Supported'if the statement is supported by the information given. Otherwise, select Not supported.

Options:

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Questions 104

Select from the drop-down menus the options that create the statement that te most clearly supported by the Information In the graph.

Options:

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Questions 105

Journal

The editor of Metathesis, a new academic journal of literature, manages the peer-review of articles submitted for publication. The journal accepts articles focusing on any of three general subject areas: comparative literature, modernist literature, and postcolonial literature.

When an article is submitted, the editor has the article peer-reviewed by exactly three experts, none of whom authored or coauthored the article. The table (see the Reviewers/Authors tab) consists of all the authors or coauthors who have recently submitted articles and all the experts who currently peer-review or have recently peer-reviewed those articles. It also lists the general subject areas for each of the authors and reviewers.

Each author of each submitted article specializes in the general subject area of the article. Moreover, each recently submitted article was peer-reviewed by experts listed in the table.

Review Rules

Options:

A.

Poundstone was a primary reviewer and Kenyatta the secondary reviewer.

B.

Nichols was a primary reviewer and Kenyatta the secondary reviewer.

C.

Kenyatta was a primary reviewer and Nichols the secondary reviewer.

D.

Nichols was a primary reviewer and Farkas the secondary reviewer.

E.

Poundstone was a primary reviewer and Huang the secondary reviewer

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Exam Code: GMAT
Exam Name: Graduate Management Admission Test (2022)
Last Update: May 18, 2024
Questions: 465
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