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GRE Sample Questions Answers

Questions 4

The highly dispersed nature of Panzaleo pottery throughout present-day Ecuador has led archaeologists to speculate about the pottery's origins and significance. Jijon y Caamano attributed the pottery's distribution to trade, and based on the large quantities of pottery recovered in the Ambato-Latacunga region of the central Ecuadorian highlands, he proposed that region as the probable locus of production. However. Porras suggests that inhabitants of the subtropical eastern Andean slopes, or montafta, were the original producers of Panzaleo. Porras: theory involves the forced migration of the montaria population from their homeland in the Quijos River valley into the Ecuadorian highlands. The gradual exodus and ensuing dispersal of the makers of this ware could account for the diffuse distribution of the materials.

The passage cites evidence supporting which of the following hypotheses?

Options:

A.

Jijon y Caamaflos hypothesis about the relationship between trade and the distribution of Panzaleo pottery

B.

Jijon y Caamanos hypothesis about the probable locus of Panzaleo pottery production

C.

Porrasr hypothesis about who the original producers of Panzaleo pottery were

D.

Porras' hypothesis about the forced migration of certain peoples

E.

Porras' hypothesis about the dispersal of the original makers of Panzaleo porter)"

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Questions 5

The following appeared in a letter from the owner of the Sunnyside Towers apartment complex to its manager.

"Last week, all the showerheads in the first three buildings of the Sunnyside Towers complex were modified to restrict maximum water flow to one-third of what it used to be. Although actual readings of water usage before and after the adjustment are not yet available, the change will obviously result in a considerable savings for Sunnyside Corporation, since the corporation must pay for water each month. Except for a few complaints about low water pressure, no problems with showers have been reported since the adjustment. Clearly, modifying showerheads to restrict water flow throughout all twelve buildings in the Sunnyside Towers complex will increase our profits further."

Write a response in which you examine the stated and or unstated assumptions of the argument. Be sure to explain how the argument depends on these assumptions and what the implications are for the argument if the assumptions prove unwarranted.

Options:

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Questions 6

The following appeared in a memo from the president of Bower Builders, a company that constructs new homes.

"A nationwide survey reveals that the two most-desired home features are a large family room and a large, well-appointed kitchen. A number of homes in our area built by our competitor Domus Construction have such features and have sold much faster and at significantly higher prices than the national average. To boost sales and profits, we should increase the size of the family rooms and kitchens in all the homes we build and should make state-of-the-art kitchens a standard feature. Moreover, our larger family rooms and kitchens can come at the expense of the dining room, since many of our recent buyers say they do not need a separate dining room for family meals."

Write a response in which you examine the stated and or unstated assumptions of the argument. Be sure to explain how the argument depends on these assumptions and what the implications are for the argument if the assumptions prove unwarranted.

Options:

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Questions 7

Colleges and universities should require their students to spend at least one semester studying in a foreign country.

Write a response in which you discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with (lie claim. In developing and supporting your position- be sure to address the most compelling reasons and or examples that could be used to challenge your position.

Options:

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Questions 8

The following appeared as a letter to the editor from the owner of a skate shop in Central Plaza.

"Two years ago the city council voted to prohibit skateboarding in Central Plaza. They claimed that skateboard users were responsible for litter and vandalism that were keeping other visitors from coming to the plaza. In the past two years, however, there has been only a small increase in the number of visitors to Central Plaza. and litter and vandalism are still problematic. Skateboarding is permitted in Monroe Park, however, and there is no problem with litter or vandalism there. In order to restore Central Plaza to its former glory, then, we recommend that the city lift its prohibition on skateboarding in the plaza."

Write a response in which you discuss what questions would need to be answered in order to decide whether the recommendation and the argument on which it is based are reasonable. Be sure to explain how the answers to these questions would help to evaluate the recommendation.

Options:

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Questions 9

No act is done purely for the benefit of

Claim: others

All actions—even those that seem to be done

for other people—are based on self-interest.

Reason-

Write a response in which you discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with the claim and the reason on which that claim is based.

Options:

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Questions 10

Claim: Governments must ensure that their major cities receive the financial support they need in order to thrive.

Reason: It is primarily in cities that a nation's cultural traditions are preserved and generated.

Write a response in which you discuss the extent to which you agree or disagree with the claim and the reason on which that claim is based.

Options:

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Questions 11

There are far too many (i)________in the report, such as incorrect data (albeit on (ii)________points).

inconsistency between the text and related tables, and discrepancies between the citations and the references.

Options:

A.

unsupported generalizations

B.

stylistic infelicities

C.

little errors

D.

numerous

E.

minor

F.

perplexing

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Questions 12

Like paleontologists who interpret timescales from fossil evidence, we infer the history of star formation in the Milks' Way galaxy from the heavy-element composition of its stars. According to the big bang theory of the origin of the universe, the first gas clouds—and the first generation of stars formed from them—were composed of pure hydrogen and helium; most heavier elements— iron and calcium, for example—came later, created by explosions of supernovas, massive stars in their death thaws. Loaded with heavy elements, material ejected from supernovas enriched the interstellar gas clouds from which the next generation of stars formed, the level of heavy elements increasing with succeeding generations. Because most stars live for many billions of years and because the Milky Way is thus composed of multiple stellar generations, comparing the number of stars of low heavy-element abundance with those of high heavy-element abundance enables astronomers to untangle the history of star formation in the Milky Way.

The passage implies that if a star contains calcium, then the

Options:

A.

star does not belong to the first generation of stars

B.

star does not contain any hydrogen or helium

C.

calcium was not formed by the explosion of a supernova

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Questions 13

In the brushland of Klanos Island, seeds of the plant Emmenan the penduliflora normally stay dormant for years and germinate only after a brushfire. The resulting plants quickly mature, produce seed, and then die. It is the nitrogen dioxide in (he smoke that induces the seeds lo germinate. Because automobiles are being introduced on Klanos. and their exhaust contains nitrogen dioxide, the plants will probably be seen throughout Klanos every year.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument?

Options:

A.

All efforts to reduce the frequency and intensity of brushfires on Klanos have failed.

B.

Fires clear much of the brush in the habitat off. penduliflora. allowing germinating seeds to receive enough sunlight to grow.

C.

A small amount of nitrogen dioxide, such as is contained in the exhaust of two or three automobiles, is sufficient to induce the germination of nearby seeds off. penduliflora.

D.

The seeds of some of the other plants that are found on Klanos do not germinate unless the seed coat that protects the kernel of the seed is cracked by intense heat.

E.

Fires in the habitat off. penduliflora entirely destroy the plant's seeds in the places where the fires bum most intensely.

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Questions 14

It is hardly (i)_________that Roland, raised to (ii)_________ostentation, is building a house that is the antithesis of opulence.

Options:

A.

undeniable

B.

remarkable

C.

irrevocable

D.

savor

E.

recognize

F.

flout

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Questions 15

Since Gilmore. as a critic, has rarely if ever disliked works that are surprising and unpredictable, he will undoubtedly view this new novel as a (i)_________. since it skillfully (ii)_________conventional expectations.

Options:

A.

conundrum

B.

failure

C.

triumph

D.

satisfies

E.

assumes

F.

confounds

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Questions 16

Discussions of the collapse of the lowland Maya are not new. However, it might be better to say that Maya civilization as a whole did not collapse, although many zones did experience profound change. Because societies are not bounded, unitary entities. collapses are rarely total, and continuity is a normal pan of collapse At the end of the Classic period [200 900 C.E.]. the institution of divine kingship and many of the well-known markers of elite culture such as carved stelae [slabs erected for funerals or commemorative purposes] and hieroglyphic polychromes [multicolored artistic pottery) ended, but Maya civilization continued in modified form with many important features intact (e.g.. literacy, war. art. the production of fine ceramics). In some cases large buildings were constructed in the Postclassic period [900-1512 C.E.], but the transition to the Early Postclassic [900-1200 CXj era is distinctive for a decrease in elite goods and contexts. The variability in artifact changes during the Terminal Classic [800-900 C.E.] and into the Postclassic. even within artifact classes (e.g.. fine versus unslipped ceramics), suggests weaker centralized control than during the Classic period. Site abandonments in the Terminal Classic indicate the collapse of the functional ability of Maya states, but sites that survived show that Maya civilization continued albeit without divine kingship and much of the spectacle around it.

The passage suggests which of the following about Maya living after the Terminal Classic in "sites that survived"?

Options:

A.

Their customs were identical to those of their ancestors.

B.

Their pottery was totally utilitarian in nature.

C.

They no longer created caned stelae.

D.

They stopped erecting large buildings.

E.

They did not use written language.

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Questions 17

Which of the following most logically completes the explanation provided?

Options:

A.

birds that start out sitting on power lines cannot dive to the ground as quickly as birds that have been circling in the air before their dive

B.

sage grouse are less likely to come out in the open when they sense something moving in the air than when they do not

C.

sage grouse, when disturbed, do not move very swiftly on the ground

D.

the birds that prey on sage grouse can spot sage grouse that are out in the open from a considerable distance

E.

individual sage grouse do all their foraging in relatively small areas

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Questions 18

Recent research has questioned the long-standing view of pearly mussels as exclusively suspension feeders (animals that strain suspended particles from water) that subsist on phytoplankton (mostly algae). Early studies of mussel feeding were based on analyses of gut contents, a method that has three weaknesses. First, material in mucus-bound gut contents is difficult to identify and quantify. Second, material found in the gut may pass undigested out of the mussel, not contributing to its nutrition. Finally, examination of gut contents offers limited insight into the mechanisms and behaviors by which mussels acquire food. Modem studies suggest that pearly mussels feed on more than just algae and may use other means than suspension feeding. Pedal feeding (sweeping up edible material with a muscular structure called the foot) has been observed in juvenile pearly mussels.

Besides the phytoplankton pearly mussels capture from the water column, their guts also contain small animals, protozoans, and detritus (nonliving particulate organic material). Recent studies show that mussels can capture and assimilate bacteria as well, a potentially important source of food in many fresh waters. Another potential source of food for mussels is dissolved organic matter. Early studies showing that pearly mussels could take up simple organic compounds were largely discounted because such labile (unstable) compounds are rarely abundant in nature. Nevertheless, recent work on other bivalves suggests that dissolved organic matter may be a significant source of nutrition.

Of this complex mix of materials that pearly mussels acquire, what is actually required and assimilated? Stable-isotope analyses of mussels taken from nature and of captive-reared mussels are beginning to offer some insight into this question. Nichols and Garling showed that pearly mussels in a small river were omnivorous, subsisting mainly on particles less than 2S micrometers in diameter, including algae, detritus, and bacteria. Bacterially derived carbon was apparently the primary source of soft-tissue carbon. However, bacteria alone cannot support mussel growth, because they lack the necessary long-chain fatty acids and sterols and are deficient in some amino acids. Bacteria may supplement other food resources, provide growth factors, or be the primary food In habitats such as headwater streams, where phytoplankton is scarce. Juvenile mussels have been most successfully reared m the laboratory on diets containing algae high in polyunsaturated fatty acids. Thus, it appears that the pearly mussel diet in nature may consist of algae, bacteria, detritus, and small animals and that at least some algae and bacteria may be required as a source of essential biochemicals.

The passage mentions which of the following as a factor that limits the information researchers can glean from analyzing gut contents?

Options:

A.

Mussels may ingest material that is not essential to their nutrition.

B.

The mechanisms mussels use to acquire food are not well understood.

C.

Juvenile mussels are able to acquire edible material through pedal feeding.

D.

Mussels appear to feed on more than one kind of food.

E.

Captive-reared mussels ingest substances that wild mussels do not eat.

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Questions 19

Although technically their members were hunter-gatherers, many early Native California communities exhibited traits more typically associated with well-developed agrarian societies and. therefore, are often presented in the ethnographic literature as________.

Options:

A.

archaic

B.

pragmatic

C.

anomalous

D.

exemplary

E.

exceptional

F.

utilitarian

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Questions 20

Ultimately the ethical implications of neuroscieuce may be (i)_________than those of genetics. The transformations of behavior possible by manipulating neurons are both more predictable and more thorough than what can be achieved by altering genes. Even if the ethical and practical constraints on genetic experimentation suddenly (ii)_________- we'd have to wait decades to see the outcome of such experiments. Altering the brain's functioning, by contrast, can produce startlingly (iii)_________results.

Options:

A.

even more troubling

B.

more difficult to understand

C.

much less interesting

D.

solidified

E.

surfaced

F.

vanished

G.

unexpected

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Questions 21

One difficulty in convincing early scientists that craters fanned as a result of impacts from space is that most craters are circular. Impacts could come in at any angle, and experiments firing projectiles in the laboratory show that low-angle impacts lead to elliptical craters, not circular ones. Furthermore, while there was rarely evidence of any impacting object, there was often silicate melt around, suggesting that craters were caused by volcanic processes. The breakthrough in understanding crater origin was the recognition that the shock caused by the impacting object—not the object itself—creates a circular crater some twenty Times larger than the diameter of the impactor. The impact also generates enough heat to largely vaporize the impactor and melt the native rock.

Based on the passage, it can be inferred that research focused on "a classical case of bilingualism"

Options:

A.

could not establish metrics to compare bilinguals’ and monolinguals’ cognitive performance

B.

overstated the cognitive benefits of achieving perfect command of two languages as an adult

C.

identified a weak but consistent correlation between bilingualism and enhanced cognitive functioning

D.

failed to distinguish the effects of language acquisition from the effects of language use

E.

mischaractenzed the significance of childhood bilingualism for later language learning

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Questions 22

Although the claim that no one knows what dark matter is remains parallel assertion that dark matter has not been detected.

Options:

A.

contentious

B.

questionable

C.

sound

D.

prominent

E.

unassailable

F.

unverifiable

G.

some scientists dispute the

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Questions 23

Options:

A.

Quantity A is greater.

B.

Quantity B is greater.

C.

The two quantities are equal.

D.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

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Questions 24

In a set of polygons, 80 percent are hexagons. Of the hexagons. 20 percent are regular hexagons.

Options:

A.

Quantity A is greater.

B.

Quantity B is greater.

C.

The two quantities are equal.

D.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

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Questions 25

For how many of the five neighborhoods did the ratio of the foreign-born population to the total population of the neighborhood increase from 1930 to 1990?

Options:

A.

None

B.

One

C.

Two

D.

Three

E.

Four

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Questions 26

The graph summarizes the responses from 4.500 respondents who rated their degree of confidence in each of eight United States institutions. Each respondent gave each institution one of five confidence ratings: high, moderate, little, none, or undecided.

Of the respondents who did not rate their degree of confidence in the federal government undecided, approximately what fraction rated their degree of confidence in that institution little or none?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

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Questions 27

Options:

A.

Quantity A is greater.

B.

Quantity B is greater.

C.

The two quantities are equal.

D.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

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Questions 28

For each integer ;; greater than I. the sum of the first » positive integers is given by the formula shown.

If the average (arithmetic mean) of the first // positive integers is k. what is the sum of the first n positive integers in terms of k ?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

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Questions 29

Exhibit.

Hezekiah has a whole number of dollars to purchase fish for his fish tank. He has less than S100. and the cost of each type offish is shown in the table. If he purchases as many fish of type A as he can and no other fish, he will have S4 remaining. If he purchases as many fish of type B as he can and 1 fish of type C. he will have SO remaining. How many dollars does Hezekiah have?

Options:

A.

$52

B.

$64

C.

$66

D.

$72

E.

$75

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Questions 30

Options:

A.

Quantity A is greater.

B.

Quantity B is greater.

C.

The two quantities are equal

D.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

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Questions 31

A company has assets worth SI50.000 and liabilities worth S70.000. giving it an asset-to-liability ratio of approximately 2.1. The company will borrow x dollars, and the amount borrowed will be added to both the assets and the liabilities. If the asset-to-liability ratio is to be greater than 1.2 after the money is borrowed, which of the following could be the value of x ?

Indicate all such values.

Options:

A.

300.000

B.

320.000

C.

340.000

D.

360.000

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Questions 32

Options:

A.

Quantity A is greater.

B.

Quantity B is greater.

C.

The two quantities are equal.

D.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

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Questions 33

The five points C, D, E, F, and G lie on the number line, in that order from left to right, so that CD = 1.5 (EF) and DE = 1.5 (FG).

Options:

A.

Quantity A is greater.

B.

Quantity B is greater.

C.

The two quantities are equal.

D.

The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

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Questions 34

II cost a certain manufacturer a total of S7.8O0.OO to make and sell 6,500 units of a certain product. If the manufacturer sold each of the 6.500 units for S3.50. what was the manufacturer's profit per unit of the product? (Profit is equal to the selling price minus the cost.)

Options:

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Questions 35

A candy retailer packs pieces of fudge either in boxes of 12 pieces each or in boxes of 15 pieces each. If the retailer uses only 12-piece boxes to pack a certain batch of fudge, then 1 piece will be left over. If the retailer uses only 15-piece boxes to pack the batch, then 10 pieces will be left over and the retailer will use 7 fewer boxes than when using the 12-piece boxes. How many pieces of fudge are in the batch'1

Options:

A.

325

B.

360

C.

385

D.

445

E.

455

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Questions 36

How many fnsi-ye.it students did 112! take the placemen! exam in 1995 ?

Options:

A.

57

B.

63

C.

66

D.

70

E.

73

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Questions 37

-5, -3, -1, 0, 10, 20

How many different sums can be obtained by adding two different numbers from the list shown?

Options:

A.

11

B.

12

C.

13

D.

14

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Questions 38

The sales tax on clothing items in Country A is 25 percent of the purchase price of the item, and the sales tax on clothing items in Country B is 20 percent of the purchase price of the item. If the two countries have the same currency and if the price of a certain clothing item is the same in both countries, what percent greater is the amount of sales tax on the clothing item purchased in Country A than the amount of sales tax on the clothing item purchased in Country B ?

Options:

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Questions 39

The table above summarizes customer satisfaction ratings for two banks, where each rating is an integer from 1 to 10. Which of the following statements are true?

Indicate all such statements.

Options:

A.

For Bank I. if a rating is within 0.5 standard deviation of the mean rating, then the rating is 7.

B.

For Bank II. if a rating is within 0.4 standard deviation of the mean rating, then the rating is 6.

C.

The sum of all the ratings for Bank I is less than the sum of all the ratings for Bank II.

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Questions 40

The right circular cylindrical tank above has inner dimensions of radius 4 feet and height 10 feet. What is the greatest possible distance, in feet, between 2 points inside the tank?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

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Questions 41

How many noncongruent triangles are there such that the length of each side of each triangle is an integer and the perimeter of each triangle is 15 ?

Options:

A.

Five

B.

Six

C.

Seven

D.

Eight

E.

Nine

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Questions 42

Options:

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Exam Code: GRE
Exam Name: GRE General Test
Last Update: Apr 2, 2024
Questions: 407
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